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• Troubleshooting ASP .NET Application on Shared Hosting

  - by James

  Hi, My company has a CRM site hosted externally on a shared server and recently it has been very problematic. Users are being logged out randomly, sometimes only seconds after logging in. We are also getting viewstate validation errors at times. Both problems seem to occur more often when there are two or more people logged in at the same time, but I can't really see any particular pattern. I am using log4net to track the application state and from what I can tell it seems that the application is frequently restarting, causing all sorts of issues. I can see log messages from the Application_Start event handler but there is not always a corresponding message from the Application_End event handler. There is also logging code in the Application_Error event handler but it is not catching anything at the time of the restart. These errors started to occur soon after we moved our site to this shared server, although I don't remember it being this bad at first. Any advice on how to track down these problems would be appreciated. The server is running Windows Server 2003 and IIS 6.0. Sadly I don't have access to the server other than through Parallels Plesk and it doesn't seem to have any useful diagnostic information.

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• Problem with cruise control and visual svn

  - by Andrew

  Hi Wonder if anyone can help, I am experiencing a strange issue with my configuration of cruisecontrol.net and visual svn. I am setting the current ccnet.config <sourcecontrol type="svn"> <trunkUrl>https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk</trunkUrl> <executable>C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe</executable> <username>test</username> <password>test</password> <workingDirectory>D:\Development\Build\application\</workingDirectory> </sourcecontrol> <publishers> <xmllogger/> </publishers> <modificationDelaySeconds>10</modificationDelaySeconds> </project> When I run this I expect it to go to https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk, however i get the following ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.CruiseControlException: Source control operation failed: svn: OPTIONS of 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk': could not connect to server (http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080) . Process command: C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe update D:\Development\build\application\ --username test --password ** --no-auth-cache --non-interactive at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.ProcessSourceControl.Execute(ProcessInfo processInfo) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.Svn.UpdateSource(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Build(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Integrate(IntegrationRequest request) So for some reason it goes to 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk' If I remove the username and password elements in the ccnet.config. It goes to the correct url. I dont understand this behaviour. I have configured visual svn with a certificate using Active directory Certificate Services, if this was the problem I would expect it to show an error regarding the certificate instead of changing the url. I have cleared our state etc Any Ideas

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• When virtual inheritance IS a good design?

  - by 7vies

  EDIT3: Please be sure to clearly understand what I am asking before answering (there are EDIT2 and lots of comments around). There are (or were) many answers which clearly show misunderstanding of the question (I know that's also my fault, sorry for that) Hi, I've looked over the questions on virtual inheritance (class B: public virtual A {...}) in C++, but did not find an answer to my question. I know that there are some issues with virtual inheritance, but what I'd like to know is in which cases virtual inheritance would be considered a good design. I saw people mentioning interfaces like IUnknown or ISerializable, and also that iostream design is based on virtual inheritance. Would those be good examples of a good use of virtual inheritance, is that just because there is no better alternative, or because virtual inheritance is the proper design in this case? Thanks. EDIT: To clarify, I'm asking about real-life examples, please don't give abstract ones. I know what virtual inheritance is and which inheritance pattern requires it, what I want to know is when it is the good way to do things and not just a consequence of complex inheritance. EDIT2: In other words, I want to know when the diamond hierarchy (which is the reason for virtual inheritance) is a good design

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• Serializing MDI Winforms for persistency

  - by Serge

  Hello, basically my project is an MDI Winform application where a user can customize the interface by adding various controls and changing the layout. I would like to be able to save the state of the application for each user. I have done quite a bit of searching and found these: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2076259/how-to-auto-save-and-auto-load-all-properties-in-winforms-c http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1669522/c-save-winform-or-controls-to-file Basically from what I understand, the best approach is to serialize the data to XML, however winform controls are not serializable, so I would have use surrogate classes: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/dotnet/Surrogate_Serialization.aspx Now, do I need to write a surrogate class for each of my controls? I would need to write some sort of a recursive algorithm to save all my controls, what is the best approach to do accomplish that? How would I then restore all the windows, should I use the memento design pattern for that? If I want to implement multiple users later, should I use Nhibernate to store all the object data in a database? I am still trying to wrap my head around the problem and if anyone has any experience or advice I would greatly appreciate it, thanks.

