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  • Multiple WCF calls for a single ASP.NET page load

    - by Rodney Burton
    I have an existing asp.net web application I am redesigning to use a service architecture. I have the beginnings of an WCF service which I am able to call and perform functions with no problems. As far as updating data, it all makes sense. For example, I have a button that says Submit Order, it sends the data to the service, which does the processing. Here's my concern: If I have an ASP.NET page that shows me a list of orders (View Orders page), and at the top I have a bunch of drop down lists for order types, and other search criteria which is populated by querying different tables from the database (lookup tables, etc). I am hoping to eventually completely decouple the web application from the DB, and use data contracts to pass information between the BLL, the SOA, and the web app. With that said, how can I reduce the # of WCF calls needed to load my "View Orders" page? I would need to make 1 call get the list of orders, and 1 call for each drop down list, etc because those are populated by individual functions in my BLL. Is it good architecture to create a web service method that returns back a specialized data contract that consists of everything you would need to display a View Orders page, in 1 shot? Something like this pseudocode: public class ViewOrderPageDTO { public OrderDTO[] Orders { get; set; } public OrderTypesDTO[] OrderTypes { get; set; } public OrderStatusesDTO[] OrderStatuses { get; set; } public CustomerListDTO[] CustomerList { get; set; } } Or is it better practice in the page_load event to make 5 or 6 or even 15 individual calls to the SOA to get the data needed to load the page? Therefore, bypassing the need for specialized wcf methods or DTO's that conglomerate other DTO? Thanks for your input and suggestions.

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  • Using SDK 3.2 API in Universal iPhone/iPad application

    - by psychotik
    I have a project configured (I think) to produce Universal binaries. The base SDK is set to 3.2 and the Deployment Target is set to 3.1. Target Device Family is iPhone/iPad and the architecture is armv6 armv7. I had a few questions about how this Universal binary thing really works: 1) When I want to submit an app binary for review, what configuration should I set as the build target? If I set it as "Device - 3.1" I get a warning which says "warning: building with Targeted Device Family" that includes iPad('1,2') requires building with the 3.2 or later SDK". However, if I build with SDK 3.2, will it still run on iPhones with OS 3.1? What's the right configuration for device and architecture (arm6/arm7)? 2) How do I test the scenario above (built with SDK 3.2, but installed on a device running OS 3.1)? If I build with SDK 3.2, when I try to install it on a phone with OS 3.1, I get an error saying that the phone's OS isn't updated. Thanks!

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  • Ajax UpdatePanels scroll on partial page update.

    - by George
    I set the AutoPostback property of a textbox to True so I can process the TextChanged event on the server and, based on what they typed in the textbox, appropriately display a message in an update panel. The problem is, when the partial screen refresh is performed, no control on the screen has focus. 99% of the time, when the text in the textbox is changed, it is because the user has tabbed forward, and so, to limit the disruption in the lost of focus, I perform a "Focus" call on teh next control in the tab sequence. For the most part, this works OK, but of course, is disputive if the user is tabbing in the reverse order or has used the mouse to set the focus to another control. In these situations, the focus would be set to the next control even though the user was trying to set focus elsewhere. OK, that sucks. Now what I consider the bigger problem with calling the focus method on the server: In IE, it works OK, but in Mozilla Firefox and Chrome, setting the focus causes a repositioning of the scroll bar, even though none is necessary because the control is already in view. I realize that I could switch to doing AJAX web service calls, but these darn Updae Panels are so convenient if used in moderation. is there anyway to use updatepanels and not have these focus/scroll issues?

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  • DataTable won't DataBind with a DataTable.NewRow()

    - by David
    Is DataRow.NewRow() insufficient as the only row in a DataTable? I would expect this to work, but it doesn't. It's near the end of my Page_Load inside my If(!Postback) block. gridCPCP is GridView DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Columns.Add("ID", int.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Code", string.Empty.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Date", DateTime.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Date2", DateTime.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Filename", string.Empty.GetType()); //code to add rows if (dt.Rows.Count > 0) { gridCPCP.DataSource = dt; gridCPCP.DataBind(); } else { dt.Rows.Add(dt.NewRow()); gridCPCP.DataSource = dt; gridCPCP.DataBind(); //EXCEPTION int TotalColumns = gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Count; gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Clear(); gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Add(new TableCell()); gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells[0].ColumnSpan = TotalColumns; gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells[0].Text = "No Record Found"; } The exception throws on gridCPCP.DataBind() and only when execution reaches the else block. If there were rows added above via dt.Rows.Add(new object[] { ... } binding works. System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Length cannot be less than zero. Parameter name: length

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  • LINQtoSQL Custom Constructor off Partial Class?

