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• Connection reset when calling disconnect() using enterprisedt's ftp java framework

  - by Frederik Wordenskjold

  I'm having trouble disconnecting from a ftp-server, using the enterprisedt java ftp framework. I can simply not call disconnect() on a FileTransferClient object without getting an error. I do not do anything, besides connecting to the server, and then disconnecting: // create client log.info("Creating FTP client"); ftp = new FileTransferClient(); // set remote host log.info("Setting remote host"); ftp.setRemoteHost(host); ftp.setUserName(username); ftp.setPassword(password); // connect to the server log.info("Connecting to server " + host); ftp.connect(); log.info("Connected and logged in to server " + host); // Shut down client log.info("Quitting client"); ftp.disconnect(); log.info("Example complete"); When running this, the log reads: INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.216 : Creating FTP client INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.263 : Setting remote host INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.263 : Connecting to server x INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.979 : Connected and logged in to server x INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.979 : Quitting client ERROR [FTPControlSocket] 28 maj 2010 16:57:21.026 : Read failed ('' read so far) And the stacktrace: com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.ControlChannelIOException: Connection reset at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.readLine(FTPControlSocket.java:1029) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.readReply(FTPControlSocket.java:1089) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.sendCommand(FTPControlSocket.java:988) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPClient.quit(FTPClient.java:4044) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FileTransferClient.disconnect(FileTransferClient.java:1034) at test.main(test.java:46) It should be noted, that I without problems can connect, and do stuff with the server, like getting a list of files in the current working directory. But I cant, for some reason, disconnect! I've tried using both active and passive mode. The above example is by the way copy/pasted from their own example. I cannot fint ANYTHING related to this by doing a Google-search, so I was hoping you have any suggestions, or experience with this issue.

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• Resolving Circular References for Objects Implementing ISerializable

  - by Chris

  I'm writing my own IFormatter implementation and I cannot think of a way to resolve circular references between two types that both implement ISerializable. Here's the usual pattern: [Serializable] class Foo : ISerializable { private Bar m_bar; public Foo(Bar bar) { m_bar = bar; m_bar.Foo = this; } public Bar Bar { get { return m_bar; } } protected Foo(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_bar = (Bar)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Bar)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_bar); } } [Serializable] class Bar : ISerializable { private Foo m_foo; public Foo Foo { get { return m_foo; } set { m_foo = value; } } public Bar() { } protected Bar(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_foo = (Foo)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Foo)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_foo); } } I then do this: Bar b = new Bar(); Foo f = new Foo(b); bool equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); // true // Serialise and deserialise b equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); If I use an out-of-the-box BinaryFormatter to serialise and deserialise b, the above test for reference-equality returns true as one would expect. But I cannot conceive of a way to achieve this in my custom IFormatter. In a non-ISerializable situation I can simply revisit "pending" object fields using reflection once the target references have been resolved. But for objects implementing ISerializable it is not possible to inject new data using SerializationInfo. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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• Data Access Layer, Best Practices

  - by labratmatt

  I'm looking for input on the best way to refactor the data access layer (DAL) in my PHP based web app. I follow an MVC pattern: PHP/HTML/CSS/etc. views on the front end, PHP controllers/services in the middle, and a PHP DAL sitting on top of a relational database in the model. Pretty standard stuff. Things are working fine, but my DAL is getting large (codesmell?) and becoming a bit unwieldy. My DAL contains almost all of the logic to interface with my database and is full of functions that look like this: function getUser($user_id) { $statement = "select id, name from users where user_id=:user_id"; PDO builds statement and fetchs results as an array return $array_of_results_generated_by_PDO_fetch_method; } Notes: The logic in my controller only interacts with the model using functions like the above in the DAL I am not using a framework (I'm of the opinion that PHP is a templating language and there's no need to inject complexity via a framework) I generally use PHP as a procedural language and tend to shy away from its OOP approach (I enjoy OOP development but prefer to keep that complexity out of PHP) What approaches have you taken when your DAL has reached this point? Do I have a fundamental design problem? Do I simply need to chop my DAL into a number of smaller files (logically divide it)? Thanks.

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• Is it immoral to write crappy code even if readability and correctness is not a requirement?

