Search Results

Search found 11993 results on 480 pages for 'define syntax'.

Page 416/480 | < Previous Page | 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423  | Next Page >

  • jQuery code not executing when DOM is ready

    - by Ben
    I have written a simple jQuery script that changes the hash tag of a link. I do this because I am using IntenseDebate comments in Wordpress but the comment link still links replaced id of the old comments. I'm using jQuery so that if javascript is enabled, the user can click on the comments link and it will take them to the IntenseDebate comments. If its not enabled it will take them to the traditional comments (because IntenseDebate requires javascript to function). The issue I'm having lies in this script to change the hash tag at the end of the link. Currently the URL "someurl.com/#respond" but I need the script to change it to "someurl.com/#comments". What is happening is that the script doesn't work, however I believe my syntax is correct so I decided to try copying and pasting the code into Firebug's console and the code executed perfectly. I could see that the link I was trying to change was now correct, and I could click on it and it worked as I desired. So what I don't understand is why the code is not executing when it is supposed to. I am using $(document).ready() and I have other jQuery on the page that executes just fine. I even tested it on a simple HTML page away from all the problems that might be caused by Wordpress and I received the same result. Does anyone know why this might be happening? Here is my code (I am using noConflict because Wordpress makes use of other frameworks): jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("a[href$='respond']").each(function() { this.href = this.href.replace("respond", "comments"); }); })(jQuery); Thanks very much for your help!

    Read the article

  • c# Why can't open generic types be passed as parameters?

    - by Rich Oliver
    Why can't open generic types be passed as parameters. I frequently have classes like: public class Example<T> where T: BaseClass { public int a {get; set;} public List<T> mylist {get; set;} } Lets say BaseClass is as follows; public BaseClass { public int num; } I then want a method of say: public int MyArbitarySumMethod(Example example)//This won't compile Example not closed { int sum = 0; foreach(BaseClass i in example.myList)//myList being infered as an IEnumerable sum += i.num; sum = sum * example.a; return sum; } I then have to write an interface just to pass this one class as a parameter as follows: public interface IExample { public int a {get; set;} public IEnumerable<BaseClass> myIEnum {get;} } The generic class then has to be modified to: public class Example<T>: IExample where T: BaseClass { public int a {get; set;} public List<T> mylist {get; set;} public IEnumerable<BaseClass> myIEnum {get {return myList;} } } That's a lot of ceremony for what I would have thought the compiler could infer. Even if something can't be changed I find it psychologically very helpful if I know the reasons / justifications for the absence of Syntax short cuts.

    Read the article

  • JavaScript audio not playing outside of jQuery function

    - by user1814016
    I know the question title doesn't make much sense, but I can't think of a better way to put it. I am a newbie to jQuery and I'm using this code to fade in a <div> and play a sound: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { play('msg_appear'); var sptx = $('<p class="stext">').text('There is nothing here.'); $('#speech').append(sptx); $('.stext').typeOut({marker: '', delay: 22}); }); }); This code runs fine however the sound plays after the fade-in is complete. I wanted it to play while it was fading in, so I tried placing the play() call outside of the fade-in function like this: $(document).ready(function(){ play('msg_appear'); $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { However, now it's not playing at all. There's no errors on the JavaScript console so I'm unsure if it's a syntax error, and probably something obvious, but I don't know what. play() is a function I found to play audio, here it is if it matters at all. I placed it in the same file the above code is; right above the $(document).ready(). function play(sound) { if (window.HTMLAudioElement) { var snd = new Audio(''); if(snd.canPlayType('audio/ogg')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.ogg'); } else if(snd.canPlayType('audio/mp3')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.mp3'); } snd.play(); } else { alert('HTML5 Audio is not supported by your browser!'); } }

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net Custom Paging (w/ C#)

