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• 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

  - by user72603

  I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

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• Nhibernate join on a table twice

  - by Zuber

  Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

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• Combining aggregate functions in an (ANSI) SQL statement

  - by morpheous

  I have aggregate functions foo(), foobar(), fredstats(), barneystats() I want to create a domain specific query language (DSQL) above my DB, to facilitate using using a domain language to query the DB. The 'language' comprises of boolean expressions (or more specifically SQL like criteria) which I then 'translate' back into pure (ANSI) SQL and send to the underlying Db. The following lines are examples of what the language statements will look like, and hopefully, it will help further clarify the concept: **Example 1** DQL statement: foobar('yellow') between 1 and 3 and fredstats('weight') > 42 Translation: fetch all rows in an underlying table where computed values for aggregate function foobar() is between 1 and 3 AND computed value for AGG FUNC fredstats() is greater than 42 **Example 2** DQL statement: fredstats('weight') < barneystats('weight') AND foo('fighter') in (9,10,11) AND foobar('green') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 3** DQL statement: foobar('green') / foobar('red') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 4** DQL statement: foobar('green') - foobar('red') >= 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches Given the following information: The table upon which the queries above are being executed is called 'tbl' table 'tbl' has the following structure (id int, name varchar(32), weight float) The result set returns only the tbl.id, tbl.name and the names of the aggregate functions as columns in the result set - so for example the foobar() AGG FUNC column will be called foobar in the result set. So for example, the first DQL query will return a result set with the following columns: id, name, foobar, fredstats Given the above, my questions then are: What would be the underlying SQL required for Example1 ? What would be the underlying SQL required for Example3 ? Given an algebraic equation comprising of AGGREGATE functions, Is there a way of generalizing the algorithm needed to generate the required ANSI SQL statement(s)? I am using PostgreSQL as the db, but I would prefer to use ANSI SQL wherever possible.

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• Problem with date_select when using :discard option. (Rails)

  - by MikeH

  I'm using a date_select with the option :discard_year => true If a user selects a date in the date select, and then he comes back and returns the select to the prompt values of Month and Day, Rails automatically sets the select values to January 1. I know this is the intended functionality if a month is selected and a day is left blank, but that's not the case here. In my example, the user sets both the month and day back to the prompt. By Rails forcing January 1, I'm getting bad results. I've tried every parameter available in the api. :default = nil, :include_blank = true. None of those change the behavior I'm describing. I've isolated the root of the problem, which is this: Because I'm discarding the :year parameter, when the user tries to return the month and day to the prompt values, Rails doesn't see an empty prompt select. It perhaps sees a year selected with empty month and day, which it then sets to January 1. This is the case because the :discard_year parameter does in fact set a date in the database, it just removes it from the view. How can I code around this problem?

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• WPF: Editable ComboBox; how to make search/auto-fill functionality case sensitive?

  - by unforgiven3

  Say I have a ComboBox, like so: <ComboBox IsEditable="True" Height="30"> <ComboBoxItem>robot</ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem>Robot</ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> If a user comes along and starts by typing a lower-case 'r' into that ComboBox when it is empty, the ComboBox predictably auto-fills itself with the word 'robot'. Great. Now the same user comes along and starts typing an upper-case 'R' into that ComboBox when it is again empty. Unpredictable, the ComboBox auto-fills itself with the lower-case word 'robot'. Not great. I desperately want it to auto-fill itself with 'Robot', but WPF does not seem to want to smile down upon me. No matter what you do (CAPS lock, shift+key), the ComboBox will always auto-fill with the lower case 'robot', provided that the lower case 'robot' precedes the upper case 'Robot' in the ComboBox's items collection. Is there any way to prevent this? This behavior is maddening and makes for an absolutely abysmal user experience.