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• Linq to SQL generates StackOverflowException in tight Insert loop

  - by ChrisW

  I'm parsing an XML file and inserting the rows into a table (and related tables) using LinqToSQL. I parse the XML file using LinqToXml into IEnumerable. Then, I create a foreach loop, where I build my LinqToSQL objects and call InsertOnSubmit and SubmitChanges at the end of each loop. Nothing special here. Usually, I make it through around 4,100 records before receiving a StackOverflowException from LinqToSql, right as I call SubmitChanges. It's not always on 4,100... sometimes it's 4102, sometimes, less, etc. I've tried inserting the records that generate the failure individually, but putting them in their own Xml file, but that inserts fine... so it's not the data. I'm running the whole process from an MVC2 app that is uploading the Xml file to the server. I've adjusted my WebRequest timeouts to appropriate values, and again, I'm not getting timeout errors, just StackOverflowExceptions. So is there some pattern that I should follow for times when I have to do many insertions into the database? I never encounter this exception on smaller Xml files, just larger ones.

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• Resolving Circular References for Objects Implementing ISerializable

  - by Chris

  I'm writing my own IFormatter implementation and I cannot think of a way to resolve circular references between two types that both implement ISerializable. Here's the usual pattern: [Serializable] class Foo : ISerializable { private Bar m_bar; public Foo(Bar bar) { m_bar = bar; m_bar.Foo = this; } public Bar Bar { get { return m_bar; } } protected Foo(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_bar = (Bar)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Bar)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_bar); } } [Serializable] class Bar : ISerializable { private Foo m_foo; public Foo Foo { get { return m_foo; } set { m_foo = value; } } public Bar() { } protected Bar(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_foo = (Foo)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Foo)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_foo); } } I then do this: Bar b = new Bar(); Foo f = new Foo(b); bool equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); // true // Serialise and deserialise b equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); If I use an out-of-the-box BinaryFormatter to serialise and deserialise b, the above test for reference-equality returns true as one would expect. But I cannot conceive of a way to achieve this in my custom IFormatter. In a non-ISerializable situation I can simply revisit "pending" object fields using reflection once the target references have been resolved. But for objects implementing ISerializable it is not possible to inject new data using SerializationInfo. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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• Connection reset when calling disconnect() using enterprisedt's ftp java framework

  - by Frederik Wordenskjold

  I'm having trouble disconnecting from a ftp-server, using the enterprisedt java ftp framework. I can simply not call disconnect() on a FileTransferClient object without getting an error. I do not do anything, besides connecting to the server, and then disconnecting: // create client log.info("Creating FTP client"); ftp = new FileTransferClient(); // set remote host log.info("Setting remote host"); ftp.setRemoteHost(host); ftp.setUserName(username); ftp.setPassword(password); // connect to the server log.info("Connecting to server " + host); ftp.connect(); log.info("Connected and logged in to server " + host); // Shut down client log.info("Quitting client"); ftp.disconnect(); log.info("Example complete"); When running this, the log reads: INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.216 : Creating FTP client INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.263 : Setting remote host INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.263 : Connecting to server x INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.979 : Connected and logged in to server x INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.979 : Quitting client ERROR [FTPControlSocket] 28 maj 2010 16:57:21.026 : Read failed ('' read so far) And the stacktrace: com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.ControlChannelIOException: Connection reset at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.readLine(FTPControlSocket.java:1029) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.readReply(FTPControlSocket.java:1089) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.sendCommand(FTPControlSocket.java:988) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPClient.quit(FTPClient.java:4044) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FileTransferClient.disconnect(FileTransferClient.java:1034) at test.main(test.java:46) It should be noted, that I without problems can connect, and do stuff with the server, like getting a list of files in the current working directory. But I cant, for some reason, disconnect! I've tried using both active and passive mode. The above example is by the way copy/pasted from their own example. I cannot fint ANYTHING related to this by doing a Google-search, so I was hoping you have any suggestions, or experience with this issue.

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• What is the best way to handle autorotation with multiple subview?

