Search Results

Search found 12376 results on 496 pages for 'active pattern'.

Page 419/496 | < Previous Page | 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426  | Next Page >

• What is the best way to handle autorotation with multiple subview?

  - by thangnguyen

  I am learning and programing an application. I do this project based on what I learned from the book Beginning iphone 3 development. I have two main questions here: I would like to create a multi utility application so I need multiple-view. I have a main view controller which will control switching between views. In this example I have two views A and B. I have 2 view controller A and B which will handles all of events on these 2 views. I have 2 nib files viewA.xib and viewB.xib. One of the uitility is reading PDF. So I create another class which handle the PDF file which can load a PDF page call PDFview. From Interface Builder, I selected class identity for view of the viewB.xib as PDFView class. The result is I can switching between View A and view B. View B will display the content of the PDF page. I am not sure if my solution is right or wrong but now I don't know how to handle the autorotation. The rotation will active the view controller B. But the PDFView handle how to display the PDF on the View. Could you please tell me how I should handle this in a right way? Second question: Should I create the subview automatically? In case I need to do the swipe page animation, how can I do that? I think that I need to load another subview so I can do the animation when swap view. But I think this solution will waste the resource. I can just load another page of the PDF, but in this case I don't know how to use animation? Please tell me how I should solve this? I highly appreciate your time reading and answering my question. Thang Nguyen

  Read the article

• SharePoint 2010 / ASP.Net Integration - Looking for advice

  - by jpennal

  I have been Googling a problem that I have with trying to integrate the web application that I am working on with SharePoint 2010. The web application is a wiki style tool that allows users to log in via forms authentication or WIA against Active Directory and create content for themselves and others. What we would like to do is to allow a user have a page with the content they have created in our web application mixed in with content that they have living on the SharePoint server. For example, they may want to see a list of documents that they have on the SharePoint server mixed in with some of their content. To accomplish this, we would like to take the credentials the user has logged into our web application with (for example MYDOMAIN\jsmith) and be able to query SharePoint for the documents of that same user (MYDOMAIN\jsmith) WITHOUT the user being prompted to re-enter their credentials to access the SharePoint server (we are trying to avoid the double-hop problem) We have come up with some options for how we want to do this, but we are unsure of what the best approach is. For example, we could - Have a global user, shared by all users to get information we need from SharePoint. The downside is that we cannot filter SharePoint content to a particular user - We could store the users credentials when they log in, but that would only work for users authenticating via forms auth and would be a security issue that some users/clients would not like - Writing a SharePoint extension using WCF to allow us to access the information we need, however we'd still have the issue of figuring out how to impersonate the user we want. Neither of these options are ideal and in our investigation we came across the Claims Authentication/STS option which seems like it is trying to solve the problem we are having. So my question is, based on what I have written, is Claims/STS the best approach for us? We have not been able to find much direction on how to use this method to call into SharePoint from a Web Application and pass along the existing credentials. Does anyone have any experience with any of these issues?

  Read the article

• Is ASP.NET MVC is really MVC? Or how to separate model from controller?

  - by Andrey

  Hi all, This question is a bit rhetorical. At some point i got a feeling that ASP.NET MVC is not that authentic implementation of MVC pattern. Or i didn't understood it. Consider following domain: electric bulb, switch and motion detector. They are connected together and when you enter the room motion detector switches on the bulb. If i want to represent them as MVC: switch is model, because it holds the state and contains logic bulb is view, because it presents the state of model to human motion detector is controller, because it converts user actions to generic model commands Switch has one private field (On/Off) as a State and two methods (PressOn, PressOff). If you call PressOn when it is Off it goes to On, if you call it again state doesn't change. Bulb can be replaced with buzzer, motion detector with timer or button, but the model still represent the same logic. Eventually system will have same behavior. This is how i understand classical MVC decomposition, please correct me if i am wrong. Now let's decompose it in ASP.Net MVC way. Bulb is still a view Controller will be switch + motion detector Model is some object that will just pass state to bulb. So the logic that defines behavior moves to controller. Question 1: Is my understanding of MVC and ASP.NET MVC correct? Question 2: If yes, do you agree that ASP.NET MVC is not 100% accurate implementation? And back to life. The final question is how to separate model from controller in case of ASP.NET MVC. There can be two extremes. Controller does basic stuff and call model to do all the logic. Another is controller does all the logic and model is just something like class with properties that is mapped to DB. Question 3: Where should i draw the line between this extremes? How to balance? Thanks, Andrey

