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• problem generating pgp keys?

  - by pavankumar

  I'm using RSACryptoServiceProvider I've generated public key and private key. The keys generated by it are in the following format: Public key: <RSAKeyValue> <Modulus>m9bAoh2...eGNKYs=</Modulus> <Exponent>AQAB</Exponent> </RSAKeyValue> Private key: <RSAKeyValue> <Modulus>m9bAo...ZAIeGNKYs=</Modulus> <Exponent>AQAB</Exponent> <P>xGj/UcXs...R1lmeVQ==</P> <Q>yx6e18aP...GXzXIXw==</Q> <DP>NyxvnJ...1xAsEyQ==</DP> <DQ>La17Jycd...FhApEqwznQ==</DQ> <InverseQ>JrG7WCT...Hp3OWA==</InverseQ> <D>RdWsOFn....KL699Vh6HK0=</D> </RSAKeyValue> but using PGP Desktop i've generated keys like this - Public key: mQCNBEoOlp8BBACi/3EvBZ83ZduvG6YHu5F0P7Z3xOnpIsaPvTk0q+dnjwDUa5sU lEFbUZgDXSz7ZRhyiNqUOy+IG3ghPxpiKGBtldVpi33qaFCCEBiqsxRRpVCLgTUK HP2kH5ysrlFWkxTo =a4t9 Private key: lQHgBEoOlp8BBACi/3EvBZ83ZduvG6YHu5F0P7Z3xOnpIsaPvTk0q+dnjwDUa5sU lEFbUZgDXSz7ZRhyiNqUOy+IG3ghPxpiKGBtldVpi33qaFCCEBiqsxRRpVCLgTUK waBnEitQti3XgUUEZnz/rnXcQVM0QFBe6H5x8fMDUw== =CVPD So when I'm passing the keys generated by PGP Desktop it is able to do encryption and decryption perfectly but when im passing the keys generated by RSACryptoServiceProvider I'm not able to encrypt and decrypt? Can anyone please tell me how to generate keys in the pattern generated by PGP?

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• What is the best way to handle autorotation with multiple subview?

  - by thangnguyen

  I am learning and programing an application. I do this project based on what I learned from the book Beginning iphone 3 development. I have two main questions here: I would like to create a multi utility application so I need multiple-view. I have a main view controller which will control switching between views. In this example I have two views A and B. I have 2 view controller A and B which will handles all of events on these 2 views. I have 2 nib files viewA.xib and viewB.xib. One of the uitility is reading PDF. So I create another class which handle the PDF file which can load a PDF page call PDFview. From Interface Builder, I selected class identity for view of the viewB.xib as PDFView class. The result is I can switching between View A and view B. View B will display the content of the PDF page. I am not sure if my solution is right or wrong but now I don't know how to handle the autorotation. The rotation will active the view controller B. But the PDFView handle how to display the PDF on the View. Could you please tell me how I should handle this in a right way? Second question: Should I create the subview automatically? In case I need to do the swipe page animation, how can I do that? I think that I need to load another subview so I can do the animation when swap view. But I think this solution will waste the resource. I can just load another page of the PDF, but in this case I don't know how to use animation? Please tell me how I should solve this? I highly appreciate your time reading and answering my question. Thang Nguyen

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• jquery slide to attribute with specific data attribute value

  - by Alex M

  Ok, so I have the following nav with absolute urls: <ul class="nav navbar-nav" id="main-menu"> <li class="first active"><a href="http://example.com/" title="Home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="http://example.com/about.html" title="About">About</a></li> <li><a href="http://example.com/portfolio.html" title="Portfolio">Portfolio</a></li> <li class="last"><a href="example.com/contact.html" title="Contact">Contact</a></li> </ul> and then articles with the following data attributes: <article class="row page" id="about" data-url="http://example.com/about.html"> <div class="one"> </div> <div class="two" </div> </article> and when you click the link in the menu I would like to ignore the fact it is a hyperlink and slide to the current article based on its attribute data-url. I started with what I think is the obvious: $('#main-menu li a').on('click', function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var pageUrl = $(this).attr('href'); )}; and have tried find and animate but then I don't know how to reference the article with data-url="http://example.com/about.html". Any help would be most appreciated. Thanks

