Search Results

Search found 11166 results on 447 pages for 'justin standard'.

Page 415/447 | < Previous Page | 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422  | Next Page >

• Refactoring Singleton Overuse

  - by drharris

  Today I had an epiphany, and it was that I was doing everything wrong. Some history: I inherited a C# application, which was really just a collection of static methods, a completely procedural mess of C# code. I refactored this the best I knew at the time, bringing in lots of post-college OOP knowledge. To make a long story short, many of the entities in code have turned out to be Singletons. Today I realized I needed 3 new classes, which would each follow the same Singleton pattern to match the rest of the software. If I keep tumbling down this slippery slope, eventually every class in my application will be Singleton, which will really be no logically different from the original group of static methods. I need help on rethinking this. I know about Dependency Injection, and that would generally be the strategy to use in breaking the Singleton curse. However, I have a few specific questions related to this refactoring, and all about best practices for doing so. How acceptable is the use of static variables to encapsulate configuration information? I have a brain block on using static, and I think it is due to an early OO class in college where the professor said static was bad. But, should I have to reconfigure the class every time I access it? When accessing hardware, is it ok to leave a static pointer to the addresses and variables needed, or should I continually perform Open() and Close() operations? Right now I have a single method acting as the controller. Specifically, I continually poll several external instruments (via hardware drivers) for data. Should this type of controller be the way to go, or should I spawn separate threads for each instrument at the program's startup? If the latter, how do I make this object oriented? Should I create classes called InstrumentAListener and InstrumentBListener? Or is there some standard way to approach this? Is there a better way to do global configuration? Right now I simply have Configuration.Instance.Foo sprinkled liberally throughout the code. Almost every class uses it, so perhaps keeping it as a Singleton makes sense. Any thoughts? A lot of my classes are things like SerialPortWriter or DataFileWriter, which must sit around waiting for this data to stream in. Since they are active the entire time, how should I arrange these in order to listen for the events generated when data comes in? Any other resources, books, or comments about how to get away from Singletons and other pattern overuse would be helpful.

  Read the article

• SQL Server architecture guidance

  - by Liam

  Hi, We are designing a new version of our existing product on a new schema. Its an internal web application with possibly 100 concurrent users (max)This will run on a SQL Server 2008 database. On of the discussion items recently is whether we should have a single database of split the database for performance reasons across 2 separate databases. The database could grow anywhere from 50-100GB over 5 years. We are Developers and not DBAs so it would be nice to get some general guidance. [I know the answer is not simple as it depends on the schema, archiving policy, amount of data etc. ] Option 1 Single Main Database [This is my preferred option]. The plan would be to have all the tables in a single database and possibly to use file groups and partitioning to separate the data if required across multiple disks. [Use schema if appropriate]. This should deal with the performance concerns One of the comments wrt this was that the a single server instance would still be processing this data so there would still be a processing bottle neck. For reporting we could have a separate reporting DB but this is still being discussed. Option 2 Split the database into 2 separate databases DB1 - Customers, Accounts, Customer resources etc DB2 - This would contain the bulk of the data [i.e. Vehicle tracking data, financial transaction tables etc]. These tables would typically contain a lot of data. [It could reside on a separate server if required] This plan would involve keeping the main data in a smaller database [DB1] and retaining the [mainly] read only transaction type data in a separate DB [DB2]. The UI would mainly read from DB1 and thus be more responsive. [I'm aware that this option makes it harder for Referential Integrity to be enforced.] Points for consideration As we are at the design stage we can at least make proper use of indexes to deal performance issues so thats why option 1 to me is attractive and its more of a standard approach. For both options we are considering implementing an archiving database. Apologies for the long Question. In summary the question is 1 DB or 2? Thanks in advance, Liam

  Read the article

• Check to see if CallResponder is processing

  - by Travesty3

  I'm using Flash Builder 4.6. As a simple example, say I have the following application: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:sdk="services.sdk.*"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function btnGetValue_clickHandler():void { getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); } private function getValueResultHandler():void { // ... } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <sdk:SDK id="sdk" fault="{Alert.show(event.fault.faultString +'\n\n'+ event.fault.faultDetail, 'SDK ERROR');}" showBusyCursor="false"/> <s:CallResponder id="getValueResult" result="getValueResultHandler()"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button id="btnGetValue" click="btnGetValue_clickHandler()" label="Get Value" /> </s:Application> So when you click on the button, it calls a PHP file and when it gets a result, it calls getValueResultHandler(). Easy enough. But what if the response from the PHP file takes a second or two and the user clicks the button rapidly? Then the result handler function may not get called every time, since the call responder gets a new token before it received the last response. Is there a standard way of resolving this issue? I came up with the following workaround, and it works fine, but it seems like this issue would be common enough to have a more built-in solution. My workaround is: var getValueResultProcessing:Boolean = false; private function btnGetValue_clickHandler():void { var interval:uint = setInterval(function():void { if (!getValueResultProcessing) { getValueResultProcessing = true; getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); clearInterval(interval); } }, 100); getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); } private function getValueResultHandler():void { getValueResultProcessing = false; // ... } Any better way of resolving this issue?