    - by sah302
    Hi all, I read this question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/82409/is-there-a-way-to-override-the-empty-constructor-in-a-class-generated-by-linqtosq Typically my constructor would look like: public User(String username, String password, String email, DateTime birthday, Char gender) { this.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); this.DateCreated = this.DateModified = DateTime.Now; this.Username = username; this.Password = password; this.Email = email; this.Birthday = birthday; this.Gender = gender; } However, as read in that question, you want to use partial method OnCreated() instead to assign values and not overwrite the default constructor. Okay so I got this : partial void OnCreated() { this.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); this.DateCreated = this.DateModified = DateTime.Now; this.Username = username; this.Password = password; this.Email = email; this.Birthday = birthday; this.Gender = gender; } However, this gives me two errors: Partial Methods must be declared private. Partial Methods must have empty method bodies. Alright I change it to Private Sub OnCreated() to remove both of those errors. However I am still stuck with...how can I pass it values as I would with a normal custom constructor? Also I am doing this in VB (converted it since I know most know/prefer C#), so would that have an affect on this?

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  • How to deserialize an element as an XmlNode?

    - by mackenir
    When using Xml serialization in C#, I want to deserialize a part of my input XML to an XmlNode. So, given this XML: <Thing Name="George"> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing> I want to deserialize the Document element to an XmlNode. Below is my attempt which given the XML above, sets Document to the 'subnode1' element rather than the 'Document' element. How would I get the code to set the Document property to the Document element? using System; using System.IO; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Serialization; [Serializable] public class Thing { [XmlAttribute] public string Name {get;set;} public XmlNode Document { get; set; } } class Program { static void Main() { const string xml = @" <Thing Name=""George""> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing>"; var s = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Thing)); var thing = s.Deserialize(new StringReader(xml)) as Thing; } } However, when I use an XmlSerializer to deserialize the XML above to an instance of Thing, the Document property contains the child element 'subnode1', rather than the 'doc' element. How can I get the XmlSerializer to set Document to an XmlNode containing the 'doc' element.

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  • Building/Testing a Universal iPhone/iPad application

    - by psychotik
    I have a project configured (I think) to produce Universal binaries. The base SDK is set to 3.2 and the Deployment Target is set to 3.1. Target Device Family is iPhone/iPad and the architecture is armv6 armv7. I had a few questions about how this Universal binary thing really works: 1) When I want to submit an app binary for review, what configuration should I set as the build target? If I set it as "Device - 3.1" I get a warning which says "warning: building with Targeted Device Family" that includes iPad('1,2') requires building with the 3.2 or later SDK". However, if I build with SDK 3.2, will it still run on iPhones with OS 3.1? What's the right configuration for device and architecture (arm6/arm7)? 2) How do I test the scenario above (built with SDK 3.2, but installed on a device running OS 3.1)? If I build with SDK 3.2, when I try to install it on a phone with OS 3.1, I get an error saying that the phone's OS isn't updated. Thanks!

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  • Is there any other efficient way to use table variable instead of using temporary table