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• Rails Active Record Mysql find query HAVING clause

  - by meetraghu28

  Is there a way to use the HAVING clause in some other way without using group by. I am using rails and following is a sample sccenario of the problem that i am facing. In rails you can use the Model.find(:all,:select,conditions,:group) function to get data. In this query i can specify a having clause in the :group param. But what if i dont have a group by clause but want to have a having clause in the result set. Ex: Lets take a query select sum(x) as a,b,c from y where "some_conditions" group by b,c; This query has a sum() aggregation on one of the fields. No if there is nothing to aggregate then my result should be an empty set. But mysql return a NULL row. So this problem can be solved by using select sum(x) as a,b from y where "some_conditions" group by b having a NOT NULL; but what happens in case i dont have a group by clause?? a query like below select sum(x) as a,b from y where "some_conditions"; so how to specify that sum(x) should not be NULL? Any solution that would return an empty set in this case instead of a NULL row will help and also that solution should be doable in rails. We can use subqueries to get this condition working with sumthin like this select * from ((select sum(x) as b FROM y where "some_condition") as subq) where subq.b is not null; but is there a better way to do this thru sql/rails ??

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• Setting classpath and installing database via batch file

  - by Supereme

  Hi, I want my classpath to be set via a batch file. I'm working on Windows XP. I have two questions: My first question: I made a batch file in which I typed "set classpath = C:\WINDOWS\system32\;.;C:\jdk1.5.0\lib\tools.jar;C:\poi-3.6\poi-3.6-20091214.jar;C:\poi-3.6\poi-contrib-3.6-20091214.jar;C:\poi-3.6\poi-ooxml-3.6-20091214.jar;C:\poi-3.6\poi-ooxml-schemas-3.6-20091214.jar;C:\poi-3.6\poi-scratchpad-3.6-20091214.jar;E:\jdbc\postgresql-8.2-505.jdbc3.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\jsr173_1.0_api.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\resolver.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\xbean.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\xbean_xpath.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\xmlbeans-qname.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\xmlpublic.jar;C:\dom4j-1.6.1\dom4j-1.6.1.jar; exit" When I tried to run this file it ran but when I went into control panel systemadvancedenvironment variables and then selected classpath, it didn't show me the classpath I did set. What is the correct way to set the classpath via batch file? My second question: Is there any way by which we can install database via batch file say for eg: postgresql8.2? Thank you.

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• Stored procedure using cursor in mySql.

  - by RAVI

  I wrote a stored procedure using cursor in mysql but that procedure is taking 10 second to fetch the result while that result set have only 450 records so, I want to know that why that proedure is taking that much time to fetch tha record. procedure as below: DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS curdemo123// CREATE PROCEDURE curdemo123(IN Branchcode int,IN vYear int,IN vMonth int) BEGIN DECLARE EndOfData,tempamount INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempsaledate CHAR(12); DECLARE tempspot_rate DOUBLE; DECLARE var1,totalrow INT DEFAULT 1; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR select SQL_CALC_FOUND_ROWS ad.agentCode,ad.planType,ad.amount,ad.date from adplan_detailstbl ad where ad.branchCode=Branchcode and (ad.date between '2009-12-1' and '2009-12-31')order by ad.NUM_ID asc; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLSTATE '02000' SET EndOfData = 1; DROP TEMPORARY TABLE IF EXISTS temptable; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE temptable (agent_code varchar(15), plan_type char(12),sale double,spot_rate double default '0.0', dATE DATE); OPEN cur1; SET totalrow=FOUND_ROWS(); while var1 <= totalrow DO fetch cur1 into tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempsaledate; IF((tempplantype='Unit Plan' OR tempplantype='MIP') OR tempplantype='STUP') then select spotRate into tempspot_rate from spot_amount where ((monthCode=vMonth and year=vYear) and ((agentCode=tempagent_code and branchCode=Branchcode) and (planType=tempplantype))); INSERT INTO temptable VALUES(tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempspot_rate,tempsaledate); else INSERT INTO temptable(agent_code,plan_type,sale,dATE) VALUES(tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempsaledate); END IF; SET var1=var1+1; END WHILE; CLOSE cur1; select * from temptable; DROP TABLE temptable; END // DELIMITER ;

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• Custom Model Validator for MVC