  - by thangnguyen

  I am learning and programing an application. I do this project based on what I learned from the book Beginning iphone 3 development. I have two main questions here: I would like to create a multi utility application so I need multiple-view. I have a main view controller which will control switching between views. In this example I have two views A and B. I have 2 view controller A and B which will handles all of events on these 2 views. I have 2 nib files viewA.xib and viewB.xib. One of the uitility is reading PDF. So I create another class which handle the PDF file which can load a PDF page call PDFview. From Interface Builder, I selected class identity for view of the viewB.xib as PDFView class. The result is I can switching between View A and view B. View B will display the content of the PDF page. I am not sure if my solution is right or wrong but now I don't know how to handle the autorotation. The rotation will active the view controller B. But the PDFView handle how to display the PDF on the View. Could you please tell me how I should handle this in a right way? Second question: Should I create the subview automatically? In case I need to do the swipe page animation, how can I do that? I think that I need to load another subview so I can do the animation when swap view. But I think this solution will waste the resource. I can just load another page of the PDF, but in this case I don't know how to use animation? Please tell me how I should solve this? I highly appreciate your time reading and answering my question. Thang Nguyen

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• Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

  - by David Jeske

  .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

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• iPhone: contentInset isn't animating

  - by Cuzog

  In my app, I have a table view. When the user clicks a button, a UIView overlays part of that table view. It's essentially a partial modal. That table view is intentionally still scrollable while that modal is active. To allow the user to scroll to the bottom of the table view, I change the contentInset and scrollIndicatorInsets values to adjust for the smaller area above the modal. When the modal is taken away, I reset those inset values. The problem is that when the user has scrolled to the bottom of the newly adjusted inset and then dismisses the modal, the table view jumps abruptly to a new scroll position because the inset is changed instantly. I would like to animate it so there is a transition, but the beginAnimation/commitAnimations methods aren't affecting it for some reason. Any ideas as to why the values aren't getting animated? Any help is greatly appreciated! The relevant code from the table view controller is here: - (void)viewDidLoad { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(modalOpened) name:@"ModalStartedOpening" object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(modalDismissed) name:@"ModalStartedClosing" object:nil]; [super viewDidLoad]; } - (void)modalOpened { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 201, 0); self.tableView.scrollIndicatorInsets = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 201, 0); [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)modalDismissed { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 0, 0); self.tableView.scrollIndicatorInsets = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 0, 0); [UIView commitAnimations]; }

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• DDD: Persisting aggregates

  - by Mosh

  Hello, Let's consider the typical Order and OrderItem example. Assuming that OrderItem is part of the Order Aggregate, it an only be added via Order. So, to add a new OrderItem to an Order, we have to load the entire Aggregate via Repository, add a new item to the Order object and persist the entire Aggregate again. This seems to have a lot of overhead. What if our Order has 10 OrderItems? This way, just to add a new OrderItem, not only do we have to read 10 OrderItems, but we should also re-insert all these 10 OrderItems again. (This is the approach that Jimmy Nillson has taken in his DDD book. Everytime he wants to persists an Aggregate, he clears all the child objects, and then re-inserts them again. This can cause other issues as the ID of the children are changed everytime because of the IDENTITY column in database.) I know some people may suggest to apply Unit of Work pattern at the Aggregate Root so it keeps track of what has been changed and only commit those changes. But this violates Persistence Ignorance (PI) principle because persistence logic is leaking into the Domain Model. Has anyone thought about this before? Mosh

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• Emacs key binding fallback

  - by rejeep

  Hey, I have a minor mode. If that mode is active and the user hits DEL, I want to do some action, but only if some condition holds. If the condition holds and the action is executed I want to do nothing more after that. But if the condition fails, I don't want to do anything and let the default DEL action execute. Not sure how I could solve this. But I guess I could do it in two ways: 1) I could rebind the DEL key to a function in the minor mode and then check if the conditions holds ot not. But then how do I know what the default command to DEL is? 2) I could add a pre command hook like this. Execute the command and then break the chain. But how do I break the chain? (add-hook 'pre-command-hook (lambda() (when (equal last-input-event 'backspace) ;; Do something and then stop (do not execute the ;; command that backspace is bound to) ))) In what way would you solve it? Thanks!