    - by varta shrimali
    we are writing script to display banners on a web page where we are using temporary table in mysql procedure. Is there any other efficient way to use table variable instead of using temporary table we are using following code: -- banner location CURSOR -- DECLARE banner_location_cursor CURSOR FOR select bm.id as masterId, bm.section as masterName, bs.id as locationId, bs.sectionName as locationName from banner_master as bm inner join banner_section as bs on bm.id=bs.masterId where bm.section=sCode ; -- DECLARE banner CURSORS DECLARE banner_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT bd.id as bannerId, bd.sectionId, bd.bannerName, bd.websiteURL, bd.paymentType, bd.status, bd.startDate, bd.endDate, bd.bannerDisplayed, bs.id, bs.sectionName from banner_detail as bd inner join banner_section as bs on bs.id=bd.sectionId where bs.id= location_id and bd.status='A' and (dates between cast(bd.startDate as DATE) and cast(bd.endDate as DATE)) order by rand(), bd.bannerDisplayed asc limit 1 ; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET no_more_rows = 1; SET dates = (select curdate()); -- RESULTS TABLE WHICH WILL BE RETURNED -- CREATE temporary TABLE test ( b_id INT, s_id INT, b_name varchar(128), w_url varchar(128), p_type varchar(128), st char(1), s_date datetime, e_date datetime, b_display int, sec_id int, s_name varchar(128) ); -- OPEN banner location CURSOR OPEN banner_location_cursor; the_loop: LOOP FETCH banner_location_cursor INTO master_id, master_name, location_id, location_name; IF no_more_rows THEN CLOSE banner_location_cursor; leave the_loop; END IF; OPEN banner_cursor; -- select FOUND_ROWS(); the_loop2: LOOP FETCH banner_cursor INTO banner_id, section_id, banner_name, website_url, payment, status, start_date, end_date, banner_displayed, sec_id, section_name; IF no_more_rows THEN set no_more_rows = 0; CLOSE banner_cursor; leave the_loop2; END IF; INSERT INTO test ( b_id, s_id, b_name , w_url, p_type, st, s_date, e_date, b_display, sec_id, s_name ) VALUES ( banner_id, section_id, banner_name, website_url, payment, status, start_date, end_date, banner_displayed, sec_id, section_name ); UPDATE banner_detail set bannerDisplayed = (banner_displayed+1) where id = banner_id; END LOOP the_loop2; END LOOP the_loop; -- RETURN result SELECT * FROM test; -- DROP RESULTS TABLE DROP TABLE test; END

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  • pagination in jsf

    - by gurupriyan.e
    I would like your comments and suggestion on this. I am doing the pagination for a page in jsf. The datatable is bound to a Backing Bean property through the "binding" attribute. I have 2 boolean variables to determine whether to render 'Prev' and 'Next' Button - which is displayed below the datatable. When either the 'Prev' or 'Next' button is clicked, In the backing bean I get the bound dataTable property and through which i get the "first" and "rows" attribute of the datatable and change accordingly. I display 5 rows in the page. Please comment and suggest if there any better ways. btw, I am not interested in any JSF Component libraries but stick to only core html render kit. public String goNext() { UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); setShowPrev(true); //set Rows "0" or "5" if(getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)>5 ) { htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows }else if (getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)<=5) { htdbl.setRows(0);//display all rows (which are less than 5) setShowNext(false); } //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()+5); return "success"; } public String goPrev() { setShowNext(true); UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()-5); if(htdbl.getFirst()==0) { setShowPrev(false); } //set Rows - always display 5 htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows return "success"; }

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  • How to test the expectation on the eventSpy

    - by Lorraine Bernard
    I am trying to test a backbone.model when saving. Here's my piece of code. As you can see from the comment there is a problem with toHaveBeenCalledOnce method. P.S.: I am using jasmine 1.2.0 and Sinon.JS 1.3.4 describe('when saving', function () { beforeEach(function () { this.server = sinon.fakeServer.create(); this.responseBody = '{"id":3,"title":"Hello","tags":["garden","weekend"]}'; this.server.respondWith( 'POST', Routing.generate(this.apiName), [ 200, {'Content-Type': 'application/json'}, this.responseBody ] ); this.eventSpy = sinon.spy(); }); afterEach(function() { this.server.restore(); }); it('should not save when title is empty', function() { this.model.bind('error', this.eventSpy); this.model.save({'title': ''}); expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledOnce(); // TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'toHaveBeenCalledOnce' expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledWith(this.model, 'cannot have an empty title'); }); }); console.log(expect(this.eventSpy));

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  • StructureMap problems with bidirectional/circular dependencies