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• Linq to SQL generates StackOverflowException in tight Insert loop

  - by ChrisW

  I'm parsing an XML file and inserting the rows into a table (and related tables) using LinqToSQL. I parse the XML file using LinqToXml into IEnumerable. Then, I create a foreach loop, where I build my LinqToSQL objects and call InsertOnSubmit and SubmitChanges at the end of each loop. Nothing special here. Usually, I make it through around 4,100 records before receiving a StackOverflowException from LinqToSql, right as I call SubmitChanges. It's not always on 4,100... sometimes it's 4102, sometimes, less, etc. I've tried inserting the records that generate the failure individually, but putting them in their own Xml file, but that inserts fine... so it's not the data. I'm running the whole process from an MVC2 app that is uploading the Xml file to the server. I've adjusted my WebRequest timeouts to appropriate values, and again, I'm not getting timeout errors, just StackOverflowExceptions. So is there some pattern that I should follow for times when I have to do many insertions into the database? I never encounter this exception on smaller Xml files, just larger ones.

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• How to emulate "-lib foo.jar" from _within_ build.xml

  - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen

  By specifying "-lib foo.jar" to ant I get the behaviour that the classes in foo.jar is added to the ant classloader and are available for various tasks taking a class name argument. I'd like to be able to specify the same behaviour but only from inside build.xml (so we can do this on a vanilla ant). For taskdefs we have functioning code looking like: <taskdef resource="net/sf/antcontrib/antlib.xml" description="for/foreach tasks"> <classpath> <pathelement location="${active.workspace}/ant-contrib-1.X/lib/ant-contrib.jar" /> </classpath> </taskdef> where the definition is completely provided from the ant-contrib.jar listed. What is the equivalent mechanism for the "global" ant classpath? (I have thought out that this is the way to get <javac> use ecj-3.5.jar to compile with on a JRE - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2364006/specifying-the-eclipse-compiler-completely-from-within-build-xml - in a way compatible with ant 1.7. Better suggestions are welcome :) EDIT: It appears that the about-to-be-released version 1.0 of ant4eclipse includes ecj. This does not answer the question, but may solve my basic problem.

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• Serializing MDI Winforms for persistency

  - by Serge

  Hello, basically my project is an MDI Winform application where a user can customize the interface by adding various controls and changing the layout. I would like to be able to save the state of the application for each user. I have done quite a bit of searching and found these: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2076259/how-to-auto-save-and-auto-load-all-properties-in-winforms-c http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1669522/c-save-winform-or-controls-to-file Basically from what I understand, the best approach is to serialize the data to XML, however winform controls are not serializable, so I would have use surrogate classes: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/dotnet/Surrogate_Serialization.aspx Now, do I need to write a surrogate class for each of my controls? I would need to write some sort of a recursive algorithm to save all my controls, what is the best approach to do accomplish that? How would I then restore all the windows, should I use the memento design pattern for that? If I want to implement multiple users later, should I use Nhibernate to store all the object data in a database? I am still trying to wrap my head around the problem and if anyone has any experience or advice I would greatly appreciate it, thanks.

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• DDD: Persisting aggregates

  - by Mosh

  Hello, Let's consider the typical Order and OrderItem example. Assuming that OrderItem is part of the Order Aggregate, it an only be added via Order. So, to add a new OrderItem to an Order, we have to load the entire Aggregate via Repository, add a new item to the Order object and persist the entire Aggregate again. This seems to have a lot of overhead. What if our Order has 10 OrderItems? This way, just to add a new OrderItem, not only do we have to read 10 OrderItems, but we should also re-insert all these 10 OrderItems again. (This is the approach that Jimmy Nillson has taken in his DDD book. Everytime he wants to persists an Aggregate, he clears all the child objects, and then re-inserts them again. This can cause other issues as the ID of the children are changed everytime because of the IDENTITY column in database.) I know some people may suggest to apply Unit of Work pattern at the Aggregate Root so it keeps track of what has been changed and only commit those changes. But this violates Persistence Ignorance (PI) principle because persistence logic is leaking into the Domain Model. Has anyone thought about this before? Mosh

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• Is it immoral to write crappy code even if readability and correctness is not a requirement?