  - by scottrakes

  I am trying to add a custom model validation at the property level but need to pass in two values. Below is my class definition and validation implementation. When it runs, the "value" in the IsValid method is always null. I can get this working at the class level but the property level is causing me issues. What am I missing? Event Class: public class Event { public int? EventID {get;set;} [ValidPURL("EventID", "PURLValue")] public string PURLValue { get; set; } ... } Validation Class [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class ValidPURL : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "Web address already exist."; private readonly object _typeId = new object(); public ValidPURL(int eventID, string purlValue) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { EventID = eventID; PURLValue = purlValue; } public int EventID { get; private set; } public string PURLValue { get; private set; } public override object TypeId { get { return _typeId; } } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, EventID, PURLValue); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object eventIDValue = properties.Find(EventID, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); object purlValue = properties.Find(PURLValue, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); [Some Validation Logic against the database] return true; } } Thank for the help!

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• how do I get eclipse to use a different compiler version for Java?

  - by codeman73

  It seems like this should be a simple task, with the options in the Preferences menu for different JREs and the ability to set different compiler and build paths per project. However, it also seems to simply not work. For example, I have my JAVA_HOME set to a jre for Java 1.6. It's still not clear to me how Eclipse uses this, but it appears to be defaulting to this and not taking the project overrides. I have also installed Java 1.5, and added a JRE for this in eclipse in the Java-Installed JREs section. In my project, I've set the compiler compliance level to 1.5. In the build path for the project, I've added the System Library for the Java 1.5 JRE. However, I'm getting compile errors for a class that implements PreparedStatement for not implementing abstract methods that only exist in Java 1.6 PreparedStatement. Specifically, the methods setAsciiStream(int, InputStream, long) and setAsciiStream(int, InputStream) Strangely enough, it worked when we were compiling it against Java 1.4, which it was originally written for. We added the JREs for Java 1.4 and referenced that system library in the project, and set the project's compiler level to 1.4, and it works fine. But when I do the same changes to try to point to Java 1.5, it instead uses 1.6. Any ideas why?

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• Creating a Function in SQL Server with a Phone Number as a parameter and returns a Random Number

  - by Emer

  Hi Guys, I am hoping someone can help me here as google is not being as forthcoming as I would have liked. I am relatively new to SQL Server and so this is the first function I have set myself to do. The outline of the function is that it has a Phone number varchar(15) as a parameter, it checks that this number is a proper number, i.e. it is 8 digits long and contains only numbers. The main character I am trying to avoid is '+'. Good Number = 12345678 Bad Number = +12345678. Once the number is checked I would like to produce a random number for each phone number that is passed in. I have looked at substrings, the like operator, Rand(), left(), Right() in order to search through the number and then produce a random number. I understand that Rand() will produce the same random number unless alterations are done to it but right now it is about actually getting some working code. Any hints on this would be great or even point me towards some more documentation. I have read books online and they haven't helped me, maybe I am not looking in the right places. Here is a snippet of code I was working on the Rand declare @Phone Varchar (15) declare @Counter Varchar (1) declare @NewNumber Varchar(15) set @Phone = '12345678' set @Counter = len(@Phone) while @Counter > 0 begin select case when @Phone like '%[0-9]%' then cast(rand()*100000000 as int) else 'Bad Number' end set @counter = @counter - 1 end return Thanks for the help in advance Emer

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• Cascading DropDown List in MVC 4

  - by Misi

  I have a ASP.NET MVC 4 project with EF I have a table with Parteners. This table has 2 types of parteners : agents(part_type=1) and clients(part_type=2). In an Create view I have the first DropDownList that shows all my agents, a button and the second DDL that shows all my clients that correspond to the selected agent. Q1 : What button shoud I use ? , , @Html.ActionLink() ? Create.cshtml <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("idagenti", ViewData["idagenti"] as List<SelectListItem>, String.Empty) </div> @*a button*@ <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.id_parten, "Client") </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("id_parten", String.Empty) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.id_parten) </div> OrdersController.cs public ActionResult Create(int? id) // id is the selected agent { var agqry = db.partener.Where(p => p.part_type == 1).Where(p => p.activ == true); var cltqry = db.partener.Where(p => p.part_type == 2).Where(p => p.activ == true); List<SelectListItem> idagenti = new List<SelectListItem>(); foreach (partener ag in agqry) { idagenti.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = ag.den_parten, Value = ag.id_parten.ToString() }); } if (id != null) { cltqry = cltqry.Where(p => p.par_parten == id); } ViewData["idagenti"] = idagenti; ViewBag.id_parten = new SelectList(cltqry, "id_parten", "den_parten");// } Q: How can I pass the selected agent id from the first DDL to my controller ?