  - by mafutrct

  There are cases when crappy (i.e. unreadable and buggy) code is not much of a problem. For instance, imagine you need to generate a big text file that mostly follows a simple pattern with a few very complex exceptions. What do you do? You quickly write a simple algorithm and insert the exceptional bits in the output manually to save 4 hours. The code is unreadable, and the output is flawed, but it's still the correct way since it is way faster. But let's get this straight: I hate bad code. I've had to read and work with code that caused my stomach to hurt. I care a lot about good code. And actually, I caught myself thinking that it is immoral to write bad code even though the dirty approach is sometimes superior. I was surprised by myself and found my idea to be very irrational. Did you ever experience this? Should I just get rid of this stupid idea and use the most efficient approach to coding?

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• SharePoint Visual web part and Oracle connection problem

  - by Rishi

  Hi, I'm trying to build a "visual web part" for SharePoint 2010 which should connect to Oracle table and display records on SharePoint page.For development, Oracle 11g client (with ODP.net) ,SharePoint server 2010, Visual Studio 2010 and Oracle 10g express all running on my machine. First,I've written sample code in ASP.NET web app to connect my local Oracle table and display data in grid view and it works fine. My code is , OracleConnection con; try { // Connect string constr = "Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS_LIST=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=localhost)(PORT=1521)))(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVER=DEDICATED)(SERVICE_NAME=XE)));User Id=SYSTEM; Password=password"; con = new OracleConnection(constr); //Open database connection con.Open(); // Execute a SQL SELECT OracleCommand cmd = new OracleCommand("select * from T_ACTIONPOINTS WHERE AP_STATUS='Active' ", con); OracleDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); GridView.DataSource = dr; GridView.DataBind(); GridView.AllowPaging = true; } catch (Exception e) { lblError.Text = e.Message; } Now, I'm trying to create new "SharePoint" visual web part project and using same code and deploying it on my local SP server. But when it runs , I get following error here is my solution explorer, It looks something wrong in compatibility.Can someone point me in right direction ?

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• Correct way to trigger object clone/memento when property changes

  - by Jay

  Hi, I have a big doubt about the correct way to save an object state (clone object), if necessary to rollback the changes, when a property has changed. I know that the IEditableObject interface exists for those cases but during some tests the BeginEdit would just fire like crazy (I have a DataGrid whose values can be edited but I won't need to keep the state of the object in these cases). I'm following the MVP design pattern in my project and the view's DataContext is a wrapper of my presenter.Let's say I have a CheckBox/TextBox in my UI and when that textbox's value changes, the property bound in the wrapper gets set.Currently, before setting the new value i'm raising an event to the presenter (something like PropertyChanging) that clones my wrapper. I'm doing this because I don't think that job should be done by the wrapper itself but by the presenter.Is this a correct approach? Raising the event is an acceptable solution? I thought of other possible ideas: Interface between presenter and wrapper; Use explicit binding and trigger the binding after saving object's state; What is your opinion about the best way to do this? Should I just keep IEditableObject, is this the best way? Best Regards

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• iPhone: contentInset isn't animating

  - by Cuzog

  In my app, I have a table view. When the user clicks a button, a UIView overlays part of that table view. It's essentially a partial modal. That table view is intentionally still scrollable while that modal is active. To allow the user to scroll to the bottom of the table view, I change the contentInset and scrollIndicatorInsets values to adjust for the smaller area above the modal. When the modal is taken away, I reset those inset values. The problem is that when the user has scrolled to the bottom of the newly adjusted inset and then dismisses the modal, the table view jumps abruptly to a new scroll position because the inset is changed instantly. I would like to animate it so there is a transition, but the beginAnimation/commitAnimations methods aren't affecting it for some reason. Any ideas as to why the values aren't getting animated? Any help is greatly appreciated! The relevant code from the table view controller is here: - (void)viewDidLoad { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(modalOpened) name:@"ModalStartedOpening" object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(modalDismissed) name:@"ModalStartedClosing" object:nil]; [super viewDidLoad]; } - (void)modalOpened { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 201, 0); self.tableView.scrollIndicatorInsets = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 201, 0); [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)modalDismissed { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 0, 0); self.tableView.scrollIndicatorInsets = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 0, 0); [UIView commitAnimations]; }

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• filterSecurityInterceptor and metadatasource implementation spring-security