  - by mafutrct

  There are cases when crappy (i.e. unreadable and buggy) code is not much of a problem. For instance, imagine you need to generate a big text file that mostly follows a simple pattern with a few very complex exceptions. What do you do? You quickly write a simple algorithm and insert the exceptional bits in the output manually to save 4 hours. The code is unreadable, and the output is flawed, but it's still the correct way since it is way faster. But let's get this straight: I hate bad code. I've had to read and work with code that caused my stomach to hurt. I care a lot about good code. And actually, I caught myself thinking that it is immoral to write bad code even though the dirty approach is sometimes superior. I was surprised by myself and found my idea to be very irrational. Did you ever experience this? Should I just get rid of this stupid idea and use the most efficient approach to coding?

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• Applescript from Mac App says "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."

  - by Rasmus Styrk

  I am trying to perform a copy/paste for my to the the last active app, here's my code: NSString *appleScriptSource = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"\ntell application \"%@\" to activate\ntell application \"System Events\" to tell process \"%@\"\nkeystroke \"v\" using command down\nend tell", [lastApp localizedName], [lastApp localizedName]]; NSDictionary *error; NSAppleScript *aScript = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:appleScriptSource]; NSAppleEventDescriptor *aDescriptor = [aScript executeAndReturnError:&error]; The problem is that on some computers it works just fine, but on others it fails. My error output from error that is returned by executeAndReturnError is: 2012-06-13 17:43:19.875 Mini Translator[1206:303] (null) (error: { NSAppleScriptErrorBriefMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorNumber = "-2741"; NSAppleScriptErrorRange = "NSRange: {95, 1}"; }) I can't seem to figure out what it means or why it happens. We tried copying the generated apple-script code into the Apple Script editor, and here it works just fine. My App is sandboxed - i have added the bundle identifiers for the key "com.apple.security.temporary-exception.apple-events" for the apps i want to support. Any suggestions?

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• Troubleshooting ASP .NET Application on Shared Hosting

  - by James

  Hi, My company has a CRM site hosted externally on a shared server and recently it has been very problematic. Users are being logged out randomly, sometimes only seconds after logging in. We are also getting viewstate validation errors at times. Both problems seem to occur more often when there are two or more people logged in at the same time, but I can't really see any particular pattern. I am using log4net to track the application state and from what I can tell it seems that the application is frequently restarting, causing all sorts of issues. I can see log messages from the Application_Start event handler but there is not always a corresponding message from the Application_End event handler. There is also logging code in the Application_Error event handler but it is not catching anything at the time of the restart. These errors started to occur soon after we moved our site to this shared server, although I don't remember it being this bad at first. Any advice on how to track down these problems would be appreciated. The server is running Windows Server 2003 and IIS 6.0. Sadly I don't have access to the server other than through Parallels Plesk and it doesn't seem to have any useful diagnostic information.

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• Data Access Layer, Best Practices

  - by labratmatt

  I'm looking for input on the best way to refactor the data access layer (DAL) in my PHP based web app. I follow an MVC pattern: PHP/HTML/CSS/etc. views on the front end, PHP controllers/services in the middle, and a PHP DAL sitting on top of a relational database in the model. Pretty standard stuff. Things are working fine, but my DAL is getting large (codesmell?) and becoming a bit unwieldy. My DAL contains almost all of the logic to interface with my database and is full of functions that look like this: function getUser($user_id) { $statement = "select id, name from users where user_id=:user_id"; PDO builds statement and fetchs results as an array return $array_of_results_generated_by_PDO_fetch_method; } Notes: The logic in my controller only interacts with the model using functions like the above in the DAL I am not using a framework (I'm of the opinion that PHP is a templating language and there's no need to inject complexity via a framework) I generally use PHP as a procedural language and tend to shy away from its OOP approach (I enjoy OOP development but prefer to keep that complexity out of PHP) What approaches have you taken when your DAL has reached this point? Do I have a fundamental design problem? Do I simply need to chop my DAL into a number of smaller files (logically divide it)? Thanks.

