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  • Resolving Circular References for Objects Implementing ISerializable

    - by Chris
    I'm writing my own IFormatter implementation and I cannot think of a way to resolve circular references between two types that both implement ISerializable. Here's the usual pattern: [Serializable] class Foo : ISerializable { private Bar m_bar; public Foo(Bar bar) { m_bar = bar; m_bar.Foo = this; } public Bar Bar { get { return m_bar; } } protected Foo(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_bar = (Bar)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Bar)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_bar); } } [Serializable] class Bar : ISerializable { private Foo m_foo; public Foo Foo { get { return m_foo; } set { m_foo = value; } } public Bar() { } protected Bar(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_foo = (Foo)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Foo)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_foo); } } I then do this: Bar b = new Bar(); Foo f = new Foo(b); bool equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); // true // Serialise and deserialise b equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); If I use an out-of-the-box BinaryFormatter to serialise and deserialise b, the above test for reference-equality returns true as one would expect. But I cannot conceive of a way to achieve this in my custom IFormatter. In a non-ISerializable situation I can simply revisit "pending" object fields using reflection once the target references have been resolved. But for objects implementing ISerializable it is not possible to inject new data using SerializationInfo. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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  • rails HABTM versus view (formtastic)

    - by VP
    I have two models: The model NetworkObject try to describe "hosts". I want to have a rule with source and destination, so i'm trying to use both objects from the same class since it dont makes sense to create two different classes. class NetworkObject < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :ip, :netmask, :name has_many :statements has_many :rules, :through =>:statements end class Rule < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :active, :destination_ids, :source_ids has_many :statements has_many :sources, :through=> :statements, :source=> :network_object has_many :destinations, :through => :statements, :source=> :network_object end To build the HABTM i did choose the Model JOIN. so in this case i created a model named Statement with: class Statement < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :source_id, :rule_id, :destination_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :destination_id belongs_to :rule end The problem is: is right to add two belongs_to to the same class using different foreign_keys? I tried all combinations like: belongs_to :sources, :class_name => :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id but no success.. anything that i am doing wrong?

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  • How to avoid an asp:Multiview to load all the views

    - by GigaPr
    Hi I have a multiview control on my page and a menu to create a tab control <asp:Menu ID="tabMenu" Orientation="Horizontal" StaticMenuItemStyle-CssClass="tab" StaticSelectedStyle-CssClass="selectedTab" CssClass="tabs" OnMenuItemClick="Menu1_MenuItemClick" runat="server"> </asp:Menu><asp:MultiView ID="multiViewTab" ActiveViewIndex="0" runat="server"> <asp:View ID="viewDetails" runat="server"> <uc:ViewDetails runat="server" ID="ucViewDetails" /> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="viewJobs" runat="server"> <uc:ViewJob ID="ucViewJob" runat="server" /> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="viewJobList" runat="server"> <uc:ViewJobList ID="ucViewJobList" runat="server" /> </asp:View> </asp:MultiView> and i set the current view as follow protected void Menu1_MenuItemClick(object sender, MenuEventArgs e) { int index = Int32.Parse(e.Item.Value); if (index != 0) { tabMenu.FindItem("0").Selected = false; } multiViewTab.ActiveViewIndex = index; } it works well ... the only problem is that each time i click on a view all the views are loaded.while i would like to load only the one which is active Do you know any way to avoid the loading of all the views?

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  • C#: Why am I still getting an RCW error when exiting my application?

    - by shifuimam
    To be specific, the error is: An attempt has been made to free an RCW that is in use. The RCW is in use on the active thread or another thread. Attempting to free an in-use RCW can cause corruption or data loss. The application in question is a small applet that displays the current clock speed of the CPU as a system tray icon. I'm using a System.Timers.Timer object to refresh the systray icon at an interval of 2.5 seconds. There's a single context menu item to exit the application, which uses the following function to unload everything: public void ExitApp(object sender, EventArgs e) { //stop and disable the timer theInterval.Stop(); theInterval.Enabled = false; //unload the system tray icon TheIcon.Visible = false; //exit the application Application.Exit(); } If I take out everything but Application.Exit(); I get an RCW error and the systray icon doesn't go away until I mouse over it. Everything was working perfectly until I changed the window style of the hidden form used to initialize the systray icon and the timer. If it helps any, I'm using C# 2010 Express.