    - by André Alçada Padez
    Cenario: I have a GridView bound to a DataSource, every column is sortable. my main query is something like: select a, b, c, d, e, f from table order by somedate desc i added a filter form where i can define values to each one of the fields and get the results of a where form. As a result from this, i had to do a custom sorting so that when i sort by a field, i am sorting the filtered query and not the main one. Now i have to do custom paging, for the same reason, but i don't understand the philosophy of it: I want to guarantee that i can: filter the results sort by a column when i click on page 2, i get page two of the filtered and sorted results I don't know what i have to do, so i can bind the GV with this. My sorting Method, that is working just fine looks something like: string condition = GetConditions(); //gets a string like " where a>1 and b>2" depending on the filter the user defines string query = "select a, b, c, d, e, f from table "; string direction = (e.SortDirection == SortDirection.Ascending)? "asc": "desc"; string order = " order by " + e.SortExpression + " " + direction; UtilizadoresDataSource.SelectCommand = query + condition + order; i've never done custom paging, i am trying: GetConditions() //no problem here How can i find out how the GridView is sorted (by what field and sortingorder)? thank you very much

    Read the article

  • Connecting a django application to a drupal database?

    - by Hans
    I have a 3 - 4000 nodes in a drupal 6 installation on mysql and want to access these data through my django application. I have used manage.py inspectdb to get a skeleton of a model structure. I guess that there are good/historical reasons for drupal's database schemes, but find that there are some hard to understand structure and that there are some challenges in applying django models on the database. Some experiences this far are: node and node revision are intertwined and I solved this by using a OneToOneField (don't need the versions). This meens that the node's body gets accessible through node.vid.body, but it works. Foreign keys need to define the proper db_column to sort out the primary keys. Terms need to use an intermediary table with ManyToManyField.through. Drupal stores both the original and the thumbnailed/resized versions of any image as files in the files table. Does anyone have experiences in accessing drupal data in django? Are there better solution to for example the node <- node revision relationship? Drupal stores time/dates as unix-style timestamps in integerfields. Any recommendations? How about time zones?

    Read the article

  • How do I use XPath with a default namespace with no prefix?

    - by Scott Stafford
    What is the XPath (in C# API to XDocument.XPathSelectElements(xpath, nsman) if it matters) to query all MyNodes from this document? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <configuration> <MyNode xmlns="lcmp" attr="true"> <subnode /> </MyNode> </configuration I tried /configuration/MyNode which is wrong because it ignores the namespace. I tried /configuration/lcmp:MyNode which is wrong because lcmp is the URI, not the prefix. I tried /configuration/{lcmp}MyNode which failed because Additional information: '/configuration/{lcmp}MyNode' has an invalid token. EDIT: I can't use mgr.AddNamespace("df", "lcmp"); as some of the answerers have suggested. That requires that the XML parsing program know all the namespaces I plan to use ahead of time. Since this is meant to be applicable to any source file, I don't know which namespaces to manually add prefixes for. It seems like {my uri} is the XPath syntax, but Microsoft didn't bother implementing that... true?

    Read the article

  • transforming 1d (1column) into 5d(5column) matrix through copy paste or other

    - by Curious
    Ex. I want to take the column with 12345..... and order 5 columns across as seen. next 5 numbers in column will be next row. However my code creates a 4 row gap in between each successive row. I dont know what additional logic (possibly if then statement) I can embed into do loop to may make it cleaner. I am new to this, so showing as much sample code to learn the syntax would be most beneficial. thanks in advance. Below is the Result of my code. VBA code is below result. 1 1 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 6 7 8 9 10 7 8 9 10 11 11 12 13 14 15 12 13 14 15 16 16 17 17 Sub Working_Code() ' Working_Code Macro Do ActiveCell.Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(0, 5).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(1, -5).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-1, 6).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(2, -6).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-2, 7).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(3, -7).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-3, 8).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(4, -8).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-4, 9).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(5, -9).Select Loop Until IsEmpty(ActiveCell.Offset(0, -1)) End Sub

    Read the article

  • JavaCC: How can I specify which token(s) are expected in certain context?