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• Setting CommandTarget to selected control in a TabControl

  - by Bart

  I have a WPF window with a few buttons and a tabcontrol having a tab for each 'document' the user is working on. The tabcontrol uses a DataTemplate to render the data in ItemSource of the tabcontrol. The question: If one of the buttons is clicked, the command should be executed on the control rendering the document in the active tab, but I've no idea what I should set CommandTarget to. I tried {Binding ElementName=nameOfControlInDataTemplate} but that obviously doesn't work. I tried to make my problem a bit more abstract with the following code (no ItemSource and Document objects, but the idea is still the same). <Button Command="ApplicationCommands.Save" CommandTarget="{Binding ElementName=nestedControl}">Save</Button> <TabControl x:Name="tabControl"> <TabControl.Items> <TabItem Header="Header1">Item 1</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header2">Item 2</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header3">Item 3</TabItem> </TabControl.Items> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CommandTest:NestedControl Name="nestedControl"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> I tested the code by replacing the complete tabcontrol with only one single NestedControl, and then the command button just works. To be complete, here is the code of NestedControl: <UserControl x:Class="CommandTest.NestedControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Grid> <Label x:Name="label" Content="Not saved"/> </Grid> </UserControl> And code behind: public partial class NestedControl : UserControl { public NestedControl() { CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ApplicationCommands.Save, CommandBinding_Executed)); InitializeComponent(); } private void CommandBinding_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { label.Content = "Saved"; } }

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• MVC Paging and Sorting Patterns: How to Page or Sort Re-Using Form Criteria

  - by CRice

  What is the best ASP.NET MVC pattern for paging data when the data is filtered by form criteria? This question is similar to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1425000/preserve-data-in-net-mvc but surely there is a better answer? Currently, when I click the search button this action is called: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Search(MemberSearchForm formSp, int? pageIndex, string sortExpression) {} That is perfect for the initial display of the results in the table. But I want to have page number links or sort expression links re-post the current form data (the user entered it the first time - persisted because it is returned as viewdata), along with extra route params 'pageIndex' or 'sortExpression', Can an ActionLink or RouteLink (which I would use for page numbers) post the form to the url they specify? <%= Html.RouteLink("page 2", "MemberSearch", new { pageIndex = 1 })%> At the moment they just do a basic redirect and do not post the form values so the search page loads fresh. In regular old web forms I used to persist the search params (MemberSearchForm) in the ViewState and have a GridView paging or sorting event reuse it.

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• Why are changes to coffeescript files not being compiled when my Rails 3.2.0 app is in development mode?

  - by ben

  Normally, any changes I make to .js.coffee files in my Rails 3.2.0 app in development mode take effect when I refresh the page. All of a sudden, this is not happening. If I do rake assets:precompile, then the changes are shown, but then if I do rake assets:clean they go back to not being shown. What is causing this? Edit: Restarting the server makes the changes show. Why isn't this happening automatically as before? Edit: Here is my development.rb Myapp::Application.configure do # Settings specified here will take precedence over those in config/application.rb # In the development environment your application's code is reloaded on # every request. This slows down response time but is perfect for development # since you don't have to restart the web server when you make code changes. config.cache_classes = false # Log error messages when you accidentally call methods on nil. config.whiny_nils = true # Show full error reports and disable caching config.consider_all_requests_local = true config.action_controller.perform_caching = false # Don't care if the mailer can't send config.action_mailer.raise_delivery_errors = false # Print deprecation notices to the Rails logger config.active_support.deprecation = :log # Only use best-standards-support built into browsers config.action_dispatch.best_standards_support = :builtin # Raise exception on mass assignment protection for Active Record models config.active_record.mass_assignment_sanitizer = :strict # Log the query plan for queries taking more than this (works # with SQLite, MySQL, and PostgreSQL) config.active_record.auto_explain_threshold_in_seconds = 0.5 # Do not compress assets config.assets.compress = false # Expands the lines which load the assets config.assets.debug = true config.action_mailer.default_url_options = { :host => 'localhost:3000' } config.log_level = :warn end