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  • Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

    - by David Jeske
    .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

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  • Linq to SQL generates StackOverflowException in tight Insert loop

    - by ChrisW
    I'm parsing an XML file and inserting the rows into a table (and related tables) using LinqToSQL. I parse the XML file using LinqToXml into IEnumerable. Then, I create a foreach loop, where I build my LinqToSQL objects and call InsertOnSubmit and SubmitChanges at the end of each loop. Nothing special here. Usually, I make it through around 4,100 records before receiving a StackOverflowException from LinqToSql, right as I call SubmitChanges. It's not always on 4,100... sometimes it's 4102, sometimes, less, etc. I've tried inserting the records that generate the failure individually, but putting them in their own Xml file, but that inserts fine... so it's not the data. I'm running the whole process from an MVC2 app that is uploading the Xml file to the server. I've adjusted my WebRequest timeouts to appropriate values, and again, I'm not getting timeout errors, just StackOverflowExceptions. So is there some pattern that I should follow for times when I have to do many insertions into the database? I never encounter this exception on smaller Xml files, just larger ones.

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  • Setting CommandTarget to selected control in a TabControl

    - by Bart
    I have a WPF window with a few buttons and a tabcontrol having a tab for each 'document' the user is working on. The tabcontrol uses a DataTemplate to render the data in ItemSource of the tabcontrol. The question: If one of the buttons is clicked, the command should be executed on the control rendering the document in the active tab, but I've no idea what I should set CommandTarget to. I tried {Binding ElementName=nameOfControlInDataTemplate} but that obviously doesn't work. I tried to make my problem a bit more abstract with the following code (no ItemSource and Document objects, but the idea is still the same). <Button Command="ApplicationCommands.Save" CommandTarget="{Binding ElementName=nestedControl}">Save</Button> <TabControl x:Name="tabControl"> <TabControl.Items> <TabItem Header="Header1">Item 1</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header2">Item 2</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header3">Item 3</TabItem> </TabControl.Items> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CommandTest:NestedControl Name="nestedControl"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> I tested the code by replacing the complete tabcontrol with only one single NestedControl, and then the command button just works. To be complete, here is the code of NestedControl: <UserControl x:Class="CommandTest.NestedControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Grid> <Label x:Name="label" Content="Not saved"/> </Grid> </UserControl> And code behind: public partial class NestedControl : UserControl { public NestedControl() { CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ApplicationCommands.Save, CommandBinding_Executed)); InitializeComponent(); } private void CommandBinding_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { label.Content = "Saved"; } }

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  • model view controller question

    - by songBong
    Hi, I've been working on my iphone game recently and came across a forked road when deciding the design of my various classes. So far I've adhered to the MVC pattern but the following situation had me confused: I have 4 buttons displayed visually. Each button though consists of a container UIView (which I've subclassed) and 2 UIButtons (also subclassed) as subviews. When you press a button, it does the flip effect plus other stuff. The user input is using target-action from my container UIView to my controller. This part is ok, the following part is the debatable part: So I've subclassed the container view as well as the UIButtons and I need to add more data/methods (somewhere) to do more things. Putting data that needs to be serialized and non-rendering related code in the view classes seems to break the MVC design but at the moment, it makes the most sense to me to put it there. It's almost like my subclassed views are their own little MVC's and it seems neat. Separating out the data/methods from the view to my main controller in this case seems unnecessary and a more work. How should I be doing it? Thanks heaps.

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  • Django LFS - custom views

    - by owca
    For all those ligthning fast shop users. I'm trying to implement my own first page view that will list all products from shop ( under '/' address). So I have a template : {% extends "lfs/shop/shop_base.html" %} {% block content %} <div id="najnowsze_produkty"> <ul> {% for obj in objects %} <li> {{ obj.name }} </li> {% endfor %} </ul> </div> {% endblock %} and then I've edited main shop view : from lfs.catalog.models import Category from lfs.catalog.models import Product def shop_view(request, template_name="lfs/shop/shop.html"): products = Product.objects.all() shop = lfs_get_object_or_404(Shop, pk=1) return render_to_response(template_name, RequestContext(request, { "shop" : shop, "products" : products })) but it just shows nothing. When I do Product.objects.all() query in shell I get results. Any ideas what could cause the problem ? Maybe I should filter products with 'active' status only ? But I'm not sure if it can influence all objects in any way.