  Read the article

• MVC EditorFor bind to type in array

  - by BradBrening

  I have a ViewModel that, among other properties, contains an array of 'EmailAddress' objects. EmailAddress itself has properties such as "Address", and "IsPrimary". My view model breakdown is: public class UserDetailsViewModel { public BUser User { get; set; } public string[] Roles { get; set; } public EmailAddress[] EmailAddresses { get; set; } } I am showing a "User Details" page that is pretty standard. For example, I'm displaying data using @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.UserName) and @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.Comment) I also have a section on the page that lists all of the EmailAddress objects associated with the user: @if(Model.EmailAddresses.Length > 0) { foreach (var address in Model.EmailAddresses) { <div> @Html.DisplayFor(model => address.Address) </div> } } else { <div class="center">User does not have any email addresses.</div> } My problem is that I would like to show an "Add Email Address" form above the list of email addresses. I thought I would take the "normal" approach thusly: @using(Html.BeginForm(new { id=Model.User.UserName, action="AddUserEmailAddress" })) { <text>Address:</text> @Html.EditorFor(model => ** HERE I AM STUCK **) <input type="submit" value="Add Email" class="button" /> } As you may be able to tell, I am stuck here. I've tried model => Model.EmailAddresses[0] and model => Model.EmailAddresses.FirstOrDefault(). Both of these have failed horribly. I am sure that I am going about this all wrong. I've even thought of adding a "dummy" property to my ViewModel of type EmailAddress just so that I can bind to that in my EditorFor - but that seems to be a really bad hack. There has to be something simple that I'm overlooking! I would appreciate any help anyone can offer with this matter. Thank you in advance!

  Read the article

• Is there a way to keep track of the ordering of items in a dictionary?

  - by Corpsekicker

  I have a Dictionary<Guid, ElementViewModel>. (ElementViewModel is our own complex type.) I add items to the dictionary with a stock standard items.Add(Guid.NewGuid, new ElementViewModel() { /*setters go here*/ });, At a later stage I remove some or all of these items. A simplistic view of my ElementViewModel is this: class ElementViewModel { Guid Id { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } int SequenceNo { get; set; } } It may be significant to mention that the SequenceNos are compacted within the collection after adding, in case other operations like moving and copying took place. {1, 5, 6} - {1, 2, 3} A simplistic view of my remove operation is: public void RemoveElementViewModel(IEnumerable<ElementViewModel> elementsToDelete) { foreach (var elementViewModel in elementsToDelete) items.Remove(elementViewModel.Id); CompactSequenceNumbers(); } I will illustrate the problem with an example: I add 3 items to the dictionary: var newGuid = Guid.NewGuid(); items.Add(newGuid, new MineLayoutElementViewModel { Id = newGuid, SequenceNo = 1, Name = "Element 1" }); newGuid = Guid.NewGuid(); items.Add(newGuid, new MineLayoutElementViewModel { Id = newGuid, SequenceNo = 2, Name = "Element 2" }); newGuid = Guid.NewGuid(); items.Add(newGuid, new MineLayoutElementViewModel { Id = newGuid, SequenceNo = 3, Name = "Element 3" }); I remove 2 items RemoveElementViewModel(new List<ElementViewModel> { item2, item3 }); //imagine I had them cached somewhere. Now I want to add 2 other items: newGuid = Guid.NewGuid(); items.Add(newGuid, new MineLayoutElementViewModel { Id = newGuid, SequenceNo = 2, Name = "Element 2, Part 2" }); newGuid = Guid.NewGuid(); items.Add(newGuid, new MineLayoutElementViewModel { Id = newGuid, SequenceNo = 3, Name = "Element 3, Part 2" }); On evaluation of the dictionary at this point, I expected the order of items to be "Element 1", "Element 2, Part 2", "Element 3, Part 2" but it is actually in the following order: "Element 1", "Element 3, Part 2", "Element 2, Part 2" I rely on the order of these items to be a certain way. Why is it not as expected and what can I do about it?

  Read the article

• Daemonize() issues on Debian

  - by djTeller

  Hi, I'm currently writing a multi-process client and a multi-treaded server for some project i have. The server is a Daemon. In order to accomplish that, i'm using the following daemonize() code: static void daemonize(void) { pid_t pid, sid; /* already a daemon */ if ( getppid() == 1 ) return; /* Fork off the parent process */ pid = fork(); if (pid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* If we got a good PID, then we can exit the parent process. */ if (pid > 0) { exit(EXIT_SUCCESS); } /* At this point we are executing as the child process */ /* Change the file mode mask */ umask(0); /* Create a new SID for the child process */ sid = setsid(); if (sid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Change the current working directory. This prevents the current directory from being locked; hence not being able to remove it. */ if ((chdir("/")) < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Redirect standard files to /dev/null */ freopen( "/dev/null", "r", stdin); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stdout); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stderr); } int main( int argc, char *argv[] ) { daemonize(); /* Now we are a daemon -- do the work for which we were paid */ return 0; } I have a strange side effect when testing the server on Debian (Ubuntu). The accept() function always fail to accept connections, the pid returned is -1 I have no idea what causing this, since in RedHat & CentOS it works well. When i remove the call to daemonize(), everything works well on Debian, when i add it back, same accept() error reproduce. I've been monitring the /proc//fd, everything looks good. Something in the daemonize() and the Debian release just doesn't seem to work. (Debian GNU/Linux 5.0, Linux 2.6.26-2-286 #1 SMP) Any idea what causing this? Thank you

  Read the article

• How to override loading a TImage from the object inspector (at run-time)?