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    Hello, everyone! I need to make JavaCC aware of a context (current parent token), and depending on that context, expect different token(s) to occur. Consider the following pseudo-code: TOKEN <abc> { "abc*" } // recognizes "abc", "abcd", "abcde", ... TOKEN <abcd> { "abcd*" } // recognizes "abcd", "abcde", "abcdef", ... TOKEN <element1> { "element1" "[" expectOnly(<abc>) "]" } TOKEN <element2> { "element2" "[" expectOnly(<abcd>) "]" } ... So when the generated parser is "inside" a token named "element1" and it encounter "abcdef" it recognizes it as <abc>, but when its "inside" a token named "element2" it recognizes the same string as <abcd>. element1 [ abcdef ] // aha! it can only be <abc> element2 [ abcdef ] // aha! it can only be <abcd> If I'm not wrong, it would behave similar to more complex DTD definitions of an XML file. So, how can one specify, in which "context" which token(s) are valid/expected? NOTE: It would be not enough for my real case to define a kind of "hierarchy" of tokens, so that "abcdef" is always first matched against <abcd> and than <abc>. I really need context-aware tokens.

    Read the article

  • Friends, templates, overloading <<

    - by Crystal
    I'm trying to use friend functions to overload << and templates to get familiar with templates. I do not know what these compile errors are: Point.cpp:11: error: shadows template parm 'class T' Point.cpp:12: error: declaration of 'const Point<T>& T' for this file #include "Point.h" template <class T> Point<T>::Point() : xCoordinate(0), yCoordinate(0) {} template <class T> Point<T>::Point(T xCoordinate, T yCoordinate) : xCoordinate(xCoordinate), yCoordinate(yCoordinate) {} template <class T> std::ostream &operator<<(std::ostream &out, const Point<T> &T) { std::cout << "(" << T.xCoordinate << ", " << T.yCoordinate << ")"; return out; } My header looks like: #ifndef POINT_H #define POINT_H #include <iostream> template <class T> class Point { public: Point(); Point(T xCoordinate, T yCoordinate); friend std::ostream &operator<<(std::ostream &out, const Point<T> &T); private: T xCoordinate; T yCoordinate; }; #endif My header also gives the warning: Point.h:12: warning: friend declaration 'std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream&, const Point<T>&)' declares a non-template function Which I was also unsure why. Any thoughts? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Stored procedure for generic MERGE

    - by GilliVilla
    I have a set of 10 tables in a database (DB1). And there are 10 tables in another database (DB2) with exact same schema on the same SQL Server 2008 R2 database server machine. The 10 tables in DB1 are frequently updated with data. I intend to write a stored procedure that would run once every day for synchronizing the 10 tables in DB1 with DB2. The stored procedure would make use of the MERGE statement. Now, my aim is to make this as generic and parametrized as possible. That is, accommodate for more tables down the line... and accommodate different source and target DB names. Definitely no hard coding is intended. This is my algorithm so far: Have the database names as parameters Have the first query within the stored procedure... result in giving the names of the 10 tables from a lookup table (this can be 10, 20 or whatever) Have a generic MERGE statement that does the sync for each of the above set of tables (based on primary key?) This is where I need more inputs on. What is the best way to achieve this stored procedure? SQL syntax would be helpful.