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• jquery validate not submitting after modal close bootstrap

  - by Mariana Hernandez

  I have a modal where i insert some data, but when i open the modal, close it, and the click the modal show button again, it doesnt submit of course because the validate is "acting" in the modal, but i closed it so its not showing... how can i prevent this? thanks it is similar to this jquery functions within modal only work on first open, after close and re-open they stop working but my functions are <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#myModal").modal('show'); }); </script> and the validation one <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#form1').validate( { ignore: "", rules: { usu_login: { required: true }, usu_password: { required: true }, usu_email: { required: true }, usu_nombre1: { required: true }, usu_apellido1: { required: true }, usu_fecha_nac: { required: true }, usu_cedula: { required: true }, usu_telefono1: { required: true }, rol_id: { required: true }, dependencia_id: { required: true }, }, highlight: function(element) { $(element).closest('.grupo').addClass('has-error'); if($(".tab-content").find("div.tab-pane.active:has(div.has-error)").length == 0) { $(".tab-content").find("div.tab-pane:hidden:has(div.has-error)").each(function(index, tab) { var id = $(tab).attr("id"); $('a[href="#' + id + '"]').tab('show'); }); } }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).closest('.grupo').removeClass('has-error'); } }); }); </script> So i dont know how to apply the answer of the above =(

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• SharePoint Visual web part and Oracle connection problem

  - by Rishi

  Hi, I'm trying to build a "visual web part" for SharePoint 2010 which should connect to Oracle table and display records on SharePoint page.For development, Oracle 11g client (with ODP.net) ,SharePoint server 2010, Visual Studio 2010 and Oracle 10g express all running on my machine. First,I've written sample code in ASP.NET web app to connect my local Oracle table and display data in grid view and it works fine. My code is , OracleConnection con; try { // Connect string constr = "Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS_LIST=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=localhost)(PORT=1521)))(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVER=DEDICATED)(SERVICE_NAME=XE)));User Id=SYSTEM; Password=password"; con = new OracleConnection(constr); //Open database connection con.Open(); // Execute a SQL SELECT OracleCommand cmd = new OracleCommand("select * from T_ACTIONPOINTS WHERE AP_STATUS='Active' ", con); OracleDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); GridView.DataSource = dr; GridView.DataBind(); GridView.AllowPaging = true; } catch (Exception e) { lblError.Text = e.Message; } Now, I'm trying to create new "SharePoint" visual web part project and using same code and deploying it on my local SP server. But when it runs , I get following error here is my solution explorer, It looks something wrong in compatibility.Can someone point me in right direction ?

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• Can I spead out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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• Problem with cruise control and visual svn

  - by Andrew

  Hi Wonder if anyone can help, I am experiencing a strange issue with my configuration of cruisecontrol.net and visual svn. I am setting the current ccnet.config <sourcecontrol type="svn"> <trunkUrl>https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk</trunkUrl> <executable>C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe</executable> <username>test</username> <password>test</password> <workingDirectory>D:\Development\Build\application\</workingDirectory> </sourcecontrol> <publishers> <xmllogger/> </publishers> <modificationDelaySeconds>10</modificationDelaySeconds> </project> When I run this I expect it to go to https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk, however i get the following ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.CruiseControlException: Source control operation failed: svn: OPTIONS of 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk': could not connect to server (http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080) . Process command: C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe update D:\Development\build\application\ --username test --password ** --no-auth-cache --non-interactive at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.ProcessSourceControl.Execute(ProcessInfo processInfo) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.Svn.UpdateSource(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Build(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Integrate(IntegrationRequest request) So for some reason it goes to 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk' If I remove the username and password elements in the ccnet.config. It goes to the correct url. I dont understand this behaviour. I have configured visual svn with a certificate using Active directory Certificate Services, if this was the problem I would expect it to show an error regarding the certificate instead of changing the url. I have cleared our state etc Any Ideas