  - by Mike

  Hi! I created a class that implements the FilterInvocationSecurityMetadataSource interface. I implemented it like this: public List<ConfigAttribute> getAttributes(Object object) { FilterInvocation fi = (FilterInvocation) object; Object principal = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication().getPrincipal(); Long companyId = ((ExtenededUser) principal).getCompany().getId(); String url = fi.getRequestUrl(); // String httpMethod = fi.getRequest().getMethod(); List<ConfigAttribute> attributes = new ArrayList<ConfigAttribute>(); FilterSecurityService service = (FilterSecurityService) SpringBeanFinder.findBean("filterSecurityService"); Collection<Role> roles = service.getRoles(companyId); for (Role role : roles) { for (View view : role.getViews()) { if (view.getUrl().equalsIgnoreCase(url)) attributes.add(new SecurityConfig(role.getName() + "_" + role.getCompany().getName())); } } return attributes; } when I debug my application I see it reaches this class, it only reaches getAllConfigAttributes method, that is empty as I said, and return null. after that it prints this warning: Could not validate configuration attributes as the SecurityMetadataSource did not return any attributes from getAllConfigAttributes(). My aplicationContext- security is like this: <beans:bean id="filterChainProxy" class="org.springframework.security.web.FilterChainProxy"> <filter-chain-map path-type="ant"> <filter-chain filters="sif,filterSecurityInterceptor" pattern="/**" /> </filter-chain-map> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityInterceptor" class="org.springframework.security.web.access.intercept.FilterSecurityInterceptor"> <beans:property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> <beans:property name="accessDecisionManager" ref="accessDecisionManager" /> <beans:property name="securityMetadataSource" ref="filterSecurityMetadataSource" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityMetadataSource" class="com.mycompany.filter.FilterSecurityMetadataSource"> </beans:bean> what could be the problem?

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• C#: Why am I still getting an RCW error when exiting my application?

  - by shifuimam

  To be specific, the error is: An attempt has been made to free an RCW that is in use. The RCW is in use on the active thread or another thread. Attempting to free an in-use RCW can cause corruption or data loss. The application in question is a small applet that displays the current clock speed of the CPU as a system tray icon. I'm using a System.Timers.Timer object to refresh the systray icon at an interval of 2.5 seconds. There's a single context menu item to exit the application, which uses the following function to unload everything: public void ExitApp(object sender, EventArgs e) { //stop and disable the timer theInterval.Stop(); theInterval.Enabled = false; //unload the system tray icon TheIcon.Visible = false; //exit the application Application.Exit(); } If I take out everything but Application.Exit(); I get an RCW error and the systray icon doesn't go away until I mouse over it. Everything was working perfectly until I changed the window style of the hidden form used to initialize the systray icon and the timer. If it helps any, I'm using C# 2010 Express.

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• Word VBA - Find text between delimiters and convert to lower case

  - by jJack

  I would like to find text which is between the < and characters, and then turn any found text into "normal" case, where first letter of word is capitalized. Here is what I have thus far: Function findTextBetweenCarots() As String Dim strText As String With Selection .Find.Text = "<" ' what about <[^0-9]+> ? .Find.Forward = True .Find.Wrap = wdFindContinue End With Selection.Find.Execute ' Application.Selection. ' how do I get the text between the other ">"? findCarotSymb = Application.Selection.Text End Function Or, is there a better way of doing this? I also approached the problem using the VBScript Regex 5.5 library, which worked on simple documents, but not on certain documents with complex tables. For example, trying to just bold the text (for simplicity): Sub BoldUpperCaseWords() Dim regEx, Match, Matches Dim rngRange As Range Set regEx = New RegExp regEx.Pattern = "<[^0-9]+>" regEx.IgnoreCase = False regEx.Global = True Set Matches = regEx.Execute(ActiveDocument.Range.Text) For Each Match In Matches ActiveDocument.Range(Match.FirstIndex, Match.FirstIndex + Len(Match.Value)).Bold = True Next End Sub would not work in a document with tables. In fact, it would not even bold the correct text (the text between the <. This leads me to believe I have a broader issue here that I am missing. Here is what a sample doc looks like. Notice the wrong text is bold:

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• What is the best way to handle autorotation with multiple subview?