    - by leozilla
    I am currently integrating StructureMap within our business layer but have problems because of bidirectional dependencies. The layer contains multiple manager where each manager can call methods on each other, there are no restrictions or rules for communication. This also includes possible circular dependencies like in the example below. I know the design itself is questionable but currently we just want StructureMap to work and will focus on further refactoring in the future. Every manager implements the IManager interface internal interface IManager { bool IsStarted { get; } void Start(); void Stop(); } And does also have his own specific interface. internal interface IManagerA : IManager { void ALogic(); } internal interface IManagerB : IManager { void BLogic(); } Here are to dummy manager implementations. internal class ManagerA : IManagerA { public IManagerB ManagerB { get; set; } public void ALogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } internal class ManagerB : IManagerB { public IManagerA ManagerA { get; set; } public void BLogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } Here is the StructureMap configuration i use atm. I am still not sure how i should register the managers so currently i use a manual registration. Maybee someone could help me with this too. For<IManagerA>().Singleton().Use<ManagerA>(); For<IManagerB>().Singleton().Use<ManagerB>(); SetAllProperties(convention => { // configure the property injection for all managers convention.Matching(prop => typeof(IManager).IsAssignableFrom(prop.PropertyType)); }); After all i cannot create IManagerA because StructureMap complians about the circular dependency between ManagerA and ManagerB. Is there an easy and clean solution to solve this problem but keep to current design? br David

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  • Using Rails, problem testing has_many relationship

    - by east
    The summary is that I've code that works when manually testing, but isn't doing what I would think it should when trying to build an automated test. Here are the details: I've two models: Payment and PaymentTranscation. class Payment ... has_many :transactions, :class_name => 'PaymentTransaction' class PaymentTranscation ... belongs_to payment The PaymentTransaction is only created in a Payment model method, like so: def pay_up ... transactions.create!(params...) ... end I've manually tested this code, inspected the database, and everything works well. The failing automated test looks like this: def test_pay_up purchase = Payment.new(...) assert purchase.save assert_equal purchase.state, :initialized.to_s assert purchase.pay_up # this should create a new PaymentTransaction... assert_equal purchase.state, :succeeded.to_s assert_equal purchase.transactions.count, 1 # FAILS HERE; transactions is an empty array end If I step through the code, it's clear that the PaymentTransaction is getting created correctly (though I can't see it in the database because everything is in a testing transaction). What I can't figure out is why transactions is returning an empty array in the test when I know a valid PaymentTransaction is getting created. Anybody have some suggestions? Thanks in advance, east

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  • 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

    - by user72603
    I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

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  • C++: Is there any good way to read/write without specifically stating character type in function nam

    - by Mark L.
    I'm having a problem getting a program to read from a file based on a template, for example: bool parse(basic_ifstream<T> &file) { T ch; locale loc = file.getloc(); basic_string<T> buf; file.unsetf(ios_base::skipws); if (file.is_open()) { while (file >> ch) { if(isalnum(ch, loc)) { buf += ch; } else if(!buf.empty()) { addWord(buf); buf.clear(); } } if(!buf.empty()) { addWord(buf); } return true; } return false; } This will work when I instantiate this class with <char>, but has problems when I use <wchar_t> (clearly). Outside of the class, I'm using: for (iter = mp.begin(); iter != mp.end(); ++iter ) { cout << iter->first << setw(textwidth - iter->first.length() + 1); cout << " " << iter->second << endl; } To write all of the information from this data struct (it's a map<basic_string<T>, int>), and as predicted, cout explodes if iter->first isn't a char array. I've looked online and the consensus is to use wcout, but unfortunately, since this program requires that the template can be changed at compile time (<char> - <wchar_t>) I'm not sure how I could get away with simply choosing cout or wcout. That is, unless there way a way to read/write wide characters without changing lots of code. If this explanation sounds awkwardly complicated, let me know and I'll address it as best I can.

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  • Dynamically created iframe not working on Safari

    - by mhammout
    I have a weird problem and I find no answer on google... I dynamically create and fullfil an iframe with jquery on a page. It works fine withFF and IE, but not with Safari. The iframe is created but empty (the message "greetings from the iframe !" is missing). Here is a piece of code to illustrate it : <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="fr-fr" lang="fr-fr" > <head> <title>iframe</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var jFrame = $('<iframe id="myiframe" name="myiframe">'); jFrame.css({'height':'40px','width':'200px'}).appendTo($('#container')); $('#myiframe').load(function() { jFrame.contents().find("body").html('greetings from the iframe !'); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="container"></div> </body> </html> I really wonder why the iframe stays empty with Safari. It seems like if "contents()" was not well interpreted... Any idea ?