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• Java - Class type from inside static initialization block

  - by DutrowLLC

  Is it possible to get the class type from inside the static initialization block? This is a simplified version of what I currently have:: class Person extends SuperClass { String firstName; static{ // This function is on the "SuperClass": // I'd for this function to be able to get "Person.class" without me // having to explicitly type it in but "this.class" does not work in // a static context. doSomeReflectionStuff(Person.class); // IN "SuperClass" } } This is closer to what I am doing, which is to initialize a data structure that holds information about the object and its annotations, etc... Perhaps I am using the wrong pattern? public abstract SuperClass{ static void doSomeReflectionStuff( Class<?> classType, List<FieldData> fieldDataList ){ Field[] fields = classType.getDeclaredFields(); for( Field field : fields ){ // Initialize fieldDataList } } } public abstract class Person { @SomeAnnotation String firstName; // Holds information on each of the fields, I used a Map<String, FieldData> // in my actual implementation to map strings to the field information, but that // seemed a little wordy for this example static List<FieldData> fieldDataList = new List<FieldData>(); static{ // Again, it seems dangerous to have to type in the "Person.class" // (or Address.class, PhoneNumber.class, etc...) every time. // Ideally, I'd liken to eliminate all this code from the Sub class // since now I have to copy and paste it into each Sub class. doSomeReflectionStuff(Person.class, fieldDataList); } }

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• model view controller question

  - by songBong

  Hi, I've been working on my iphone game recently and came across a forked road when deciding the design of my various classes. So far I've adhered to the MVC pattern but the following situation had me confused: I have 4 buttons displayed visually. Each button though consists of a container UIView (which I've subclassed) and 2 UIButtons (also subclassed) as subviews. When you press a button, it does the flip effect plus other stuff. The user input is using target-action from my container UIView to my controller. This part is ok, the following part is the debatable part: So I've subclassed the container view as well as the UIButtons and I need to add more data/methods (somewhere) to do more things. Putting data that needs to be serialized and non-rendering related code in the view classes seems to break the MVC design but at the moment, it makes the most sense to me to put it there. It's almost like my subclassed views are their own little MVC's and it seems neat. Separating out the data/methods from the view to my main controller in this case seems unnecessary and a more work. How should I be doing it? Thanks heaps.

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• iPhone: contentInset isn't animating

  - by Cuzog

  In my app, I have a table view. When the user clicks a button, a UIView overlays part of that table view. It's essentially a partial modal. That table view is intentionally still scrollable while that modal is active. To allow the user to scroll to the bottom of the table view, I change the contentInset and scrollIndicatorInsets values to adjust for the smaller area above the modal. When the modal is taken away, I reset those inset values. The problem is that when the user has scrolled to the bottom of the newly adjusted inset and then dismisses the modal, the table view jumps abruptly to a new scroll position because the inset is changed instantly. I would like to animate it so there is a transition, but the beginAnimation/commitAnimations methods aren't affecting it for some reason. Any ideas as to why the values aren't getting animated? Any help is greatly appreciated! The relevant code from the table view controller is here: - (void)viewDidLoad { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(modalOpened) name:@"ModalStartedOpening" object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(modalDismissed) name:@"ModalStartedClosing" object:nil]; [super viewDidLoad]; } - (void)modalOpened { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 201, 0); self.tableView.scrollIndicatorInsets = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 201, 0); [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)modalDismissed { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 0, 0); self.tableView.scrollIndicatorInsets = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, 0, 0, 0); [UIView commitAnimations]; }

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• Resolving Circular References for Objects Implementing ISerializable