  - by Mawg

  Further to my previous question, which did not get a useful answer despite a bounty, I will try rephrasing the question. Basically, when the user clicks the ellipsis in the object inspector, Delphi opens a file/open dialog. I want to replace this handling with my own, so that I can save the image's path. I would have expected that all I need to do is to derive a class from TImage and override the Assign() function, as in the following code. However, when I do the assign function is never called. So, it looks like I need to override something else, but what? unit my_Image; interface uses Classes, ExtCtrls, Jpeg, Graphics; type Tmy_Image = class(Timage) private FPicture : TPicture; protected procedure OnChange(Sender: TObject); public { Public declarations } Constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); override; procedure SetPicture(picture : TPicture); procedure Assign(Source: TPersistent); override; published { Published declarations - available in the Object Inspector at design-time } property Picture : TPicture read FPicture write SetPicture; end; // of class Tmy_Image() procedure Register; implementation uses Controls, Dialogs; procedure Register; begin RegisterComponents('Standard', [Tmy_Image]); end; Constructor Tmy_Image.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited; // Call the parent Create method Hint := 'Add an image from a file|Add an image from a file'; // Tooltip | status bar text AutoSize := True; // Control resizes when contents change (new image is loaded) Height := 104; Width := 104; FPicture := TPicture.Create(); self.Picture.Bitmap.LoadFromResourceName(hInstance, 'picture_poperty_bmp'); end; procedure Tmy_Image.OnChange(Sender: TObject); begin Constraints.MaxHeight := Picture.Height; Constraints.MaxWidth := Picture.Width; Self.Height := Picture.Height; Self.Width := Picture.Width; end; procedure Tmy_Image.SetPicture(picture : TPicture); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.SetPicture', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; procedure Tmy_Image.Assign(Source: TPersistent); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.Assign', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; end.

  Read the article

• General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

  - by BobTodd

  I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

  Read the article

• Adding user role constraint redirects Browser to jsf.js script?

  - by simgineer

  My JSF form login was working with Constraint 1 however when I added Constraint 2 to my web.xml doing a submit on the form now takes me to a jsf javascript page. Can someone tell me what I am doing wrong? I would like only administrators to be able to access the /admin/* pages and only registered users to access the entire site included admin files. BTW after I see the java script page I can still navigate to the intended page in the browser, I just don't want the user to see the intermediate js page or need to know the target page URL. Constraint 1 <security-constraint> <display-name>Admin</display-name> <web-resource-collection> <url-pattern>/admin/*</url-pattern> </web-resource-collection> <auth-constraint> <role-name>ADMIN</role-name> </auth-constraint> </security-constraint> Constraint 2 <security-constraint> <display-name>Users</display-name> <web-resource-collection> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </web-resource-collection> <auth-constraint> <role-name>USER</role-name> </auth-constraint> </security-constraint> Here is the undesired url I am being redirected to: javax.faces.resource/jsf.js.xhtml?ln=javax.faces&stage=Development Here is the start of the jsf.js.xhtml... /** @project JSF JavaScript Library @version 2.0 @description This is the standard implementation of the JSF JavaScript Library. */ /** * Register with OpenAjax */ if (typeof OpenAjax !== "undefined" && typeof OpenAjax.hub.registerLibrary !== "undefined") { OpenAjax.hub.registerLibrary("jsf", "www.sun.com", "2.0", null); } // Detect if this is already loaded, and if loaded, if it's a higher version if (!((jsf && jsf.specversion && jsf.specversion >= 20000 ) && (jsf.implversion && jsf.implversion >= 3))) { ... Notes I'm using Firefox 10.0.4, Glassfish 3.1 w JSF2.0 lib, j_security_check, and my login realm setup is similar to this

  Read the article

• How do I 'globally' catch exceptions thrown in object instances.

  - by SleepyBobos

  I am currently writing a winforms application (C#). I am making use of the Enterprise Library Exception Handling Block, following a fairly standard approach from what I can see. IE : In the Main method of Program.cs I have wired up event handler to Application.ThreadException event etc. This approach works well and handles the applications exceptional circumstances. In one of my business objects I throw various exceptions in the Set accessor of one of the objects properties set { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum trim..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message..."); _minimumTrim = value; } My logic for this approach (without turning this into a 'when to throw exceptions' discussion) is simply that the business objects are responsible for checking business rule constraints and throwing an exception that can bubble up and be caught as required. It should be noted that in the UI of my application I do explictly check the values that the public property is being set to (and take action there displaying friendly dialog etc) but with throwing the exception I am also covering the situation where my business object may not be used by a UI eg : the Property is being set by another business object for example. Anyway I think you all get the idea. My issue is that these exceptions are not being caught by the handler wired up to Application.ThreadException and I don't understand why. From other reading I have done the Application.ThreadException event and it handler "... catches any exception that occurs on the main GUI thread". Are the exceptions being raised in my business object not in this thread? I have not created any new threads. I can get the approach to work if I update the code as follows, explicity calling the event handler that is wired to Application.ThreadException. This is the approach outlined in Enterprise Library samples. However this approach requires me to wrap any exceptions thrown in a try catch, something I was trying to avoid by using a 'global' handler to start with. try { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message"); _minimumTrim = value; } catch (Exception ex) { Program.ThreadExceptionHandler.ProcessUnhandledException(ex); } I have also investigated using wiring a handler up to AppDomain.UnhandledException event but this does not catch the exceptions either. I would be good if someone could explain to me why my exceptions are not being caught by my global exception handler in the first code sample. Is there another approach I am missing or am I stuck with wrapping code in try catch, shown above, as required?