  - by thangnguyen

  I am learning and programing an application. I do this project based on what I learned from the book Beginning iphone 3 development. I have two main questions here: I would like to create a multi utility application so I need multiple-view. I have a main view controller which will control switching between views. In this example I have two views A and B. I have 2 view controller A and B which will handles all of events on these 2 views. I have 2 nib files viewA.xib and viewB.xib. One of the uitility is reading PDF. So I create another class which handle the PDF file which can load a PDF page call PDFview. From Interface Builder, I selected class identity for view of the viewB.xib as PDFView class. The result is I can switching between View A and view B. View B will display the content of the PDF page. I am not sure if my solution is right or wrong but now I don't know how to handle the autorotation. The rotation will active the view controller B. But the PDFView handle how to display the PDF on the View. Could you please tell me how I should handle this in a right way? Second question: Should I create the subview automatically? In case I need to do the swipe page animation, how can I do that? I think that I need to load another subview so I can do the animation when swap view. But I think this solution will waste the resource. I can just load another page of the PDF, but in this case I don't know how to use animation? Please tell me how I should solve this? I highly appreciate your time reading and answering my question. Thang Nguyen

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• Need some advice on Core Data modeling strategy

  - by Andy

  I'm working on an iPhone app and need a little advice on modeling the Core Data schema. My idea is a utility that allows the user to speed-dial their contacts using user-created rules based on the time of day. In other words, I would tell the app that my wife is commuting from 6am to 7am, at work from 7am to 4pm, commuting from 4pm to 5pm, and home from 5pm to 6am, Monday through Friday. Then, when I tap her name in my app, it would select the number to dial based on the current day and time. I have the user interface nearly complete (thanks in no small part to help I've received here), but now I've got some questions regarding the persistent store. The user can select start- and stop-times in 5-minute increments. This means there are 2,016 possible "time slots" in week (7 days * 24 hours * 12 5-minute intervals per hour). I see a few options for setting this up. Option #1: One array of time slots, with 2,016 entries. Each entry would be a dictionary containing a contact identifier and an associated phone number to dial. I think this means I'd need a "Contact" entity to store the contact information, and a "TimeSlot" entity for each of the 2,016 possible time slots. Option #2: Each Contact has its own array of time slots, each with 2,016 entries. Each array entry would simply be a string indicating which phone number to dial. Option #3: Each Contact has a dictionary of time slots. An entry would only be added to the dictionary for time slots with an active rule. If a search for, say, time slot 1,299 (Friday 12:15pm) didn't find a key @"1299" in the dictionary, then a default number would be dialed instead. I'm not sure any of these is the "right" way or the "best" way. I'm not even sure I need to use Core Data to manage it; maybe just saving arrays would be simpler. Any input you can offer would be appreciated.

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• Can I spead out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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• Django LFS - custom views

  - by owca

  For all those ligthning fast shop users. I'm trying to implement my own first page view that will list all products from shop ( under '/' address). So I have a template : {% extends "lfs/shop/shop_base.html" %} {% block content %} <div id="najnowsze_produkty"> <ul> {% for obj in objects %} <li> {{ obj.name }} </li> {% endfor %} </ul> </div> {% endblock %} and then I've edited main shop view : from lfs.catalog.models import Category from lfs.catalog.models import Product def shop_view(request, template_name="lfs/shop/shop.html"): products = Product.objects.all() shop = lfs_get_object_or_404(Shop, pk=1) return render_to_response(template_name, RequestContext(request, { "shop" : shop, "products" : products })) but it just shows nothing. When I do Product.objects.all() query in shell I get results. Any ideas what could cause the problem ? Maybe I should filter products with 'active' status only ? But I'm not sure if it can influence all objects in any way.

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• Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

  - by David Jeske

  .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

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• Most efficient way to check for DBNull and then assign to a variable?