  - by Chris

  I'm writing my own IFormatter implementation and I cannot think of a way to resolve circular references between two types that both implement ISerializable. Here's the usual pattern: [Serializable] class Foo : ISerializable { private Bar m_bar; public Foo(Bar bar) { m_bar = bar; m_bar.Foo = this; } public Bar Bar { get { return m_bar; } } protected Foo(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_bar = (Bar)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Bar)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_bar); } } [Serializable] class Bar : ISerializable { private Foo m_foo; public Foo Foo { get { return m_foo; } set { m_foo = value; } } public Bar() { } protected Bar(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_foo = (Foo)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Foo)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_foo); } } I then do this: Bar b = new Bar(); Foo f = new Foo(b); bool equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); // true // Serialise and deserialise b equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); If I use an out-of-the-box BinaryFormatter to serialise and deserialise b, the above test for reference-equality returns true as one would expect. But I cannot conceive of a way to achieve this in my custom IFormatter. In a non-ISerializable situation I can simply revisit "pending" object fields using reflection once the target references have been resolved. But for objects implementing ISerializable it is not possible to inject new data using SerializationInfo. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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• Problem executing script using Python and subprocces.call yet works in Bash

  - by Antoine Benkemoun

  Hello, For the first time, I am asking a little bit of help over here as I am more of a ServerFault person. I am doing some scripting in Python and I've been loving the language so far yet I have this little problem which is keeping my script from working. Here is the code line in question : subprocess.call('xen-create-image --hostname '+nom+' --memory '+memory+' --partitions=/root/scripts/part.tmp --ip '+ip+' --netmask '+netmask+' --gateway '+gateway+' --passwd',shell=True) I have tried the same thing with os.popen. All the variables are correctly set. When I execute the command in question in my regular Linux shell, it works perfectly fine but when I execute it using my Python scripts, I get bizarre errors. I even replaced subprocess.call() by the print function to make sure I am using the exact output of the command. I went looking into environment variables of my shell but they are pretty much the same... I'll post the error I am getting but I'm not sure it's relevant to my problem. Use of uninitialized value $lines[0] in substitution (s///) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 614. Use of uninitialized value $_ in pattern match (m//) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 628. I am not a Python expert so I'm most likely missing something here. Thank you in advance for your help, Antoine

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• Most efficient way to check for DBNull and then assign to a variable?

  - by ilitirit

  This question comes up occasionally but I haven't seen a satisfactory answer. A typical pattern is (row is a DataRow): if (row["value"] != DBNull.Value) { someObject.Member = row["value"]; } My first question is which is more efficient (I've flipped the condition): row["value"] == DBNull.Value; // Or row["value"] is DBNull; // Or row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull) // Or... any suggestions? This indicates that .GetType() should be faster, but maybe the compiler knows a few tricks I don't? Second question, is it worth caching the value of row["value"] or does the compiler optimize the indexer away anyway? eg. object valueHolder; if (DBNull.Value == (valueHolder = row["value"])) {} Disclaimers: row["value"] exists. I don't know the column index of the column (hence the column name lookup) I'm asking specifically about checking for DBNull and then assignment (not about premature optimization etc). Edit: I benchmarked a few scenarios (time in seconds, 10000000 trials): row["value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:01.5478995 row["value"] is DBNull: 00:00:01.6306578 row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull): 00:00:02.0138757 Object.ReferenceEquals has the same performance as "==" The most interesting result? If you mismatch the name of the column by case (eg. "Value" instead of "value", it takes roughly ten times longer (for a string): row["Value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:12.2792374 The moral of the story seems to be that if you can't look up a column by it's index, then ensure that the column name you feed to the indexer matches the DataColumn's name exactly. Caching the value also appears to be nearly twice as fast: No Caching: 00:00:03.0996622 With Caching: 00:00:01.5659920 So the most efficient method seems to be: object temp; string variable; if (DBNull.Value != (temp = row["value"]) { variable = temp.ToString(); } This was a good learning experience.

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• Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

  - by David Jeske

  .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

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