  Read the article

• Problem with cruise control and visual svn

  - by Andrew

  Hi Wonder if anyone can help, I am experiencing a strange issue with my configuration of cruisecontrol.net and visual svn. I am setting the current ccnet.config <sourcecontrol type="svn"> <trunkUrl>https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk</trunkUrl> <executable>C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe</executable> <username>test</username> <password>test</password> <workingDirectory>D:\Development\Build\application\</workingDirectory> </sourcecontrol> <publishers> <xmllogger/> </publishers> <modificationDelaySeconds>10</modificationDelaySeconds> </project> When I run this I expect it to go to https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk, however i get the following ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.CruiseControlException: Source control operation failed: svn: OPTIONS of 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk': could not connect to server (http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080) . Process command: C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe update D:\Development\build\application\ --username test --password ** --no-auth-cache --non-interactive at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.ProcessSourceControl.Execute(ProcessInfo processInfo) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.Svn.UpdateSource(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Build(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Integrate(IntegrationRequest request) So for some reason it goes to 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk' If I remove the username and password elements in the ccnet.config. It goes to the correct url. I dont understand this behaviour. I have configured visual svn with a certificate using Active directory Certificate Services, if this was the problem I would expect it to show an error regarding the certificate instead of changing the url. I have cleared our state etc Any Ideas

  Read the article

• I want to find the span tag beween the LI tag and its attributes but no luck.

  - by Mahesh

  I want to find the span tag beween the LI tag and its attributes. Trying with beautful soap but no luck. Details of my code. Is any one point me right methodlogy In this this code, my getId function should return me id = "0_False-2" Any one know right method? from BeautifulSoup import BeautifulSoup as bs import re html = '<ul>\ <li class="line">&nbsp;</li>\ <li class="folder-open-last" id="0">\ <img style="float: left;" class="trigger" src="/media/images/spacer.gif" border="0">\ <span class="text" id="0_False">NOC</span><ul style="display: block;"><li class="line">&nbsp;</li><li class="doc" id="1"><span class="active text" id="0_False-1">PNQAIPMS1</span></li><li class="line">&nbsp;</li><li class="doc-last" id="2"><span class="text" id="0_False-2">PNQAIPMS2</span></li><li class="line-last"></li></ul></li><li class="line-last"></li>\ </ul>' def getId(html, txt): soup = bs(html) soup.findAll('ul',recursive=False) head = soup.contents[0] temp = head elements = {} while True: # It temp is None that means no HTML tags are available if temp == None: break #print temp if re.search('li', str( temp)) != None: attr = str(temp.attrs).encode('ascii','ignore') attr = attr.replace(' ', '') attr = attr.replace('[', '') attr = attr.replace(']', '') attr = attr.replace(')', '') attr = attr.replace('(', '') attr = attr.replace('u\'', '') attr = attr.replace('\'', '') attr = attr.split(',') span = str(temp.text) if span == txt: return attr[3] temp = temp.next else: temp = temp.next id = getId(html,"PNQAIPMS2") print "ID = " + id