  - by ilitirit

  This question comes up occasionally but I haven't seen a satisfactory answer. A typical pattern is (row is a DataRow): if (row["value"] != DBNull.Value) { someObject.Member = row["value"]; } My first question is which is more efficient (I've flipped the condition): row["value"] == DBNull.Value; // Or row["value"] is DBNull; // Or row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull) // Or... any suggestions? This indicates that .GetType() should be faster, but maybe the compiler knows a few tricks I don't? Second question, is it worth caching the value of row["value"] or does the compiler optimize the indexer away anyway? eg. object valueHolder; if (DBNull.Value == (valueHolder = row["value"])) {} Disclaimers: row["value"] exists. I don't know the column index of the column (hence the column name lookup) I'm asking specifically about checking for DBNull and then assignment (not about premature optimization etc). Edit: I benchmarked a few scenarios (time in seconds, 10000000 trials): row["value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:01.5478995 row["value"] is DBNull: 00:00:01.6306578 row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull): 00:00:02.0138757 Object.ReferenceEquals has the same performance as "==" The most interesting result? If you mismatch the name of the column by case (eg. "Value" instead of "value", it takes roughly ten times longer (for a string): row["Value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:12.2792374 The moral of the story seems to be that if you can't look up a column by it's index, then ensure that the column name you feed to the indexer matches the DataColumn's name exactly. Caching the value also appears to be nearly twice as fast: No Caching: 00:00:03.0996622 With Caching: 00:00:01.5659920 So the most efficient method seems to be: object temp; string variable; if (DBNull.Value != (temp = row["value"]) { variable = temp.ToString(); } This was a good learning experience.

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• Problem executing script using Python and subprocces.call yet works in Bash

  - by Antoine Benkemoun

  Hello, For the first time, I am asking a little bit of help over here as I am more of a ServerFault person. I am doing some scripting in Python and I've been loving the language so far yet I have this little problem which is keeping my script from working. Here is the code line in question : subprocess.call('xen-create-image --hostname '+nom+' --memory '+memory+' --partitions=/root/scripts/part.tmp --ip '+ip+' --netmask '+netmask+' --gateway '+gateway+' --passwd',shell=True) I have tried the same thing with os.popen. All the variables are correctly set. When I execute the command in question in my regular Linux shell, it works perfectly fine but when I execute it using my Python scripts, I get bizarre errors. I even replaced subprocess.call() by the print function to make sure I am using the exact output of the command. I went looking into environment variables of my shell but they are pretty much the same... I'll post the error I am getting but I'm not sure it's relevant to my problem. Use of uninitialized value $lines[0] in substitution (s///) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 614. Use of uninitialized value $_ in pattern match (m//) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 628. I am not a Python expert so I'm most likely missing something here. Thank you in advance for your help, Antoine

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• Emacs key binding fallback

  - by rejeep

  Hey, I have a minor mode. If that mode is active and the user hits DEL, I want to do some action, but only if some condition holds. If the condition holds and the action is executed I want to do nothing more after that. But if the condition fails, I don't want to do anything and let the default DEL action execute. Not sure how I could solve this. But I guess I could do it in two ways: 1) I could rebind the DEL key to a function in the minor mode and then check if the conditions holds ot not. But then how do I know what the default command to DEL is? 2) I could add a pre command hook like this. Execute the command and then break the chain. But how do I break the chain? (add-hook 'pre-command-hook (lambda() (when (equal last-input-event 'backspace) ;; Do something and then stop (do not execute the ;; command that backspace is bound to) ))) In what way would you solve it? Thanks!

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• model view controller question

  - by songBong

  Hi, I've been working on my iphone game recently and came across a forked road when deciding the design of my various classes. So far I've adhered to the MVC pattern but the following situation had me confused: I have 4 buttons displayed visually. Each button though consists of a container UIView (which I've subclassed) and 2 UIButtons (also subclassed) as subviews. When you press a button, it does the flip effect plus other stuff. The user input is using target-action from my container UIView to my controller. This part is ok, the following part is the debatable part: So I've subclassed the container view as well as the UIButtons and I need to add more data/methods (somewhere) to do more things. Putting data that needs to be serialized and non-rendering related code in the view classes seems to break the MVC design but at the moment, it makes the most sense to me to put it there. It's almost like my subclassed views are their own little MVC's and it seems neat. Separating out the data/methods from the view to my main controller in this case seems unnecessary and a more work. How should I be doing it? Thanks heaps.

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• Applescript from Mac App says "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."