  Read the article

• help with generating models from database for many to many in doctrine

  - by ajsie

  im using doctrine and i have set up some test tables to be generated into models: I want a many-to-many relationship models (3 tables converted into 3 models) (things are simplified to make the point clear) mysql tables: user: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR group: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR user_group: user_id INT // primary and foreign key to user.id group_id INT // primary and foreign key to group.id i thought that it would generate these models (from the documentation): // User.php class User extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('Group as Groups', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'group_id' ) ); } } // Group.php class Group extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('User as Users', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'user_id' ) ); } } // UserGroup.php class UserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id') ); $this->hasColumn('group_id') ); } } but it generated this: // User.php abstract class BaseUser extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'user_id')); } } // Group.php abstract class BaseGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'group_id')); } } // UserGroup.php abstract class BaseUserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id'); $this->hasColumn('group_id'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasOne('User', array( 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); $this->hasOne('Group', array( 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); } } as you can see, there is no 'refClass' in the 'User' and 'Group' models pointing to the 'UserGroup'. the 'UserGroup' table in this case is just another table from Doctrine's perspective not a reference table. I've checked my table definitions in mysql. They are correct. user_group has 2 columns (primary keys and foreign keys), each one pointing to the primary key in either User or Group. But i want the standard many-to-many relationship models in Doctrine models. I'd appreciate some help. I have struggled to figure it out for a half day now. What is wrong? Thanks!

  Read the article

• problem with struts actions and redirections

  - by Casey

  I am trying to update a simple web app that was built with struts2, jsp and standard servlets. I am trying to redirect a url to a specific action but can't seem to get it to work right. For example, the url that is correct is: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/search.action Here is my web.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <!DOCTYPE web-app PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD Web Application 2.3//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-app_2_3.dtd"><web-app> <display-name>theapp</display-name> <filter> <filter-name>struts2</filter-name> <filter-class> org.apache.struts2.dispatcher.FilterDispatcher </filter-class> </filter> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>struts2</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> <listener> <listener-class> org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> And here is my struts.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <!DOCTYPE struts PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Struts Configuration 2.0//EN" "http://struts.apache.org/dtds/struts-2.0.dtd"> <default-action-ref name="search" /> <action name="search" method="search" class="com.theapp.SearchAction" > <result>index.jsp</result> <result name="input" >index.jsp</result> <result name="error" type="redirect">site_locator_mobile/error.action</result> </action> The problem here is that if I don't specify the correct url as above, I just get the index.jsp file, but without any properties in index.jsp being processed because the information is contained in the servlet. What I would like to is if someone just entered: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/ than they would be taken to: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/search.action Thanks

  Read the article

• Improving Javascript Load Times - Concatenation vs Many + Cache

  - by El Yobo

  I'm wondering which of the following is going to result in better performance for a page which loads a large amount of javascript (jQuery + jQuery UI + various other javascript files). I have gone through most of the YSlow and Google Page Speed stuff, but am left wondering about a particular detail. A key thing for me here is that the site I'm working on is not on the public net; it's a business to business platform where almost all users are repeat visitors (and therefore with caches of the data, which is something that YSlow assumes will not be the case for a large number of visitors). First up, the standard approach recommended by tools such as YSlow is to concatenate it, compress it, and serve it up in a single file loaded at the end of your page. This approach sounds reasonably effective, but I think that a key part of the reasoning here is to improve performance for users without cached data. The system I currently have is something like this * All javascript files are compressed and loaded at the bottom of the page * All javascript files have far future cache expiration dates, so will remain (for most users) in the cache for a long time * Pages only load the javascript files that they require, rather than loading one monolithic file, most of which will not be required Now, my understanding is that, if the cache expiration date for a javascript file has not been reached, then the cached version is used immediately; there is no HTTP request sent at to the server at all. If this is correct, I would assume that having multiple tags is not causing any performance penalty, as I'm still not having any additional requests on most pages (recalling from above that almost all users have populated caches). In addition to this, not loading the JS means that the browser doesn't have to interpret or execute all this additional code which it isn't going to need; as a B2B application, most of our users are unfortunately stuck with IE6 and its painfully slow JS engine. Another benefit is that, when code changes, only the affected files need to be fetched again, rather than the whole set (granted, it would only need to be fetched once, so this is not so much of a benefit). I'm also looking at using LabJS to allow for parallel loading of the JS when it's not cached. So, what do people think is a better approach? In a similar vein, what do you think about a similar approach to CSS - is monolithic better?

  Read the article

• Custom WM profile - issues with codec

  - by dominolog

  Hello I create my custom WM encoder profile. The reason I need a custom, non standard WM profile is that I need that the video resolution must be the same as input video stream. I created below profile but after I encode my video and audio with it, the WMP while loading says that the WMV1 codec is not found and prompts me for downloading WM encoder codecs. After installing them, the problem still exists. <profile version="589824" storageformat="1" name="mReplay Hi-End profile; WM Format 9; Audio &amp; Video" description="Streams: 1 audio 1 video"> <streamconfig majortype="{73647561-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" streamnumber="1" streamname="Audio Stream" inputname="Audio409" bitrate="320008" bufferwindow="-1" reliabletransport="0" decodercomplexity="" rfc1766langid="en-us" > <wmmediatype subtype="{00000161-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" bfixedsizesamples="1" btemporalcompression="0" lsamplesize="14861"> <waveformatex wFormatTag="353" nChannels="2" nSamplesPerSec="44100" nAvgBytesPerSec="40001" nBlockAlign="14861" wBitsPerSample="16" codecdata="008800000F0035E80000"/> </wmmediatype> </streamconfig> <streamconfig majortype="{73646976-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" streamnumber="2" streamname="Video Stream" inputname="Video409" bitrate="100000" bufferwindow="-1" reliabletransport="0" decodercomplexity="AU" rfc1766langid="en-us" vbrenabled="1" vbrquality="95" bitratemax="0" bufferwindowmax="0"> <videomediaprops maxkeyframespacing="80000000" quality="100"/> <wmmediatype subtype="{31564D57-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" bfixedsizesamples="0" btemporalcompression="1" lsamplesize="0"> <videoinfoheader dwbitrate="100000" dwbiterrorrate="0" avgtimeperframe="400000"> <rcsource left="0" top="0" right="0" bottom="0"/> <rctarget left="0" top="0" right="0" bottom="0"/> <bitmapinfoheader biwidth="0" biheight="0" biplanes="1" bibitcount="24" bicompression="WMV1" bisizeimage="0" bixpelspermeter="0" biypelspermeter="0" biclrused="0" biclrimportant="0"/> </videoinfoheader> </wmmediatype> </streamconfig> <streamprioritization> <stream number="1" mandatory="0"/> <stream number="2" mandatory="0"/> </streamprioritization> </profile>

  Read the article

• Problem with character encoding on email sent via PHP?