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  • Model login constraints based on time

    - by DaDaDom
    Good morning, for an existing web application I need to implement "time based login constraints". It means that for each user, later maybe each group, I can define timeslots when they are (not) allowed to log in into the system. As all data for the application is stored in database tables, I need to somehow create a way to model this idea in that way. My first approach, I will try to explain it here: Create a tree of login constraints (called "timeslots") with the main "categories", like "workday", "weekend", "public holiday", etc. on the top level, which are in a "sorted" order (meaning "public holiday" has a higher priority than "weekday") for each top level node create subnodes, which have a finer timespan, like "monday", "tuesday", ... below that, create an "hour" level: 0, 1, 2, ..., 23. No further details are necessary. set every member to "allowed" by default For every member of the system create a 1:n relationship member:timeslots which defines constraints, e.g. a member A may have A:monday-forbidden and A:tuesday-forbidden Do a depth-first search at every login and check if the member has a constraint. Why a depth first search? Well, I thought that it may be that a member has the rules: A:monday->forbidden, A:monday-10->allowed, A:mondey-11->allowed So a login on monday at 12:30 would fail, but one at 10:30 succeed. For performance reasons I could break the relational database paradigm and set a flag for every entry in the member-to-timeslots-table which is set to true if the member has information set for "finer" timeslots, but that's a second step. Is this model in principle a good idea? Are there existing models? Thanks.

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  • MySQL: order by and limit gives wrong result

    - by Larry K
    MySQL ver 5.1.26 I'm getting the wrong result with a select that has where, order by and limit clauses. It's only a problem when the order by uses the id column. I saw the MySQL manual for LIMIT Optimization My guess from reading the manual is that there is some problem with the index on the primary key, id. But I don't know where I should go from here... Question: what should I do to best solve the problem? Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.00 sec) WRONG result when limit added! Should be the first row, id - 1336 mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.01 sec) Works correctly with limit: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) Additional info: explain SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | billing_invoices | range | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | 4 | NULL | 3 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+

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  • Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

    - by Jeremy Dowell
    I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

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  • Entity Framework 4 overwrite Equals and GetHashCode of an own class property

    - by Zhok
    Hi, I’m using Visual Studio 2010 with .NET 4 and Entity Framework 4. I’m working with POCO Classes and not the EF4 Generator. I need to overwrite the Equals() and GetHashCode() Method but that doesn’t really work. Thought it’s something everybody does but I don’t find anything about the problem Online. When I write my own Classes and Equals Method, I use Equals() of property’s, witch need to be loaded by EF to be filled. Like this: public class Item { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Name { get; set; } public virtual List<UserItem> UserItems { get; set; } public virtual ItemType ItemType { get; set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { Item item = obj as Item; if (obj == null) { return false; } return item.Name.Equals(this.Name) && item.ItemType.Equals(this.ItemType); } public override int GetHashCode() { return this.Name.GetHashCode() ^ this.ItemType.GetHashCode(); } } That Code doesn’t work, the problems are in Equals and GetHashCode where I try to get HashCode or Equal from “ItemType” . Every time I get a NullRefernceException if I try to get data by Linq2Entites. A dirty way to fix it, is to capture the NullReferenceException and return false (by Equals) and return base.GetHashCode() (by GethashCode) but I hope there is a better way to fix this problem. I’ve wrote a little test project, with SQL Script for the DB and POCO Domain, EDMX File and Console Test Main Method. You can download it here: Download

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  • iPhone: Using a NSMutableArry in the AppDelegate as a Global Variable

    - by aahrens
    What i'm trying to accomplish is to have an NSMutableArray defined in the AppDelegate. I then have two UIViewControllers. One view is responsible for displaying the array from the AppDelegate. The other view is used to add items to the array. So the array starts out to be empty. View1 doesn't display anything because the array is empty. The User goes to View2 and adds an item to the array in AppDelegate. Then when the user goes back to View1 it now displays one item. Here is how I'm trying to accomplish this @interface CalcAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; UITabBarController *tabBarController; NSMutableArray *globalClasses; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSMutableArray *globalClasses; My other view In the viewDidload I set the array in my View to be the one in the AppDelegate. In an effort to retain values. allCourses = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; CalcAppDelegate *appDelegate = (CalcAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; allCourses = appDelegate.globalClasses; Then I would update my allCourses array by adding a new item. Then try to set the array in the AppDelegate to be equal to the modified one. CalcAppDelegate *appDel = (CalcAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSLog(@"Size before reset %d",[appDel.globalClasses count]); appDel.globalClasses = allCourses; NSLog(@"Size after reset %d",[appDel.globalClasses count]); What I'm seeing that's returned is 2 in the before, and 2 after. So it doesn't appear to be getting updated properly. Any suggestions?