  - by Rasmus Styrk

  I am trying to perform a copy/paste for my to the the last active app, here's my code: NSString *appleScriptSource = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"\ntell application \"%@\" to activate\ntell application \"System Events\" to tell process \"%@\"\nkeystroke \"v\" using command down\nend tell", [lastApp localizedName], [lastApp localizedName]]; NSDictionary *error; NSAppleScript *aScript = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:appleScriptSource]; NSAppleEventDescriptor *aDescriptor = [aScript executeAndReturnError:&error]; The problem is that on some computers it works just fine, but on others it fails. My error output from error that is returned by executeAndReturnError is: 2012-06-13 17:43:19.875 Mini Translator[1206:303] (null) (error: { NSAppleScriptErrorBriefMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorNumber = "-2741"; NSAppleScriptErrorRange = "NSRange: {95, 1}"; }) I can't seem to figure out what it means or why it happens. We tried copying the generated apple-script code into the Apple Script editor, and here it works just fine. My App is sandboxed - i have added the bundle identifiers for the key "com.apple.security.temporary-exception.apple-events" for the apps i want to support. Any suggestions?

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• Linq to SQL generates StackOverflowException in tight Insert loop

  - by ChrisW

  I'm parsing an XML file and inserting the rows into a table (and related tables) using LinqToSQL. I parse the XML file using LinqToXml into IEnumerable. Then, I create a foreach loop, where I build my LinqToSQL objects and call InsertOnSubmit and SubmitChanges at the end of each loop. Nothing special here. Usually, I make it through around 4,100 records before receiving a StackOverflowException from LinqToSql, right as I call SubmitChanges. It's not always on 4,100... sometimes it's 4102, sometimes, less, etc. I've tried inserting the records that generate the failure individually, but putting them in their own Xml file, but that inserts fine... so it's not the data. I'm running the whole process from an MVC2 app that is uploading the Xml file to the server. I've adjusted my WebRequest timeouts to appropriate values, and again, I'm not getting timeout errors, just StackOverflowExceptions. So is there some pattern that I should follow for times when I have to do many insertions into the database? I never encounter this exception on smaller Xml files, just larger ones.

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• Excel VBA SQL Import

  - by user307655

  Hi All, I have the following code which imports data from a spreadsheet to SQL directly from Excel VBA. The code works great. However I am wondering if somebody can help me modify the code to: 1) Check if data from column A already exists in the SQL Table 2) If exists, then only update rather than import as a new role 3) if does not exist then import as a new role. Thanks again for your help Sub SQLIM() ' Send data to SQL Server ' This code loads data from an Excel Worksheet to an SQL Server Table ' Data should start in column A and should be in the same order as the server table ' Autonumber fields should NOT be included' ' FOR THIS CODE TO WORK ' In VBE you need to go Tools References and check Microsoft Active X Data Objects 2.x library Dim Cn As ADODB.Connection Dim ServerName As String Dim DatabaseName As String Dim TableName As String Dim UserID As String Dim Password As String Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim RowCounter As Long Dim ColCounter As Integer Dim NoOfFields As Integer Dim StartRow As Long Dim EndRow As Long Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset ServerName = "WIN764X\sqlexpress" ' Enter your server name here DatabaseName = "two28it" ' Enter your database name here TableName = "COS" ' Enter your Table name here UserID = "" ' Enter your user ID here ' (Leave ID and Password blank if using windows Authentification") Password = "" ' Enter your password here NoOfFields = 7 ' Enter number of fields to update (eg. columns in your worksheet) StartRow = 2 ' Enter row in sheet to start reading records EndRow = shtSheetToWork.Cells(Rows.Count, 1).End(xlUp).Row ' Enter row of last record in sheet ' CHANGES ' Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet ' Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") '** Set Cn = New ADODB.Connection Cn.Open "Driver={SQL Server};Server=" & ServerName & ";Database=" & DatabaseName & _ ";Uid=" & UserID & ";Pwd=" & Password & ";" rs.Open TableName, Cn, adOpenKeyset, adLockOptimistic For RowCounter = StartRow To EndRow rs.AddNew For ColCounter = 1 To NoOfFields rs(ColCounter - 1) = shtSheetToWork.Cells(RowCounter, ColCounter) Next ColCounter Next RowCounter rs.UpdateBatch ' Tidy up rs.Close Set rs = Nothing Cn.Close Set Cn = Nothing End Sub

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• reading excel using scriptom for groovy, producing xml