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  • What is the best way to handle autorotation with multiple subview?

    - by thangnguyen
    I am learning and programing an application. I do this project based on what I learned from the book Beginning iphone 3 development. I have two main questions here: I would like to create a multi utility application so I need multiple-view. I have a main view controller which will control switching between views. In this example I have two views A and B. I have 2 view controller A and B which will handles all of events on these 2 views. I have 2 nib files viewA.xib and viewB.xib. One of the uitility is reading PDF. So I create another class which handle the PDF file which can load a PDF page call PDFview. From Interface Builder, I selected class identity for view of the viewB.xib as PDFView class. The result is I can switching between View A and view B. View B will display the content of the PDF page. I am not sure if my solution is right or wrong but now I don't know how to handle the autorotation. The rotation will active the view controller B. But the PDFView handle how to display the PDF on the View. Could you please tell me how I should handle this in a right way? Second question: Should I create the subview automatically? In case I need to do the swipe page animation, how can I do that? I think that I need to load another subview so I can do the animation when swap view. But I think this solution will waste the resource. I can just load another page of the PDF, but in this case I don't know how to use animation? Please tell me how I should solve this? I highly appreciate your time reading and answering my question. Thang Nguyen

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  • Emacs key binding fallback

    - by rejeep
    Hey, I have a minor mode. If that mode is active and the user hits DEL, I want to do some action, but only if some condition holds. If the condition holds and the action is executed I want to do nothing more after that. But if the condition fails, I don't want to do anything and let the default DEL action execute. Not sure how I could solve this. But I guess I could do it in two ways: 1) I could rebind the DEL key to a function in the minor mode and then check if the conditions holds ot not. But then how do I know what the default command to DEL is? 2) I could add a pre command hook like this. Execute the command and then break the chain. But how do I break the chain? (add-hook 'pre-command-hook (lambda() (when (equal last-input-event 'backspace) ;; Do something and then stop (do not execute the ;; command that backspace is bound to) ))) In what way would you solve it? Thanks!

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  • SharePoint Visual web part and Oracle connection problem

    - by Rishi
    Hi, I'm trying to build a "visual web part" for SharePoint 2010 which should connect to Oracle table and display records on SharePoint page.For development, Oracle 11g client (with ODP.net) ,SharePoint server 2010, Visual Studio 2010 and Oracle 10g express all running on my machine. First,I've written sample code in ASP.NET web app to connect my local Oracle table and display data in grid view and it works fine. My code is , OracleConnection con; try { // Connect string constr = "Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS_LIST=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=localhost)(PORT=1521)))(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVER=DEDICATED)(SERVICE_NAME=XE)));User Id=SYSTEM; Password=password"; con = new OracleConnection(constr); //Open database connection con.Open(); // Execute a SQL SELECT OracleCommand cmd = new OracleCommand("select * from T_ACTIONPOINTS WHERE AP_STATUS='Active' ", con); OracleDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); GridView.DataSource = dr; GridView.DataBind(); GridView.AllowPaging = true; } catch (Exception e) { lblError.Text = e.Message; } Now, I'm trying to create new "SharePoint" visual web part project and using same code and deploying it on my local SP server. But when it runs , I get following error here is my solution explorer, It looks something wrong in compatibility.Can someone point me in right direction ?

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  • Can I spead out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Connection reset when calling disconnect() using enterprisedt's ftp java framework

    - by Frederik Wordenskjold
    I'm having trouble disconnecting from a ftp-server, using the enterprisedt java ftp framework. I can simply not call disconnect() on a FileTransferClient object without getting an error. I do not do anything, besides connecting to the server, and then disconnecting: // create client log.info("Creating FTP client"); ftp = new FileTransferClient(); // set remote host log.info("Setting remote host"); ftp.setRemoteHost(host); ftp.setUserName(username); ftp.setPassword(password); // connect to the server log.info("Connecting to server " + host); ftp.connect(); log.info("Connected and logged in to server " + host); // Shut down client log.info("Quitting client"); ftp.disconnect(); log.info("Example complete"); When running this, the log reads: INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.216 : Creating FTP client INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.263 : Setting remote host INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.263 : Connecting to server x INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.979 : Connected and logged in to server x INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.979 : Quitting client ERROR [FTPControlSocket] 28 maj 2010 16:57:21.026 : Read failed ('' read so far) And the stacktrace: com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.ControlChannelIOException: Connection reset at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.readLine(FTPControlSocket.java:1029) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.readReply(FTPControlSocket.java:1089) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.sendCommand(FTPControlSocket.java:988) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPClient.quit(FTPClient.java:4044) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FileTransferClient.disconnect(FileTransferClient.java:1034) at test.main(test.java:46) It should be noted, that I without problems can connect, and do stuff with the server, like getting a list of files in the current working directory. But I cant, for some reason, disconnect! I've tried using both active and passive mode. The above example is by the way copy/pasted from their own example. I cannot fint ANYTHING related to this by doing a Google-search, so I was hoping you have any suggestions, or experience with this issue.