    Read the article

  • Using proxy models

    - by smallB
    I've created Proxy model by subclassing QAbstractProxyModel and connected it as a model to my view. I also set up source model for this proxy model. Unfortunately something is wrong because I'm not getting anything displayed on my listView (it works perfectly when I have my model supplied as a model to view but when I supply this proxy model it just doesn't work). Here are some snippets from my code: #ifndef FILES_PROXY_MODEL_H #define FILES_PROXY_MODEL_H #include <QAbstractProxyModel> #include "File_List_Model.h" class File_Proxy_Model: public QAbstractProxyModel { public: explicit File_Proxy_Model(File_List_Model* source_model) { setSourceModel(source_model); } virtual QModelIndex mapFromSource(const QModelIndex & sourceIndex) const { return index(sourceIndex.row(),sourceIndex.column()); } virtual QModelIndex mapToSource(const QModelIndex & proxyIndex) const { return index(proxyIndex.row(),proxyIndex.column()); } virtual int columnCount(const QModelIndex & parent = QModelIndex()) const { return sourceModel()->columnCount(); } virtual int rowCount(const QModelIndex & parent = QModelIndex()) const { return sourceModel()->rowCount(); } virtual QModelIndex index(int row, int column, const QModelIndex & parent = QModelIndex()) const { return createIndex(row,column); } virtual QModelIndex parent(const QModelIndex & index) const { return QModelIndex(); } }; #endif // FILES_PROXY_MODEL_H //and this is a dialog class: Line_Counter::Line_Counter(QWidget *parent) : QDialog(parent), model_(new File_List_Model(this)), proxy_model_(new File_Proxy_Model(model_)), sel_model_(new QItemSelectionModel(proxy_model_,this)) { setupUi(this); setup_mvc_(); } void Line_Counter::setup_mvc_() { listView->setModel(proxy_model_); listView->setSelectionModel(sel_model_); }

    Read the article

  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

    Read the article

  • Jquery passing an HTML element into a function

    - by christian
    I have an HTML form where I am going to copy values from a series of input fields to some spans/headings as the user populates the input fields. I am able to get this working using the following code: $('#source').keyup(function(){ if($("#source").val().length == 0){ $("#destinationTitle").text('Sample Title'); }else{ $("#destinationTitle").text($("#source").val()); } }); In the above scenario the html is something like: Sample Title Basically, as the users fills out the source box, the text of the is changed to the value of the source input. If nothing is input in, or the user deletes the values typed into the box some default text is placed in the instead. Pretty straightforward. However, since I need to make this work for many different fields, it makes sense to turn this into a generic function and then bind that function to each 's onkeyup() event. But I am having some trouble with this. My implementation: function doStuff(source,target,defaultValue) { if($(source).val().length == 0){ $(target).text(defaultValue); }else{ $(target).text($(source).val()); } } which is called as follows: $('#source').keyup(function() { doStuff(this, '"#destinationTitle"', 'SampleTitle'); }); What I can't figure out is how to pass the second parameter, the name of the destination html element into the function. I have no problem passing in the element I'm binding to via "this", but can't figure out the destination element syntax. Any help would be appreciated - many thanks!

    Read the article

  • Dynamically adjust padding on an image?

    - by Cory
    What I'm basically attempting to do is dynamically change a padding value for a scrubber image based on player position data provided by an app. I have been able to leverage the provided number to dynamically increase the width of a progress overlay image and create a progress bar, but I would like a scrubber diamond at the leading edge of the progress bar. To do this, I have positioned the scrubber diamond at the same starting point as the progress overlay and would like to increase the padding on the diamond at the same rate as the width is increasing for the progress overlay, allowing them to pace each other with the scrubber diamond moving as the song plays. Any help with the script necessary to manipulate padding-left dynamically would be very much appreciated. var progress = Ecoute.playerPosition(); var width = 142.5 / length * progress + 1.63; EcouteSel('Progression').width = width.toString(); EcouteSel('Scrubber').style('padding-left', 'width'); We define progress as the player position, width as a function of the progress and then apply that function to the ID applied to the progress over lay image. But how do I accomplish that for padding-left? style.paddingLeft ...based functions have broken the controller outright. I'm at a loss and any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • WCF: get generic type object (e.g. MyObject<T>) from remote machine