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• Problem executing script using Python and subprocces.call yet works in Bash

  - by Antoine Benkemoun

  Hello, For the first time, I am asking a little bit of help over here as I am more of a ServerFault person. I am doing some scripting in Python and I've been loving the language so far yet I have this little problem which is keeping my script from working. Here is the code line in question : subprocess.call('xen-create-image --hostname '+nom+' --memory '+memory+' --partitions=/root/scripts/part.tmp --ip '+ip+' --netmask '+netmask+' --gateway '+gateway+' --passwd',shell=True) I have tried the same thing with os.popen. All the variables are correctly set. When I execute the command in question in my regular Linux shell, it works perfectly fine but when I execute it using my Python scripts, I get bizarre errors. I even replaced subprocess.call() by the print function to make sure I am using the exact output of the command. I went looking into environment variables of my shell but they are pretty much the same... I'll post the error I am getting but I'm not sure it's relevant to my problem. Use of uninitialized value $lines[0] in substitution (s///) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 614. Use of uninitialized value $_ in pattern match (m//) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 628. I am not a Python expert so I'm most likely missing something here. Thank you in advance for your help, Antoine

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• Can I spead out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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• Django LFS - custom views

  - by owca

  For all those ligthning fast shop users. I'm trying to implement my own first page view that will list all products from shop ( under '/' address). So I have a template : {% extends "lfs/shop/shop_base.html" %} {% block content %} <div id="najnowsze_produkty"> <ul> {% for obj in objects %} <li> {{ obj.name }} </li> {% endfor %} </ul> </div> {% endblock %} and then I've edited main shop view : from lfs.catalog.models import Category from lfs.catalog.models import Product def shop_view(request, template_name="lfs/shop/shop.html"): products = Product.objects.all() shop = lfs_get_object_or_404(Shop, pk=1) return render_to_response(template_name, RequestContext(request, { "shop" : shop, "products" : products })) but it just shows nothing. When I do Product.objects.all() query in shell I get results. Any ideas what could cause the problem ? Maybe I should filter products with 'active' status only ? But I'm not sure if it can influence all objects in any way.

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• SharePoint Visual web part and Oracle connection problem

  - by Rishi

  Hi, I'm trying to build a "visual web part" for SharePoint 2010 which should connect to Oracle table and display records on SharePoint page.For development, Oracle 11g client (with ODP.net) ,SharePoint server 2010, Visual Studio 2010 and Oracle 10g express all running on my machine. First,I've written sample code in ASP.NET web app to connect my local Oracle table and display data in grid view and it works fine. My code is , OracleConnection con; try { // Connect string constr = "Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS_LIST=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=localhost)(PORT=1521)))(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVER=DEDICATED)(SERVICE_NAME=XE)));User Id=SYSTEM; Password=password"; con = new OracleConnection(constr); //Open database connection con.Open(); // Execute a SQL SELECT OracleCommand cmd = new OracleCommand("select * from T_ACTIONPOINTS WHERE AP_STATUS='Active' ", con); OracleDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); GridView.DataSource = dr; GridView.DataBind(); GridView.AllowPaging = true; } catch (Exception e) { lblError.Text = e.Message; } Now, I'm trying to create new "SharePoint" visual web part project and using same code and deploying it on my local SP server. But when it runs , I get following error here is my solution explorer, It looks something wrong in compatibility.Can someone point me in right direction ?

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• Most efficient way to check for DBNull and then assign to a variable?

  - by ilitirit

  This question comes up occasionally but I haven't seen a satisfactory answer. A typical pattern is (row is a DataRow): if (row["value"] != DBNull.Value) { someObject.Member = row["value"]; } My first question is which is more efficient (I've flipped the condition): row["value"] == DBNull.Value; // Or row["value"] is DBNull; // Or row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull) // Or... any suggestions? This indicates that .GetType() should be faster, but maybe the compiler knows a few tricks I don't? Second question, is it worth caching the value of row["value"] or does the compiler optimize the indexer away anyway? eg. object valueHolder; if (DBNull.Value == (valueHolder = row["value"])) {} Disclaimers: row["value"] exists. I don't know the column index of the column (hence the column name lookup) I'm asking specifically about checking for DBNull and then assignment (not about premature optimization etc). Edit: I benchmarked a few scenarios (time in seconds, 10000000 trials): row["value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:01.5478995 row["value"] is DBNull: 00:00:01.6306578 row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull): 00:00:02.0138757 Object.ReferenceEquals has the same performance as "==" The most interesting result? If you mismatch the name of the column by case (eg. "Value" instead of "value", it takes roughly ten times longer (for a string): row["Value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:12.2792374 The moral of the story seems to be that if you can't look up a column by it's index, then ensure that the column name you feed to the indexer matches the DataColumn's name exactly. Caching the value also appears to be nearly twice as fast: No Caching: 00:00:03.0996622 With Caching: 00:00:01.5659920 So the most efficient method seems to be: object temp; string variable; if (DBNull.Value != (temp = row["value"]) { variable = temp.ToString(); } This was a good learning experience.