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  • iPhone: contentInset isn't animating

    - by Cuzog
    In my app, I have a table view. When the user clicks a button, a UIView overlays part of that table view. It's essentially a partial modal. That table view is intentionally still scrollable while that modal is active. To allow the user to scroll to the bottom of the table view, I change the contentInset and scrollIndicatorInsets values to adjust for the smaller area above the modal. When the modal is taken away, I reset those inset values. The problem is that when the user has scrolled to the bottom of the newly adjusted inset and then dismisses the modal, the table view jumps abruptly to a new scroll position because the inset is changed instantly. I would like to animate it so there is a transition, but the beginAnimation/commitAnimations methods aren't affecting it for some reason. Any ideas as to why the values aren't getting animated? Any help is greatly appreciated! The relevant code from the table view controller is here: - (void)viewDidLoad { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(modalOpened) name:@"ModalStartedOpening" object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(modalDismissed) name:@"ModalStartedClosing" object:nil]; [super viewDidLoad]; } - (void)modalOpened { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 201, 0); self.tableView.scrollIndicatorInsets = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 201, 0); [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)modalDismissed { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 0, 0); self.tableView.scrollIndicatorInsets = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 0, 0); [UIView commitAnimations]; }

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  • using indexer to retrieve Linq to SQL object from datastore

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    class UserDatastore : IUserDatastore { ... public IUser this[Guid userId] { get { User user = (from u in _dataContext.Users where u.Id == userId select u).FirstOrDefault(); return user; } } ... } One of the developers in our team is arguing that an indexer in the above situation is not appropriate and that a GetUser(Guid id) method should be prefered. The arguments being that: 1) We aren't indexing into an in-memory collection, the indexer is basically performing a hidden SQL query 2) Using a Guid in an indexer is bad (FxCop flagged this also) 3) Returning null from an indexer isn't normal behaviour 4) An API user generally wouldn't expect any of this behaviour I agree to an extent with (most of) these points. But I'm also inclined to argue that one of the characteristics of Linq is to abstract the database access to make it appear that you're simply working with a bunch of collections, even though the lazy evaluation paradigm means those collections aren't evaluated until you run a query over them. It doesn't seem inconsistent to me to access the datastore in the same manner as if it was a concrete in-memory collection here. Also bearing in mind this is an inherited codebase which uses this pattern extensively and consistently, is it worth the refactoring? I accept that it might have been better to use a Get method from the start, but I'm not yet convinced that it's completely incorrect to be using an indexer. I'd be interested to hear all opinions, thanks.

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  • Strange Ruby String Selection

    - by Daniel
    The string in question (read from a file): if (true) then { _this = createVehicle ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir -2.109278; }; Retrieved from a large list of similar (all same file) strings via the following: get_stringR(string,"if","};") And the function code: def get_stringR(a,b,c) b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.rindex(c) c ||= b r = a[b,c] return r end As so far, this works fine, but what I wanted to do is select the array after "createVehicle", the following (I thought) should work. newstring = get_string(myString,"\[","\];") Note get_string is the same as get_stringR, except it uses the first occurrence of the pattern both times, rather then the first and last occurrence. The output should have been: ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; Instead it was the below, given via 'puts': ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir Some 40 characters past the point it should have retrieve, which was very strange... Second note, using both get_string and get_stringR produced the exact same result with the parameters given. I then decided to add the following to my get_string code: b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.index(c) c ||= b if c 40 then c -= 40 end r = a[b,c] return r And it works as expected (for every 'block' in the file, even though the strings after that array are not identical in any way), but something obviously isn't right :).