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• Hibernate Bi- Directional many to many mapping advice!

  - by Rob

  hi all, i woundered if anyone might be able to help me out. I am trying to work out what to google for (or any other ideas!!) basically i have a bidirectional many to many mapping between a user entity and a club entity (via a join table called userClubs) I now want to include a column in userClubs that represents the role so that when i call user.getClubs() I can also work out what level access they have. Is there a clever way to do this using hibernate or do i need to rethink the database structure? Thank you for any help (or just for reading this far!!) the user.hbm.xml looks a bit like <set name="clubs" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="user_ID"/> <many-to-many column="activity_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.Activity"/> </set> the activity.hbm.xml part <set name="members" inverse="true" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="activity_ID"/> <many-to-many column="user_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.User"/> </set> The current userClubs table contains the fields id | user_ID | activity_ID I would like to include in there id | user_ID | activity_ID | role and be able to access the role on both sides...

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• Binding, Prefixes and generated HTML

  - by Vman

  MVC newbie question re binders. Supposing I have two strongly typed partial actions that happen to have a model attributes with the same name, and are rendered in the same containing page i.e.: Class Friend {string Name {get; set ;} DateTime DOB {get; set ;}} Class Foe {string Name {get; set ;} string ReasonForDislike {get; set ;}} Both partials will have a line: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Name) %> And associated controller actions: public ActionResult SaveFriend(Friend friend) public ActionResult SaveFoe(Foe foe) My problem is that both will render on my containing page with the same id (of course, bad for lots of reasons). I’m aware of the [Bind] attribute that allows me add a prefix, resulting in code: public ActionResult SaveFriend([Bind(Prefix = “friend”)] Friend friend) <%= Html.TextBox("friend.Name", Model. Name) %> //Boo, no TextBoxFor :( But this still doesn’t cut it. I can just about tolerate the loss of the strongly typed TextBoxFor helpers but I’ve yet to get clientside validation to work with prefixes: I’ve tried: <%= Html.ValidationMessage("friend.Name") %> ...and every other variant I can think of. I seem to need the model to be aware of the prefix in both directions but bind only applies when mapping the inbound request. It seems (to me) a common scenario but I’m struggling to find examples out there. What am I missing! Thanks in advance.

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• ASP.NET MVC Conditional validation

  - by Peter Stegnar

  How to use data annotations to do a conditional validation on model? For example, lets say we have the following model (Person and Senior): public class Person { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")] public string Name { get; set; } public bool IsSenior { get; set; } public Senior Senior { get; set; } } public class Senior { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")]//this should be conditional validation, based on the "IsSenior" value public string Description { get; set; } } And the following view: <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> I would like to be the "Senior.Description" property conditional required field based on the selection of the "IsSenior" propery (true - required). How to implement conditional validation in ASP.NET MVC 2 with data annotations? UPDATE Found nice solution. Look below.

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• Setting routes in application.ini in Zend Framework

  - by Paul Watson

  I'm a Zend Framework newbie, and I'm trying to work out how to add another route to my application.ini file. I currently have my routes set up as follows: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = display ...so that /artists/joe-bloggs uses the "display" action of the "artists" controller to dipslay the profile the artist in question - that works fine. What I want to do now is to set up another route so that /artists/joe-bloggs/random-gallery-name goes to the "galleries" action of the "artists" controller. I tried adding an additional block to the application.ini file (beneath the block above) like so: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub/:gallery resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = galleries ...but when I do that the page at /artists/joe-bloggs no longer works (Zend tries to route it to the "joe-bloggs" controller). How do I set up the routes in application.ini so that I can change the action of the "artists" controller depending on whether "/:gallery" exists? I realise I'm probably making a really stupid mistake, so please point out my stupidity and set me on the right path (no pun intended).