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• jQuery Tools alert works once (but only once)

  - by Jim Miller

  I'm trying to build a simple alert mechanism with jQuery Tools -- in response to a bit of Javascript code, pop up an overlay with a message and an OK button that, when clicked, makes the overlay go away. Trivial, or it should be. I've been slavishly following http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/trigger.html, and have something that works fine the first time it's invoked, but only that time. If I repeat the JS action that should expose the overlay, it doesn't. My content/DIV: <div class='modal' id='the_alert'> <div id='modal_content' class='modal_content'> <h2>hi there</h2> this is the body <p> <button class='close'>OK</button> </p> </div> <div id='modal_background' class='modal_background'><img src='/images/overlay/f9f9f9-180.png' class='stretch' alt='' /></div> </div> and the Javascript: function showOverlayDialog() { $('#the_alert').overlay({ mask: {color: '#cccccc', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.9}, closeOnClick: false, load: true }); } As I said: When showOverlayDialog() is invoked the first time, the overlay appears just like it should, and goes away when the "OK" button is clicked. But if I cause showOverlayDialog() to run again, without reloading the page, nothing happens. If I reload the page, then the pattern repeats -- the first invocation brings up the overlay, but the second one doesn't. I'm obviously missing something -- any advice out there? Thanks!

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• filterSecurityInterceptor and metadatasource implementation spring-security

  - by Mike

  Hi! I created a class that implements the FilterInvocationSecurityMetadataSource interface. I implemented it like this: public List<ConfigAttribute> getAttributes(Object object) { FilterInvocation fi = (FilterInvocation) object; Object principal = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication().getPrincipal(); Long companyId = ((ExtenededUser) principal).getCompany().getId(); String url = fi.getRequestUrl(); // String httpMethod = fi.getRequest().getMethod(); List<ConfigAttribute> attributes = new ArrayList<ConfigAttribute>(); FilterSecurityService service = (FilterSecurityService) SpringBeanFinder.findBean("filterSecurityService"); Collection<Role> roles = service.getRoles(companyId); for (Role role : roles) { for (View view : role.getViews()) { if (view.getUrl().equalsIgnoreCase(url)) attributes.add(new SecurityConfig(role.getName() + "_" + role.getCompany().getName())); } } return attributes; } when I debug my application I see it reaches this class, it only reaches getAllConfigAttributes method, that is empty as I said, and return null. after that it prints this warning: Could not validate configuration attributes as the SecurityMetadataSource did not return any attributes from getAllConfigAttributes(). My aplicationContext- security is like this: <beans:bean id="filterChainProxy" class="org.springframework.security.web.FilterChainProxy"> <filter-chain-map path-type="ant"> <filter-chain filters="sif,filterSecurityInterceptor" pattern="/**" /> </filter-chain-map> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityInterceptor" class="org.springframework.security.web.access.intercept.FilterSecurityInterceptor"> <beans:property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> <beans:property name="accessDecisionManager" ref="accessDecisionManager" /> <beans:property name="securityMetadataSource" ref="filterSecurityMetadataSource" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityMetadataSource" class="com.mycompany.filter.FilterSecurityMetadataSource"> </beans:bean> what could be the problem?