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  • Solution for cleaning an image cache directory on the SD card

    - by synic
    I've got an app that is heavily based on remote images. They are usually displayed alongside some data in a ListView. A lot of these images are new, and a lot of the old ones will never be seen again. I'm currently storing all of these images on the SD card in a custom cache directory (ala evancharlton's magnatune app). I noticed that after about 10 days, the directory totals ~30MB. This is quite a bit more than I expected, and it leads me to believe that I need to come up with a good solution for cleaning out old files... and I just can't think of a great one. Maybe you can help. These are the ideas that I've had: Delete old files. When the app starts, start a background thread, and delete all files older than X days. This seems to pose a problem, though, in that, if the user actively uses the app, this could make the device sluggish if there are hundreds of files to delete. After creating the files on the SD card, call new File("/path/to/file").deleteOnExit(); This will cause all files to be deleted when the VM exits (I don't even know if this method works on Android). This is acceptable, because, even though the files need to be cached for the session, they don't need to be cached for the next session. It seems like this will also slow the device down if there are a lot of files to be deleted when the VM exits. Delete old files, up to a max number of files. Same as #1, but only delete N number of files at a time. I don't really like this idea, and if the user was very active, it may never be able to catch up and keep the cache directory clean. That's about all I've got. Any suggestions would be appreciated.

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  • Applescript from Mac App says "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."

    - by Rasmus Styrk
    I am trying to perform a copy/paste for my to the the last active app, here's my code: NSString *appleScriptSource = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"\ntell application \"%@\" to activate\ntell application \"System Events\" to tell process \"%@\"\nkeystroke \"v\" using command down\nend tell", [lastApp localizedName], [lastApp localizedName]]; NSDictionary *error; NSAppleScript *aScript = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:appleScriptSource]; NSAppleEventDescriptor *aDescriptor = [aScript executeAndReturnError:&error]; The problem is that on some computers it works just fine, but on others it fails. My error output from error that is returned by executeAndReturnError is: 2012-06-13 17:43:19.875 Mini Translator[1206:303] (null) (error: { NSAppleScriptErrorBriefMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorNumber = "-2741"; NSAppleScriptErrorRange = "NSRange: {95, 1}"; }) I can't seem to figure out what it means or why it happens. We tried copying the generated apple-script code into the Apple Script editor, and here it works just fine. My App is sandboxed - i have added the bundle identifiers for the key "com.apple.security.temporary-exception.apple-events" for the apps i want to support. Any suggestions?

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  • reading excel using scriptom for groovy, producing xml

    - by john
    Dear friends, I got a program from http://kousenit.wordpress.com/2007/03/27/groovyness-with-excel-and-xml but I got some very strange results: 1) I can still print xml but two records are not readable. 2) I got exception suggesting some thing missing could some experts enlighten me about what might go wrong? I copied the program and result below. thanks! import org.codehaus.groovy.scriptom.ActiveXObject def addresses = new File('addresses1.xls').canonicalPath def xls = new ActiveXObject('Excel.Application') def workbooks = xls.Workbooks def workbook = workbooks.Open(addresses) // select the active sheet def sheet = workbook.ActiveSheet sheet.Visible = true // get the XML builder ready def builder = new groovy.xml.MarkupBuilder() builder.people { for (row in 2..1000) { def ID = sheet.Range("A${row}").Value.value if (!ID) break // use the builder to write out each person person (id: ID) { name { firstName sheet.Range("B${row}").Value.value lastName sheet.Range("C${row}").Value.value } address { street sheet.Range("D${row}").Value.value city sheet.Range("E${row}").Value.value state sheet.Range("F${row}").Value.value zip sheet.Range("G${row}").Value.value } } } } // close the workbook without asking for saving the file workbook.Close(false, null, false) // quits excel xls.Quit() xls.release() however, i got the following results: <people> <person id='1234.0'> <name> <firstName>[C@128a25</firstName> <lastName>[C@5e45</lastName> </name> <address> <street>[C@179ef7c</street> <city>[C@12f95de</city> <state>[C@138b554</state> <zip>12345.0</zip> </address> </person> </person> Exception thrown May 12, 2010 4:07:15 AM org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.StackTraceUtils sanitize WARNING: Sanitizing stacktrace: java.lang.NullPointerException at org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.callsite.GetEffectivePojoFieldSite.acceptGetProperty(GetEffectivePojoFieldSite.java:43) at org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.callsite.AbstractCallSite.callGetProperty(AbstractCallSite.java:237) at sriptom4_excel$_run_closure1.doCall(sriptom4_excel.groovy:18) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) [1]: http://kousenit.wordpress.com/2007/03/27/groovyness-with-excel-and-xml/