    - by Aaron
    I have two applications that are communicating through WCF. On the server the following object exists: public class MyObject<T> { ... public Entry<T> GetValue() } Where Entry<T> is another object with T Data as a public property. T could be any number of types (string, double, etc) On the client I have ClientObject<T> that needs to get the value of Data from the server (same type). Since I'm using WCF, I have to define my ServiceContract as an interface, and I can't have ClientObject<T> call Entry<T> GetMyObjectValue (string Name) which calls GetValue on the correct MyObject<T> because my interface isn't aware of the type information. I've tried implementing separate GetValue functions (GetMyObjectValueDouble, GetMyObjectValueString) in the interface and then have ClientObject determine the correct one to call. However, Entry<T> val = (Entry<T>)GetMyObjectValueDouble(...); doesn't work because it's not sure about the type information. How can I go about getting a generic object over WCF with the correct type information? Let me know if there are other details I can provide. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

    - by devoured elysium
    When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

    Read the article

  • Windows Phone 7 applications - Orientation Change

    - by Peter Perhác
    Hello there fellow developers! I am working on a Windows Phone 7 app and I can't figure out what I believe is a simple problem for the more seasoned ones. Say I have a layout consisting of two elements: a ListBox (filled with an abundance of items) and a TextBlock (providing the user with some basic instructions). I want these to be one above the other when the device is in Portrait orientation and I want these to be next to each other when the device orientation changes to Landscape. For the Portrait orientation I am using a Grid layout manager, as it lets me define the rows' heights like so... row 0 Height="2*", row 1 Height="*" Listbox sits in row 0, TextBlock in row 1. Now, what would be really neat is to simple change the RowDefinitions into ColumnDefinitions and reassign the listbox/textblock to the grid's columns instead of rows for when the device switches into Landscape. But that's just my idea. I don't know how to get this done elegantly. Maybe there's a better approach to this? Or maybe this is the correct approach and there is some method built for exactly this purpose? Thank you for your suggestions!

    Read the article

  • How can I dynamically set the default namespace declaration of an XSLT transformation's output XML?

    - by Paralife
    I can do it, but not for the default namespace, using the <xsl:namespace>. If I try to do it for the default namespace: <xsl:namespace name="" select"myUri"/> it never works. It demands that I explicitly define the namespace of the element to be able to use the above null prefix declaration. The reason I want this is because I have a task to transform an input XML file to another output xml. The output XML has many elements and i dont want to have to explicitly set the namespace for every element. Thats why I want to set the default and never bother again. But the default must be computed from some data in the source XML. It does not change during the whole transformation, but it is dependent on input XML data. Any solution? EDIT 1: To sup up: I want to create a namespace dynamically and set it to be the default namespace of the output xml document. The uri of the namespace is derived from some data in the input XML. If I use <xsl:namespace> in my root output element, I cannot create a default namespace for it, only a prefixed one. And even with the prefixed one, it does not propagate to children.

    Read the article

  • How to reliably get size of C-style array?

    - by Frank
    How do I reliably get the size of a C-style array? The method often recommended seems to be to use sizeof, but it doesn't work in the foo function, where x is passed in: #include <iostream> void foo(int x[]) { std::cerr << (sizeof(x) / sizeof(int)); // 2 } int main(){ int x[] = {1,2,3,4,5}; std::cerr << (sizeof(x) / sizeof(int)); // 5 foo(x); return 0; } Answers to this question recommend sizeof but they don't say that it (apparently?) doesn't work if you pass the array around. So, do I have to use a sentinel instead? (I don't think the users of my foo function can always be trusted to put a sentinel at the end. Of course, I could use std::vector, but then I don't get the nice shorthand syntax {1,2,3,4,5}.)

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to limit outside connections to a subdomain with .htaccess or similar?

    - by digidave0205
    I host a web application. This application serves static html pages that are refreshed at various intervals. Some as often as every 30 secs. At this time I have about 300 unique pages that are accessed via 300 unique subdomains. Some clients have at most 50 visitors to their unique page and it refreshes every 30 secs, no problem. Other clients have up to 1000 or more visitors to their page. These clients are killing my server. There was no predefined limit upon signup but now I have to impose such a limit to remain afloat financially. I would like to define a finite number of connections allowed for each individual subdomain in my hosting account. Connections attempted out of range of this finite value would either be rejected or redirected. I have access to .htaccess and php.ini. Is something of this nature possible? Oh, I have a dedicated/managed server at 1and1.