  - by cosgrove

  Hi everybody, Having some trouble sending properly formatted HTML e-mail from a PHP script. I am running PHP 5.3.0 and Apache 2.2.11 on Windows XP Professional. The output looks like this: Agent Summary for Support on Tuesday April 20 2010=20 Ext. Name Time Volume 137 Agent Name 01:27:25 1 138 =09 00:00:00 0 139 =09 00:00:00 0 You see the =20 and =09 in there? If you look at the HTML you also see = signs being turned into =3D. I figure this is a character encoding issue as I read the following at Wikipedia: ISO-8859-1 and Windows-1252 confusion It is very common to mislabel text data with the charset label ISO-8859-1, even though the data is really Windows-1252 encoded. In Windows-1252, codes between 0x80 and 0x9F are used for letters and punctuation, whereas they are control codes in ISO-8859-1. Many web browsers and e-mail clients will interpret ISO-8859-1 control codes as Windows-1252 characters in order to accommodate such mislabeling but it is not standard behaviour and care should be taken to avoid generating these characters in ISO-8859-1 labeled content. This looks like the problem but I don't know how to fix. My code looks like this: ob_start(); report_queue_summary($yesterday,$yesterday,$first_extension,$last_extension,$queue); $body_report = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $body_footer = "This is an automatically generated e-mail."; $message = new Mail_mime(); $html = $body_header.$body_report.$body_footer; $message->setHTMLBody($html); $body = $message->get(); $extraheaders = array("From"=>"***redacted***","To"=>$recipient, "Subject"=>"Agent Summary for $yesterday [$queue]", "Content-type"=>"text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"); $headers = $message->headers($extraheaders); # setup e-mail; $host = "*********"; $port = "26"; $username = "*****"; $password = "*****"; # Send e-mail $smtp = Mail::factory('smtp', array ('host' => $host, 'port' => $port, 'auth' => true, 'username' => $username, 'password' => $password)); $mail = $smtp->send($recipient, $extraheaders, $body); if (PEAR::isError($mail)) { echo("" . $mail->getMessage() . ""); } else { echo("Message successfully sent!"); } Is the problem that I'm using output buffering?

  Read the article

• How to reconcile my support of open-source software and need to feed and house myself?

  - by Guzba

  I have a bit of a dilemma and wanted to get some other developers' opinions on it and maybe some guidance. So I have created a 2D game for Android from the ground up, learning and re factoring as I went along. I did it for the experience, and have been proud of the results. I released it for free as ad supported with AdMob not really expecting much out of it, but curious to see what would happen. Its been a few of months now since release, and it has become very popular (250k downloads!). Additionally, the ad revenue is great and is driving me to make more good games and even allowing me to work less so that I can focus on my own works. When I originally began working on the game, I was pretty new to concurrency and completely new to Android (had Java experience though). The standard advice I got for starting an Android game was to look at the sample games from Google (Snake, Lunar Lander, ...) so I did. In my opinion, these Android sample games from Google are decent to see in general what your code should look like, but not actually all that great to follow. This is because some of their features don't work (saving game state), the concurrency is both unexplained and cumbersome (there is no real separation between the game thread and the UI thread since they sync lock each other out all the time and the UI thread runs game thread code). This made it difficult for me as a newbie to concurrency to understand how it was organized and what was really running what code. Here is my dilemma: After spending this past few months slowly improving my code, I feel that it could be very beneficial to developers who are in the same position that I was in when I started. (Since it is not a complex game, but clearly coded in my opinion.) I want to open up the source so that others can learn from it but don't want to lose my ad revenue stream, which, if I did open the source, I fear I would when people released versions with the ad stripped, or minor tweaks that would fragment my audience, etc. I am a CS undergrad major in college and this money is giving me the freedom to work less at summer job, thus giving me the time and will to work on more of my own projects and improving my own skills while still paying the bills. So what do I do? Open the source at personal sacrifice for the greater good, or keep it closed and be a sort of hypocritical supporter of open source?

  Read the article

• Visual studio 2010 colourizers, intellisense and the rest. Where to start!!

  - by Owen

  Ok, before I begin I realize that there is a lot of documentation on this subject but I have thus far failed to get even basic colourization working for VS2010. My goal is to simply get to a point where I can open a document and everything is coloured red, from here I can implement the relevant parsing logic. Here's what I have tried/found: 1) Downloaded all the relevent SDK's and such- Found the ook sample (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/ookLanguage) - didn't build, didn't work. 2) Knowing almost nothing about MEF read through "Implementing a Language Service By Using the Managed Package Framework" - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb166533(v=VS.100).aspx This was pretty much a copy and paste of all the basic stuff here, and also updating some references which were out of date with the sample see: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsx/thread/a310fe67-afd2-4592-b295-3fc86fec7996 Now, I have got to a point where when running the package MEF appears to have hooked up correctly (I know this because with the debugger open I can see that the packages initialize and FDoIdle methods are being hit). When I open a file of the extension I have registered with the ProvideLanguageExtensionAttribute everything dies as if in an endless loop, yet no debug symbols hit (though they are loaded). Looking at the ook sample and the MEF examples they seem to be totally different approaches to the same problem. In the ook sample there are notions of Clasifications and Completion controllers which aren't mentioned in the MEF example. Also, they don't seem to create a Package or Language service, so I have no idea how it should work? With the MEF example, my assumption is that I need to hook into the "IScanner.ScanTokenAndProvideInfoAboutIt" to provide syntax highlighting? Which would be fine if I could ever hit this method. So my first question I guess is which approach should I be taking here? Or do they both somehow tie together? My second questions is, where can I find a basic fully working project that implements bog standard basic syntax highlighting and intellisense or VS2010? Thirdly, in the MEF example when I created a Package there were a bunch of test projects created for me. I appears that the integration tests launch the VS2010 test rig somehow, but the test fails. It would be good to write my service with tests but I have no idea what/how I can test each interaction so any references to testing Language services would be helpful. Finally, please throw any resource/book links my way that I may find useful. Cheers, Chris. N.B. Sorry I realize this is part question part rant, but I have never been so confused.