  - by john

  Dear friends, I got a program from http://kousenit.wordpress.com/2007/03/27/groovyness-with-excel-and-xml but I got some very strange results: 1) I can still print xml but two records are not readable. 2) I got exception suggesting some thing missing could some experts enlighten me about what might go wrong? I copied the program and result below. thanks! import org.codehaus.groovy.scriptom.ActiveXObject def addresses = new File('addresses1.xls').canonicalPath def xls = new ActiveXObject('Excel.Application') def workbooks = xls.Workbooks def workbook = workbooks.Open(addresses) // select the active sheet def sheet = workbook.ActiveSheet sheet.Visible = true // get the XML builder ready def builder = new groovy.xml.MarkupBuilder() builder.people { for (row in 2..1000) { def ID = sheet.Range("A${row}").Value.value if (!ID) break // use the builder to write out each person person (id: ID) { name { firstName sheet.Range("B${row}").Value.value lastName sheet.Range("C${row}").Value.value } address { street sheet.Range("D${row}").Value.value city sheet.Range("E${row}").Value.value state sheet.Range("F${row}").Value.value zip sheet.Range("G${row}").Value.value } } } } // close the workbook without asking for saving the file workbook.Close(false, null, false) // quits excel xls.Quit() xls.release() however, i got the following results: <people> <person id='1234.0'> <name> <firstName>[C@128a25</firstName> <lastName>[C@5e45</lastName> </name> <address> <street>[C@179ef7c</street> <city>[C@12f95de</city> <state>[C@138b554</state> <zip>12345.0</zip> </address> </person> </person> Exception thrown May 12, 2010 4:07:15 AM org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.StackTraceUtils sanitize WARNING: Sanitizing stacktrace: java.lang.NullPointerException at org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.callsite.GetEffectivePojoFieldSite.acceptGetProperty(GetEffectivePojoFieldSite.java:43) at org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.callsite.AbstractCallSite.callGetProperty(AbstractCallSite.java:237) at sriptom4_excel$_run_closure1.doCall(sriptom4_excel.groovy:18) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) [1]: http://kousenit.wordpress.com/2007/03/27/groovyness-with-excel-and-xml/

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• jquery slide to attribute with specific data attribute value

  - by Alex M

  Ok, so I have the following nav with absolute urls: <ul class="nav navbar-nav" id="main-menu"> <li class="first active"><a href="http://example.com/" title="Home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="http://example.com/about.html" title="About">About</a></li> <li><a href="http://example.com/portfolio.html" title="Portfolio">Portfolio</a></li> <li class="last"><a href="example.com/contact.html" title="Contact">Contact</a></li> </ul> and then articles with the following data attributes: <article class="row page" id="about" data-url="http://example.com/about.html"> <div class="one"> </div> <div class="two" </div> </article> and when you click the link in the menu I would like to ignore the fact it is a hyperlink and slide to the current article based on its attribute data-url. I started with what I think is the obvious: $('#main-menu li a').on('click', function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var pageUrl = $(this).attr('href'); )}; and have tried find and animate but then I don't know how to reference the article with data-url="http://example.com/about.html". Any help would be most appreciated. Thanks

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• Solution for cleaning an image cache directory on the SD card

  - by synic

  I've got an app that is heavily based on remote images. They are usually displayed alongside some data in a ListView. A lot of these images are new, and a lot of the old ones will never be seen again. I'm currently storing all of these images on the SD card in a custom cache directory (ala evancharlton's magnatune app). I noticed that after about 10 days, the directory totals ~30MB. This is quite a bit more than I expected, and it leads me to believe that I need to come up with a good solution for cleaning out old files... and I just can't think of a great one. Maybe you can help. These are the ideas that I've had: Delete old files. When the app starts, start a background thread, and delete all files older than X days. This seems to pose a problem, though, in that, if the user actively uses the app, this could make the device sluggish if there are hundreds of files to delete. After creating the files on the SD card, call new File("/path/to/file").deleteOnExit(); This will cause all files to be deleted when the VM exits (I don't even know if this method works on Android). This is acceptable, because, even though the files need to be cached for the session, they don't need to be cached for the next session. It seems like this will also slow the device down if there are a lot of files to be deleted when the VM exits. Delete old files, up to a max number of files. Same as #1, but only delete N number of files at a time. I don't really like this idea, and if the user was very active, it may never be able to catch up and keep the cache directory clean. That's about all I've got. Any suggestions would be appreciated.

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