    Read the article

  • Attempt to use a while loop for the 'next' arg of a for loop generates #arg error

    - by JerryK
    Am attempting to teach myself to program using Tcl. The task i've set myself to motivate my learning of Tcl is to solve the 8 queens problem. My approach to creating a program is to successively 'prototype' a solution. I have asked an earlier question related to the correctly laying out the nested for loops and received a helpful answer. To my dismay I find that the next development of my code creates the same interpreter error : "wrong # args" I have been careful to have an open brace at the end of the line preceding the while loop command. I've also tried to put the arguments of the whileloop in braces. This generates a different error. I have sincerely tried to understand the Tcl syntax man page - not too successfully - suggested by the answerer of my earlier question. Here is the code set allowd 1 set notallowd 0 for {set r1p 1} {$r1p <= 8} {incr r1p } { puts "1st row q placed at $r1p" ;# re-initialize r2 'free for q placemnt' array after every change of r1 q pos: for {set i 1 } {$i <= 8} {incr i} { set r2($i) $allowd } for { set r2($r1p) $notallowd ; set r2([expr $r1p-1]) $notallowd ; set r2([expr $r1p+1]) $notallowd ; set r2p 1} {$r2p <= 8} { ;# 'next' arg of r2 forloop will be a whileloop : while r2($r2p)== $notallowd incr r2p } { puts "2nd row q placed at $r2p" ;# end of 'commnd' arg of r2 forloop } } Where am I going wrong? EDIT : to provide clear reply @slebetman As stated in my text, I did brace the arguments of the whileloop (indeed that was how i first wrote the code) below is exactly the layout of the r2 forloop tried: for { set r2($r1p) $notallowd ; set r2([expr $r1p-1]) $notallowd ; set r2([expr $r1p+1]) $notallowd ; set r2p 1} {$r2p <= 8} { ;# 'next' arg of r2 forloop will be a whileloop : while { r2($r2p)== $notallowd } { incr r2p } } { puts "2nd row q placed at $r2p" ;# end of 'commnd' arg of r2 forloop } but this generates the fatal interpreter error : "unknown math function 'r2' while compiling while { r2($r2p .... "

    Read the article

  • T-SQL: how to sort table rows based on 2 columns

    - by Criss Nautilus
    I'm quite stuck with this problem for sometime now.. How do I sort column A depending on the contents of Column B? I have this sample: ID count columnA ColumnB 12 1 A B 13 2 C D 14 3 B C I want to sort it like this: ID count ColumnA ColumnB 12 1 A B 14 3 B C 13 2 C D so I need to sort the rows if the previous row of ColumnB = the next row of ColumnA I'm thinking a loop? but can't quite imagine how it will work... I was thinking it will go like this (maybe) SELECT a.ID, a.ColumnA, a.ColumnB FROM TableA WITH a (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN TableA b WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.ID = b.ID and a.counts = b.counts Where a.columnB = b.ColumnA the above code isn't working though and I was thinking more on the lines of... DECLARE @counts int = 1 DECLARE @done int = 0 --WHILE @done = 0 BEGIN SELECT a.ID, a.ColumnA, a.ColumnB FROM TableA WITH a (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN TableA b WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.ID = b.ID and a.counts = @counts Where a.columnB = b.ColumnA set @count = @count +1 END If this was a C code, would be easier for me but t-sql's syntax is making it a bit harder for a noobie like me.