  Read the article

• php regex guitar tab (tabs or tablature, a type of music notation)

  - by John

  I am in the process of creating a guitar tab to rtttl (Ring Tone Text Transfer Language) converter in PHP. In order to prepare a guitar tab for rtttl conversion I first strip out all comments (comments noted by #- and ended with -#), I then have a few lines that set tempo, note the tunning and define multiple instruments (Tempo 120\nDefine Guitar 1\nDefine Bass 1, etc etc) which are stripped out of the tab and set aside for later use. Now I essentially have nothing left except the guitar tabs. Each tab is prefixed with it's instrument name in conjunction with the instrument name noted prior. Some times we have tabs for 2 separate instruments that are linked because they are to be played together, ie a Guitar and a Bass Guitar playing together. Example 1, Standard Guitar Tab: |Guitar 1 e|--------------3-------------------3------------| B|------------3---3---------------3---3----------| G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------0-----------0-------0-----------0------| A|------2---------------2---2---------------2----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| Example 2, Conjunction Tab: |Guitar 1 e|--------------3-------------------3------------| B|------------3---3---------------3---3----------| G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------0-----------0-------0-----------0------| A|------2---------------2---2---------------2----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| | | |Bass 1 G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------2-----------2-------2-----------2------| A|------3---------------3---3---------------3----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| I have considered other methods of identifying the tabs with no solid results. I am hoping that someone who does regular expressions could help me find a way to identify a single guitar tab and if possible also be able to match a tab with multiple instruments linked together. Once the tabs are in an array I will go through them one line at a time and convert them into rtttl lines (exploded at each new line "\n"). I do not want to separate the guitar tabs in the document via explode "\n\n" or something similar because it does not identify the guitar tab, rather, it is identifying the space between the tabs - not on the tabs themselves. I have been messing with this for about a week now and this is the only major hold up I have. Everything else is fairly simple. As of current, I have tried many variations of the regex pattern. Here is one of the most recent test samples: <?php $t = " |Guitar 1 e|--------------3-------------------3------------| B|------------3---3---------------3---3----------| G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------0-----------0-------0-----------0------| A|------2---------------2---2---------------2----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| |Guitar 1 e|--------------3-------------------3------------| B|------------3---3---------------3---3----------| G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------0-----------0-------0-----------0------| A|------2---------------2---2---------------2----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| | | |Bass 1 G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------2-----------2-------2-----------2------| A|------3---------------3---3---------------3----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| "; preg_match_all("/^.*?(\\|).*?(\\|)/is",$t,$p); print_r($p); ?> It is also worth noting that inside the tabs, where the dashes and #'s are, you may also have any variation of letters, numbers and punctuation. The beginning of each line marks the tuning of each string with one of the following case insensitive: a,a#,b,c,c#,d,d#,e,f,f#,g or g. Thanks in advance for help with this most difficult problem.

  Read the article

• Is there some way to make variables like $a and $b in regard to strict?

  - by Axeman

  In light of Michael Carman's comment, I have decided to rewrite the question. Note that 11 comments appear before this edit, and give credence to Michael's observation that I did not write the question in a way that made it clear what I was asking. Question: What is the standard--or cleanest way--to fake the special status that $a and $b have in regard to strict by simply importing a module? First of all some setup. The following works: #!/bin/perl use strict; print "\$a=$a\n"; print "\$b=$b\n"; If I add one more line: print "\$c=$c\n"; I get an error at compile time, which means that none of my dazzling print code gets to run. If I comment out use strict; it runs fine. Outside of strictures, $a and $b are mainly special in that sort passes the two values to be compared with those names. my @reverse_order = sort { $b <=> $a } @unsorted; Thus the main functional difference about $a and $b--even though Perl "knows their names"--is that you'd better know this when you sort, or use some of the functions in List::Util. It's only when you use strict, that $a and $b become special variables in a whole new way. They are the only variables that strict will pass over without complaining that they are not declared. : Now, I like strict, but it strikes me that if TIMTOWTDI (There is more than one way to do it) is Rule #1 in Perl, this is not very TIMTOWDI. It says that $a and $b are special and that's it. If you want to use variables you don't have to declare $a and $b are your guys. If you want to have three variables by adding $c, suddenly there's a whole other way to do it. Nevermind that in manipulating hashes $k and $v might make more sense: my %starts_upper_1_to_25 = skim { $k =~ m/^\p{IsUpper}/ && ( 1 <= $v && $v <= 25 ) } %my_hash ;` Now, I use and I like strict. But I just want $k and $v to be visible to skim for the most compact syntax. And I'd like it to be visible simply by use Hash::Helper qw<skim>; I'm not asking this question to know how to black-magic it. My "answer" below, should let you know that I know enough Perl to be dangerous. I'm asking if there is a way to make strict accept other variables, or what is the cleanest solution. The answer could well be no. If that's the case, it simply does not seem very TIMTOWTDI.