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• backbone.js removing template from DOM upon success

  - by timpone

  I'm writing a simple message board app to learn backbone. It's going ok (a lot of the use of this isn't making sense) but am a little stuck in terms of how I would remove a form / html from the dom. I have included most of the code but you can see about 4 lines up from the bottom, the part that isn't working. How would I remove this from the DOM? thx in advance var MbForm=Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click button.add-new-post': 'savePost' }, el: $('#detail'), template:_.template($('#post-add-edit-tmpl').html()), render: function(){ var compiled_template = this.template(); this.$el.html(compiled_template); return this; }, savePost: function(e){ //var self=this; //console.log("I want you to say Hello!"); data={ header: $('#post_header').val(), detail: $('#post_detail').val(), forum_id: $('#forum_id').val(), post_id: $('#post_id').val(), parent_id: $('#parent_id').val() }; this.model.save(data, { success: function(){ alert('this saved'); //$(this.el).html('this is what i want'); this.$el.remove();// <- this is the part that isn't working /* none of these worked - error Uncaught TypeError: Cannot call method 'unbind' of undefined this.$el.unbind(); this.$el.empty(); this.el.unbind(); this.el.empty(); */ //this.unbind(); //self.append('this is appended'); } });

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• Programmatically change an EditorGrid's cell value

  - by Snowright

  Hi, I have an Editor Grid where if a specific cell is in focus (is being edited), a window containing a tree panel pops up allowing the user to choose a node from the treepanel as the new value of the cell. This way, the user isn't actually editing the cell in question, but is using the window to choose the new value. However, I am having difficulties setting the value of the cell in question programmatically. Below is the code I use to set the grid up, including the column model that chooses what editor to use for a cell depending on the value type: var editorCM = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ //config ,editors : { //rest of editors 'id' : new Ext.grid.GridEditor(new Ext.form.TextField({readOnly : true})) } ,getCellEditor : function(col, row) { //choose editor depending on the type value of a cell } }) var editorGrid = new Ext.grid.EditorGridPanel({ //rest of config ,cm : editorCM }) Below is my code to change the cell's value once the user chooses from the treepanel. function submitNode(newValue) { var temp = editorGrid.GetSelectionModel().getSelectedCell(); //returns array containing column and row position of selected cell, which value we want to change. //temp[1] = column index, temp[0] = row index //Gets the cell editor at specific position and sets new value for that cell editorGrid.getColumnModel().getCellEditor(temp[1], temp[0]).setValue(newValue); } I've also tried a few other ways (all including setValue(newValue)), but have come up empty handed. I've looked through the API and the ExtJS forums for any clue but have also come up empty handed.

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• C# reflection, cloning

  - by Enriquev

  Say I have this class Myclass that contains this method: public class MyClass { public int MyProperty { get; set; } public int MySecondProperty { get; set; } public MyOtherClass subClass { get; set; } public object clone<T>(object original, T emptyObj) { FieldInfo[] fis = this.GetType().GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic); object tempMyClass = Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(T)); foreach (FieldInfo fi in fis) { if (fi.FieldType.Namespace != original.GetType().Namespace) fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, fi.GetValue(original)); else fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, this.clone(fi.GetValue(original), fi.GetValue(original))); } return tempMyClass; } } Then this class: public class MyOtherClass { public int MyProperty777 { get; set; } } when I do this: MyClass a = new MyClass { MyProperty = 1, MySecondProperty = 2, subClass = new MyOtherClass() { MyProperty777 = -1 } }; MyClass b = a.clone(a, a) as MyClass; how come on the second call to clone, T is of type object and not of type MyOtherClass