    Read the article

  • Python lists/arrays: disable negative indexing wrap-around

    - by wim
    While I find the negative number wraparound (i.e. A[-2] indexing the second-to-last element) extremely useful in many cases, there are often use cases I come across where it is more of an annoyance than helpful, and I find myself wishing for an alternate syntax to use when I would rather disable that particular behaviour. Here is a canned 2D example below, but I have had the same peeve a few times with other data structures and in other numbers of dimensions. import numpy as np A = np.random.randint(0, 2, (5, 10)) def foo(i, j, r=2): '''sum of neighbours within r steps of A[i,j]''' return A[i-r:i+r+1, j-r:j+r+1].sum() In the slice above I would rather that any negative number to the slice would be treated the same as None is, rather than wrapping to the other end of the array. Because of the wrapping, the otherwise nice implementation above gives incorrect results at boundary conditions and requires some sort of patch like: def ugly_foo(i, j, r=2): def thing(n): return None if n < 0 else n return A[thing(i-r):i+r+1, thing(j-r):j+r+1].sum() I have also tried zero-padding the array or list, but it is still inelegant (requires adjusting the lookup locations indices accordingly) and inefficient (requires copying the array). Am I missing some standard trick or elegant solution for slicing like this? I noticed that python and numpy already handle the case where you specify too large a number nicely - that is, if the index is greater than the shape of the array it behaves the same as if it were None.

    Read the article

  • g++ fails mysteriously only if a .h is in a certain directory

    - by ggambett
    I'm experiencing an extremely weird problem in a fresh OSX 10.4.11 + Xcode 2.5 installation. I've reduced it to a minimal test case. Here's test.cpp: #include "macros.h" int main (void) { return 1; } And here's macros.h: #ifndef __JUST_TESTING__ #define __JUST_TESTING__ template<typename T> void swap (T& pT1, T& pT2) { T pTmp = pT1; pT1 = pT2; pT2 = pTmp; } #endif //__JUST_TESTING__ This compiles and works just fine if both files are in the same directory. HOWEVER, if I put macros.h in /usr/include/gfc2 (it's part of a custom library I use) and change the #include in test.cpp, compilation fails with this error : /usr/include/gfc2/macros.h:4: error: template with C linkage I researched that error and most of the comments point to a "dangling extern C", which doesn't seem to be the case at all. I'm at a complete loss here. Is g++ for some reason assuming everything in /usr/include/gfc2 is C even though it's included from a .cpp file that doesn't say extern "C" anywhere? Any ideas? EDIT : It does compile if I use the full path in the #include, ie #include "/usr/include/gfc2/macros.h" EDIT2 : It's not including the wrong header. I've verified this using cpp, g++ -E, and renaming macros.h to foobarmacros.h

    Read the article

  • How to access variables in shared memory

    - by user1723361
    I am trying to create a shared memory segment containing three integers and an array. The segment is created and a pointer is attached, but when I try to access the values of the variables (whether changing, printing, etc.) I get a segmentation fault. Here is the code I tried: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdbool.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <errno.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <sys/ipc.h> #include <sys/sem.h> #define SIZE 10 int* shm_front; int* shm_end; int* shm_count; int* shm_array; int shm_size = 3*sizeof(int) + sizeof(shm_array[SIZE]); int main(int argc, char* argsv[]) { int shmid; //create shared memory segment if((shmid = shmget(IPC_PRIVATE, shm_size, 0644)) == -1) { printf("error in shmget"); exit(1); } //obtain the pointer to the segment if((shm_front = (int*)shmat(shmid, (void *)0, 0)) == (void *)-1) { printf("error in shmat"); exit(1); } //move down the segment to set the other pointers shm_end = shm_front + 1; shm_count = shm_front + 2; shm_array = shm_front + 3; //tests on shm //*shm_end = 10; //gives segmentation fault //printf("\n%d", *shm_front); //gives segmentation fault //clean-up //get rid of shared memory shmdt(shm_front); shmctl(shmid, IPC_RMID, NULL); //printf("\n\n"); return 0; } I tried accessing the shared memory by dereferencing the pointer to the struct, but got a segmentation fault each time.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423  | Next Page >