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• jquery slide to attribute with specific data attribute value

  - by Alex M

  Ok, so I have the following nav with absolute urls: <ul class="nav navbar-nav" id="main-menu"> <li class="first active"><a href="http://example.com/" title="Home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="http://example.com/about.html" title="About">About</a></li> <li><a href="http://example.com/portfolio.html" title="Portfolio">Portfolio</a></li> <li class="last"><a href="example.com/contact.html" title="Contact">Contact</a></li> </ul> and then articles with the following data attributes: <article class="row page" id="about" data-url="http://example.com/about.html"> <div class="one"> </div> <div class="two" </div> </article> and when you click the link in the menu I would like to ignore the fact it is a hyperlink and slide to the current article based on its attribute data-url. I started with what I think is the obvious: $('#main-menu li a').on('click', function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var pageUrl = $(this).attr('href'); )}; and have tried find and animate but then I don't know how to reference the article with data-url="http://example.com/about.html". Any help would be most appreciated. Thanks

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• Applescript from Mac App says "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."

  - by Rasmus Styrk

  I am trying to perform a copy/paste for my to the the last active app, here's my code: NSString *appleScriptSource = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"\ntell application \"%@\" to activate\ntell application \"System Events\" to tell process \"%@\"\nkeystroke \"v\" using command down\nend tell", [lastApp localizedName], [lastApp localizedName]]; NSDictionary *error; NSAppleScript *aScript = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:appleScriptSource]; NSAppleEventDescriptor *aDescriptor = [aScript executeAndReturnError:&error]; The problem is that on some computers it works just fine, but on others it fails. My error output from error that is returned by executeAndReturnError is: 2012-06-13 17:43:19.875 Mini Translator[1206:303] (null) (error: { NSAppleScriptErrorBriefMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorNumber = "-2741"; NSAppleScriptErrorRange = "NSRange: {95, 1}"; }) I can't seem to figure out what it means or why it happens. We tried copying the generated apple-script code into the Apple Script editor, and here it works just fine. My App is sandboxed - i have added the bundle identifiers for the key "com.apple.security.temporary-exception.apple-events" for the apps i want to support. Any suggestions?

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• jquery validate not submitting after modal close bootstrap

  - by Mariana Hernandez

  I have a modal where i insert some data, but when i open the modal, close it, and the click the modal show button again, it doesnt submit of course because the validate is "acting" in the modal, but i closed it so its not showing... how can i prevent this? thanks it is similar to this jquery functions within modal only work on first open, after close and re-open they stop working but my functions are <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#myModal").modal('show'); }); </script> and the validation one <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#form1').validate( { ignore: "", rules: { usu_login: { required: true }, usu_password: { required: true }, usu_email: { required: true }, usu_nombre1: { required: true }, usu_apellido1: { required: true }, usu_fecha_nac: { required: true }, usu_cedula: { required: true }, usu_telefono1: { required: true }, rol_id: { required: true }, dependencia_id: { required: true }, }, highlight: function(element) { $(element).closest('.grupo').addClass('has-error'); if($(".tab-content").find("div.tab-pane.active:has(div.has-error)").length == 0) { $(".tab-content").find("div.tab-pane:hidden:has(div.has-error)").each(function(index, tab) { var id = $(tab).attr("id"); $('a[href="#' + id + '"]').tab('show'); }); } }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).closest('.grupo').removeClass('has-error'); } }); }); </script> So i dont know how to apply the answer of the above =(

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• Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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• Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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• Xcode - duplicate Target - new Target fails to build

  - by SirRatty

  Hi all, using Xcode 3.2.5 on 10.6.6 (10J521) I have an Xcode project containing 1 Target: "MyApp". It builds and runs successfully. As well as source and resource files, the Target contains a "Copy Files" build phase which copies "Sparkle.framework" in. The framework is in the same directory as the project. I want to duplicate this Target. Steps taken: Did "Clean all Targets". Right-clicked on the "MyApp" Target within Xcode, and then chose "Duplicate". Renamed the duplicated target to "MyAppTarget2". Selected "MyAppTarget2" as the Active Target from the popup menu in the top-left. Did "Build". The problem: error: Sparkle/Sparkle.h: No such file or directory This is puzzling! Each Build step appears to have been replicated in the duplicated Target, including the "Copy Files" phase. The Sparkle.framework exists at the path indicated by [Get Info on the Copy Phase item]. If I right-click on the Sparkle.framework file within the "Copy Files" build phase of the duplicated Target, and select "Reveal in Finder", then the correct Sparkle.framework file is shown. The required file exists at Sparkle.framework/Headers/Sparkle.h If I switch back to the original "MyApp" target, it builds and runs successfully. Am I doing something obviously wrong here? Thanks.

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