  Read the article

• KnockoutJS showing a sorted list by item category

  - by Darksbane

  I just started learning knockout this week and everything has gone well except for this one issue. I have a list of items that I sort multiple ways but one of the ways I want to sort needs to have a different display than the standard list. As an example lets say I have this code var BetterListModel = function () { var self = this; food = [ { "name":"Apple", "quantity":"3", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$1", },{ "name":"Ice Cream", "quantity":"1", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$6", },{ "name":"Pear", "quantity":"2", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$2", },{ "name":"Beef", "quantity":"1", "category":"Meat", "cost":"$3", },{ "name":"Milk", "quantity":"5", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$4", }]; self.allItems = ko.observableArray(food); // Initial items // Initial sort self.sortMe = ko.observable("name"); ko.utils.compareItems = function (l, r) { if (self.sortMe() =="cost"){ return l.cost > r.cost ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="category"){ return l.category > r.category ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="quantity"){ return l.quantity > r.quantity ? 1 : -1 }else { return l.name > r.name ? 1 : -1 } }; }; ko.applyBindings(new BetterListModel()); and the HTML <p>Your values:</p> <ul class="deckContents" data-bind="foreach:allItems().sort(ko.utils.compareItems)"> <li><div style="width:100%"><div class="left" style="width:30px" data-bind="text:quantity"></div><div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:name"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:cost"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:category"></div><div style="clear:both"></div></div></li> </ul> <select data-bind="value:sortMe"> <option selected="selected" value="name">Name</option> <option value="cost">Cost</option> <option value="category">Category</option> <option value="quantity">Quantity</option> </select> </div> So I can sort these just fine by any field I might sort them by name and it will display something like this 3 Apple $1 Fruit 1 Beef $3 Meat 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy 2 Pear $2 Fruit Here is a fiddle of what I have so far http://jsfiddle.net/Darksbane/X7KvB/ This display is fine for all the sorts except the category sort. What I want is when I sort them by category to display it like this Fruit 3 Apple $1 Fruit 2 Pear $2 Fruit Meat 1 Beef $3 Meat Dairy 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy Does anyone have any idea how I might be able to display this so differently for that one sort?

  Read the article

• C - What is the proper format to allow a function to show an error was encountered?

  - by BrainSteel

  I have a question about what a function should do if the arguments to said function don't line up quite right, through no fault of the function call. Since that sentence doesn't make much sense, I'll offer my current issue. To keep it simple, here is the most relevant and basic function I have. float getYValueAt(float x, PHYS_Line line, unsigned short* error) *error = 0; if(x < line.start.x || x > line.end.x){ *error = 1; return -1; } if(line.slope.value != 0){ //line's equation: y - line.start.y = line.slope.value(x - line.start.x) return line.slope.value * (x - line.start.x) + line.start.y; } else if(line.slope.denom == 0){ if(line.start.x == x) return line.start.y; else{ *error = 1; return -1; } } else if(line.slope.num == 0){ return line.start.y; } } The function attempts to find the point on a line, given a certain x value. However, under some circumstances, this may not be possible. For example, on the line x = 3, if 5 is passed as a value, we would have a problem. Another problem arises if the chosen x value is not within the interval the line is on. For this, I included the error pointer. Given this format, a function call could work as follows: void foo(PHYS_Line some_line){ unsigned short error = 0; float y = getYValueAt(5, some_line, &error); if(error) fooey(); else do_something_with_y(y); } My question pertains to the error. Note that the value returned is allowed to be negative. Returning -1 does not ensure that an error has occurred. I know that it is sometimes preferred to use the following method to track an error: float* getYValueAt(float x, PHYS_Line line); and then return NULL if an error occurs, but I believe this requires dynamic memory allocation, which seems even less sightly than the solution I was using. So, what is standard practice for an error occurring?

  Read the article

• current page highlights on child pages

  - by user557318

  Im trying to achieve current page highlights on wordpress similar to this site Alex Soth. I'm very nearly there with my css. At present i have current page highlights on pages, ie. home,calendar, projects. However when it come to current page highlights on child pages i have a problem. the indented child page list appears on hover when selecting a child page, but after page selection the menu reverts back to the standard pages menu with no visible child menus? unlike the link to the Alex Soth site where the extended menu stays and current page is highlighted I know that the answer will be a simple piece of css involving current_page_item and possible position:relative to obtain the menu staying visible after selection. But i can for the life of me work it out. Any ideas Ive attached my relivant pieces of css below?? thanks /* =Link Styles ------------------------------------------------------------------*/ input#submit { cursor: pointer; } input#searchsubmit { background: url(images/search.png) no-repeat center; } input#searchsubmit:hover { background: url(images/search.png) no-repeat center #3399FF !important; cursor: pointer; } .navigation a:hover, input#submit { background: #3399FF; color: #3399FF !important; } a { color: #666; } a:hover, a:hover span { color: #c11501 !important;background-color: #fae100; } .entry sup a, #main_nav .current_page_item a, #main_nav .current_page_ancestor a { color: #666 !important; } #main_nav h1.masthead a { color: #666; } #main_nav h1.masthead a:hover { border-right: none; } h2 a, #main_nav a { color: #3399FF; } img a, img a:hover { text-decoration: none; } .post a, .navigation a { font-weight: bold; color: #000; } .navigation a { background: #EEE; color: #666; font-weight: normal; padding: 3px 0px; border-radius: 0px; -webkit-border-radius: 0px; -moz-border-radius: 0px; } .post sup { font-size: 11px; color: #aaa; } .post sup a { border: 0; margin: 0; font-weight: normal; font-size: 10px; } #supplementary .post_nav ul.about_nav li a, #supplementary .post_nav ul.single_post_meta a, #supplementary ul.contact_key li a { color: #888888; border-bottom: 0; } /* =Main Menu ------------------------------------------------------------------*/ #main_nav ul.menu li { position: relative; } #main_nav ul.menu li:hover ul.sub-menu, #main_nav ul.menu li:hover ul.children { display: block; }