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  • Xcode - duplicate Target - new Target fails to build

    - by SirRatty
    Hi all, using Xcode 3.2.5 on 10.6.6 (10J521) I have an Xcode project containing 1 Target: "MyApp". It builds and runs successfully. As well as source and resource files, the Target contains a "Copy Files" build phase which copies "Sparkle.framework" in. The framework is in the same directory as the project. I want to duplicate this Target. Steps taken: Did "Clean all Targets". Right-clicked on the "MyApp" Target within Xcode, and then chose "Duplicate". Renamed the duplicated target to "MyAppTarget2". Selected "MyAppTarget2" as the Active Target from the popup menu in the top-left. Did "Build". The problem: error: Sparkle/Sparkle.h: No such file or directory This is puzzling! Each Build step appears to have been replicated in the duplicated Target, including the "Copy Files" phase. The Sparkle.framework exists at the path indicated by [Get Info on the Copy Phase item]. If I right-click on the Sparkle.framework file within the "Copy Files" build phase of the duplicated Target, and select "Reveal in Finder", then the correct Sparkle.framework file is shown. The required file exists at Sparkle.framework/Headers/Sparkle.h If I switch back to the original "MyApp" target, it builds and runs successfully. Am I doing something obviously wrong here? Thanks.

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  • jquery slide to attribute with specific data attribute value

    - by Alex M
    Ok, so I have the following nav with absolute urls: <ul class="nav navbar-nav" id="main-menu"> <li class="first active"><a href="http://example.com/" title="Home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="http://example.com/about.html" title="About">About</a></li> <li><a href="http://example.com/portfolio.html" title="Portfolio">Portfolio</a></li> <li class="last"><a href="example.com/contact.html" title="Contact">Contact</a></li> </ul> and then articles with the following data attributes: <article class="row page" id="about" data-url="http://example.com/about.html"> <div class="one"> </div> <div class="two" </div> </article> and when you click the link in the menu I would like to ignore the fact it is a hyperlink and slide to the current article based on its attribute data-url. I started with what I think is the obvious: $('#main-menu li a').on('click', function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var pageUrl = $(this).attr('href'); )}; and have tried find and animate but then I don't know how to reference the article with data-url="http://example.com/about.html". Any help would be most appreciated. Thanks

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Most efficient way to check for DBNull and then assign to a variable?

    - by ilitirit
    This question comes up occasionally but I haven't seen a satisfactory answer. A typical pattern is (row is a DataRow): if (row["value"] != DBNull.Value) { someObject.Member = row["value"]; } My first question is which is more efficient (I've flipped the condition): row["value"] == DBNull.Value; // Or row["value"] is DBNull; // Or row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull) // Or... any suggestions? This indicates that .GetType() should be faster, but maybe the compiler knows a few tricks I don't? Second question, is it worth caching the value of row["value"] or does the compiler optimize the indexer away anyway? eg. object valueHolder; if (DBNull.Value == (valueHolder = row["value"])) {} Disclaimers: row["value"] exists. I don't know the column index of the column (hence the column name lookup) I'm asking specifically about checking for DBNull and then assignment (not about premature optimization etc). Edit: I benchmarked a few scenarios (time in seconds, 10000000 trials): row["value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:01.5478995 row["value"] is DBNull: 00:00:01.6306578 row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull): 00:00:02.0138757 Object.ReferenceEquals has the same performance as "==" The most interesting result? If you mismatch the name of the column by case (eg. "Value" instead of "value", it takes roughly ten times longer (for a string): row["Value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:12.2792374 The moral of the story seems to be that if you can't look up a column by it's index, then ensure that the column name you feed to the indexer matches the DataColumn's name exactly. Caching the value also appears to be nearly twice as fast: No Caching: 00:00:03.0996622 With Caching: 00:00:01.5659920 So the most efficient method seems to be: object temp; string variable; if (DBNull.Value != (temp = row["value"]) { variable = temp.ToString(); } This was a good learning experience.

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