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• Login problem with php

  - by shinod

  I want to prevent multiple log in with same log in credentials simultaneously. So I made a column login_status and set it to 1 when some one logging in and change to 0 when logging out besides I set session after successful logged in. If user won't click on log out(in case of user close tab or because of some network problem) it doesn't update database and then one can't use that log in credentials again. So I use a ajax call to set current time stamp in database with related log in credentials and it is updated in each 2 minutes if user not navigate from that page. Then if some one attempts to log in with same log in credentials, it will check these time stamp if column login_status is 1, then if the time stamp is older than 3 minutes it allows the log in.Then it solving that problem. But the new problem is if user closes the tab or browser window and after 3 minutes one can log in with same log in credentials from somewhere and if the previous user open that page automatically it will log in as session is already set. How can I prevent this.

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• Alternatives to the Entity Framework for Serving/Consuming an OData Interface

  - by Egahn

  I'm researching how to set up an OData interface to our database. I would like to be able to pull/query data from our DB into Excel, as a start. Eventually I would like to have Excel run queries and pull data over HTTP from a remote client, including authentication, etc. I've set up a working (rickety) prototype so far, using the ADO.NET Entity Data Model wizard in Visual Studio, and VSTO to create a test Excel worksheet with a button to pull from that ADO.NET interface. This works OK so far, and I can query the DB using Linq through the entities/objects that are created by the ADO.NET EDM wizard. However, I have started to run into some problems with this approach. I've been finding the Entity Framework difficult to work with (and in fact, also difficult to research solutions to, as there's a lot of chaff out there regarding it and older versions of it). An example of this is my being unable to figure out how to set the SQL command timeout (as opposed to the HTTP request timeout) on the DataServiceContext object that the wizard generates for my schema, but that's not the point of my question. The real question I have is, if I want to use OData as my interface standard, am I stuck with the Entity Framework? Are there any other solutions out there (preferably open source) which can set up, serve and consume an OData interface, and are easier to work with and less bloated than the Entity Framework? I have seen mention of NHibernate as an alternative, but most of the comparison threads I've seen are a few years old. Are there any other alternatives out there now? Thanks very much!

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• Fluent NHibernate Map to private/protected Field that has no exposing Property

  - by Jon Erickson

  I have the following Person and Gender classes (I don't really, but the example is simplified to get my point across), using NHibernate (Fluent NHibernate) I want to map the Database Column "GenderId" [INT] value to the protected int _genderId field in my Person class. How do I do this? FYI, the mappings and the domain objects are in separate assemblies. public class Person : Entity { protected int _genderId; public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; private set; } public virtual Gender Gender { get { return Gender.FromId(_genderId); } } } public class Gender : EnumerationBase<Gender> { public static Gender Male = new Gender(1, "Male"); public static Gender Female = new Gender(2, "Female"); private static readonly Gender[] _genders = new[] { Male, Female }; private Gender(int id, string name) { Id = id; Name = name; } public int Id { get; private set; } public string Name { get; private set; } public static Gender FromId(int id) { return _genders.Where(x => x.Id == id).SingleOrDefault(); } }

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• Alpha animation bug on button

  - by RaiderJ

  I have animations that fade in a Button (alpha from 0 to 1) and fade out a button (alpha from 1 to 0). This part is all working fine. Button A triggers the fade in of Button B. Button B triggers the fade out of itself. Button B totally covers up Button A. The idea is that Button B contains an image that is used like an information popup. Button A is touched and Button B fades in on top. When Button B is touched it fades itself out again. Initially, Button B's visibility is set INVISIBLE and when the fade in animation is complete, it is set to VISIBLE. When Button B is clicked it fades out and then I set the visibility to INVISIBLE. The problem is that after Button B has faded out, and it is set INVISIBLE, it is still clickable and even though it is not visible, and touches are not received by Button A. I have tried removing Button B from the parent and re-adding it after the animation is completed, and this allows for touches to reach Button A, but only once. After that button B is not longer touchable.

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• Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

  - by Mathias Koch

  Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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• Bidirectional replication update record problem

  - by Mirek

  Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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