  Read the article

• jquery load a specific #Div content from multiple html files

  - by Vikram

  Hello friends I am trying to make a Content Slider for my site. I have multiple HTML files and the structure of these files is like this: <div id="title"><h2>Title of the Slide</h2></div> <div id="image"><a href="http://mylink.com"><img src="image.jpg" width="600" height="300" alt="image"</a></div> <div id="content">Lorem Ipsum is simply dummy text of the printing and typesetting industry. Lorem Ipsum has been the industry's standard dummy text ever since the 1500s.</div> I have been trying to use the following script get content (but no success): <?php function render($position="") { ob_start(); foreach(glob("/slides/*.html") as $fileName) { $fname = basename( $fileName ); $curArr = file($fname); $slides[$fname ]['title'] = $curArr[0]; $slides[$fname ]['image'] = $curArr[1]; $slides[$fname ]['content'] = $curArr[2]; foreach($slides as $key => $value){ ?> <div id="slide-title"> <?php echo $value['title'] ?> </div> <div id="slide-content"> <?php echo $value['image'] ?> </div> <div id="slide-image"> <?php echo $value['content'] ?> </div> <?php }} ?> <?php return ob_get_clean(); } But then I came to know about a jQuery function.... (again no success) jQuery.noConflict(); (function($){ $(document).ready(function () { $('#slide-title').load('slides/slide1.html #title'); $('#slide-content').load('slides/slide1.html #content'); $('#slide-image').load('slides/slide1.html #image'); }); })(jQuery); Now My questions are..... Am I using the right syntax. How do I get the content from multiple files using jQuery. Please Note : My knowledge on Programming is almost '0'. I have just started learning it.

  Read the article

• Spring Framework 3.0.5 MVC Issue

  - by user578923

  I know that this may be absolutely dumb but for the life of me I cannot figure out why I'm getting these errors in my Spring Project, it is basically from the MVC tutorial with a few modifications. This is the error I get when running my tomcat server. `Caused by: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/web/servlet/mvc/SimpleFormController at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:634) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java:142) at java.net.URLClassLoader.defineClass(URLClassLoader.java:277) at java.net.URLClassLoader.access$000(URLClassLoader.java:73) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:212) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:205) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:321) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:294) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:266) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1581) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1511) at org.springframework.util.ClassUtils.forName(ClassUtils.java:257) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanDefinition.resolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanDefinition.java:408) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.doResolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanFactory.java:1271) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.resolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanFactory.java:1242) ... 54 more Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.SimpleFormController at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:217) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:205) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:321) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:294) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:266) ... 71 more` I just cannot figure out the issue with my classpath...I would appreciate any help. Here are all the jars in my classpath. I know that the class is inside the web-servlet jar but it's not seeing it. Is there a conflict? aopalliance.jar aspectjweaver.jar commons-codec.jar commons-dbcp.jar commons-logging.jar commons-pool.jar jstl.jar org.springframework.aop-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.asm-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.aspects-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.beans-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.context.support-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.context-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.core-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.expression-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.instrument.tomcat-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.instrument-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.jdbc-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.jms-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.orm-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.oxm-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.test-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.transaction-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.web.portlet-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.web.servlet-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.web.struts-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.web-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar postgresql-9.0-801.jdbc3.jar servlet-api.jar spring-security-config-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar spring-security-core-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar spring-security-web-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar standard.jar

  Read the article

• Undefined template methods trick ?

  - by Matthieu M.

  A colleague of mine told me about a little piece of design he has used with his team that sent my mind boiling. It's a kind of traits class that they can specialize in an extremely decoupled way. I've had a hard time understanding how it could possibly work, and I am still unsure of the idea I have, so I thought I would ask for help here. We are talking g++ here, specifically the versions 3.4.2 and 4.3.2 (it seems to work with both). The idea is quite simple: 1- Define the interface // interface.h template <class T> struct Interface { void foo(); // the method is not implemented, it could not work if it was }; // // I do not think it is necessary // but they prefer free-standing methods with templates // because of the automatic argument deduction // template <class T> void foo(Interface<T>& interface) { interface.foo(); } 2- Define a class, and in the source file specialize the interface for this class (defining its methods) // special.h class Special {}; // special.cpp #include "interface.h" #include "special.h" // // Note that this specialization is not visible outside of this translation unit // template <> struct Interface<Special> { void foo() { std::cout << "Special" << std::endl; } }; 3- To use, it's simple too: // main.cpp #include "interface.h" class Special; // yes, it only costs a forward declaration // which helps much in term of dependencies int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Interface<Special> special; foo(special); return 0; }; It's an undefined symbol if no translation unit defined a specialization of Interface for Special. Now, I would have thought this would require the export keyword, which to my knowledge has never been implemented in g++ (and only implemented once in a C++ compiler, with its authors advising anyone not to, given the time and effort it took them). I suspect it's got something to do with the linker resolving the templates methods... Do you have ever met anything like this before ? Does it conform to the standard or do you think it's a fortunate coincidence it works ? I must admit I am quite puzzled by the construct...

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422  | Next Page >