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  • datepicker value is blank when disabled, jquery

    - by Mithil Deshmukh
    Hi. I'm fairly new to jQuery. I have a Jquery datepicker in a user control. I have added a "disable" property to the datepicker. Whenever I save the page(having this usercontrol) the datepicker with disable set to true is empty. All other datepickers save fine. Here is my code. ASPX < USERCONTROL:DATEPICKER id="dpBirthDate" startyear="1980" runat="server" Disable=true ASCX < input type="text" size="8" runat="server" id="txtDate" name="txtDate" onblur="ValidateForm(this.id);" / ASCX Code Behind Public Property Disable() As Boolean Get Return (txtDate.Disabled = True) End Get Set(ByVal bValue As Boolean) If (bValue = True) Then txtDate.Attributes.Add("Disabled", "True") Else txtDate.Attributes.Remove("Disabled") End If End Set End Property My Jquery $(document).ready(function() { $("input[id$=txtDate]").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("BASE_DIRECTORY")%>/Images/el-calendar.gif', buttonImageOnly: true }); $("input[id$=txtDate]").mask("99/99/9999", { placeholder: " " }); //Disable datepicker if "disable=true" $("input[id$=txtDate]").each(function() { if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "True") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("disable"); } else if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "False") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("enable"); } }); }); I am sorry, I am not sure how to format the code here. I apologies for the cluttered code. Can anybody tell me why the datepicker value is empty when it is disabled but works fine otherwise? Thanks is advance.

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  • Error with Property Validation in Form Submission in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I have a simple form on an ASP.NET MVC site that I'm building. This form is submitted, and then I validate that the form fields aren't null, empty, or improperly formatted. However, when I use ModelState.AddModelError() to indicate validation errors from my controller code, I get an error when my view is re-rendered. In Visual Studio, I get that the following line is highlighted as being the location of the error: <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> The error is the following: NullReferenceException was unhandled by user code - object reference not set to an instance of an object. My complete code for that textbox is the following: <p> <label for="Email">Your Email:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> <%=Html.ValidationMessage("Email", "*") %> </p> Here's how I'm doing that validation in my controller: try { System.Net.Mail.MailAddress address = new System.Net.Mail.MailAddress(email); } catch { ModelState.AddModelError("Email", "Should not be empty or invalid"); } return View(); Note: this applies to all of my fields, not just my Email field, as long as they are invalid.

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  • Use an Array to Cycle Through a MySQL Where Statement

    - by Ryan
    I'm trying to create a loop that will output multiple where statements for a MySQL query. Ultimately, my goal is to end up with these four separate Where statements: `fruit` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '1' `fruit` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '2' `fruit` = '2' AND `vegetables` = '1' `fruit` = '2' AND `vegetables` = '2' My theoretical code is pasted below: <?php $columnnames = array('fruit','vegetables'); $column1 = array('1','2'); $column2 = array('1','2'); $where = ''; $column1inc =0; $column2inc =0; while( $column1inc <= count($column1) ) { if( !empty( $where ) ) $where .= ' AND '; $where = "`".$columnnames[0]."` = "; $where .= "'".$column1[$column1inc]."'"; while( $column2inc <= count($column2) ) { if( !empty( $where ) ) $where .= ' AND '; $where .= "`".$columnnames[1]."` = "; $where .= "'".$column2[$column2inc]."'"; echo $where."\n"; $column2inc++; } $column1inc++; } ?> When I run this code, I get the following output: `fruit` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '1' `fruit` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '2' `fruit` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '1' AND `vegetables` = '2' AND `vegetables` = '' Does anyone see what I am doing incorrectly? Thanks.

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  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to set the source of Iframe with the help of Ext (JavaScript). My aspx code: <div id="container"> < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" > </iframe> </div> My Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Iframe gets loaded with page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when I refresh the page i.e. in post back event the src attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? If you know the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in advance. Maddy.

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  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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