  Read the article

• Xcode - duplicate Target - new Target fails to build

  - by SirRatty

  Hi all, using Xcode 3.2.5 on 10.6.6 (10J521) I have an Xcode project containing 1 Target: "MyApp". It builds and runs successfully. As well as source and resource files, the Target contains a "Copy Files" build phase which copies "Sparkle.framework" in. The framework is in the same directory as the project. I want to duplicate this Target. Steps taken: Did "Clean all Targets". Right-clicked on the "MyApp" Target within Xcode, and then chose "Duplicate". Renamed the duplicated target to "MyAppTarget2". Selected "MyAppTarget2" as the Active Target from the popup menu in the top-left. Did "Build". The problem: error: Sparkle/Sparkle.h: No such file or directory This is puzzling! Each Build step appears to have been replicated in the duplicated Target, including the "Copy Files" phase. The Sparkle.framework exists at the path indicated by [Get Info on the Copy Phase item]. If I right-click on the Sparkle.framework file within the "Copy Files" build phase of the duplicated Target, and select "Reveal in Finder", then the correct Sparkle.framework file is shown. The required file exists at Sparkle.framework/Headers/Sparkle.h If I switch back to the original "MyApp" target, it builds and runs successfully. Am I doing something obviously wrong here? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

  - by David Jeske

  .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

  Read the article

• Setting CommandTarget to selected control in a TabControl

  - by Bart

  I have a WPF window with a few buttons and a tabcontrol having a tab for each 'document' the user is working on. The tabcontrol uses a DataTemplate to render the data in ItemSource of the tabcontrol. The question: If one of the buttons is clicked, the command should be executed on the control rendering the document in the active tab, but I've no idea what I should set CommandTarget to. I tried {Binding ElementName=nameOfControlInDataTemplate} but that obviously doesn't work. I tried to make my problem a bit more abstract with the following code (no ItemSource and Document objects, but the idea is still the same). <Button Command="ApplicationCommands.Save" CommandTarget="{Binding ElementName=nestedControl}">Save</Button> <TabControl x:Name="tabControl"> <TabControl.Items> <TabItem Header="Header1">Item 1</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header2">Item 2</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header3">Item 3</TabItem> </TabControl.Items> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CommandTest:NestedControl Name="nestedControl"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> I tested the code by replacing the complete tabcontrol with only one single NestedControl, and then the command button just works. To be complete, here is the code of NestedControl: <UserControl x:Class="CommandTest.NestedControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Grid> <Label x:Name="label" Content="Not saved"/> </Grid> </UserControl> And code behind: public partial class NestedControl : UserControl { public NestedControl() { CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ApplicationCommands.Save, CommandBinding_Executed)); InitializeComponent(); } private void CommandBinding_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { label.Content = "Saved"; } }

  Read the article

• Excel VBA SQL Import

  - by user307655

  Hi All, I have the following code which imports data from a spreadsheet to SQL directly from Excel VBA. The code works great. However I am wondering if somebody can help me modify the code to: 1) Check if data from column A already exists in the SQL Table 2) If exists, then only update rather than import as a new role 3) if does not exist then import as a new role. Thanks again for your help Sub SQLIM() ' Send data to SQL Server ' This code loads data from an Excel Worksheet to an SQL Server Table ' Data should start in column A and should be in the same order as the server table ' Autonumber fields should NOT be included' ' FOR THIS CODE TO WORK ' In VBE you need to go Tools References and check Microsoft Active X Data Objects 2.x library Dim Cn As ADODB.Connection Dim ServerName As String Dim DatabaseName As String Dim TableName As String Dim UserID As String Dim Password As String Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim RowCounter As Long Dim ColCounter As Integer Dim NoOfFields As Integer Dim StartRow As Long Dim EndRow As Long Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset ServerName = "WIN764X\sqlexpress" ' Enter your server name here DatabaseName = "two28it" ' Enter your database name here TableName = "COS" ' Enter your Table name here UserID = "" ' Enter your user ID here ' (Leave ID and Password blank if using windows Authentification") Password = "" ' Enter your password here NoOfFields = 7 ' Enter number of fields to update (eg. columns in your worksheet) StartRow = 2 ' Enter row in sheet to start reading records EndRow = shtSheetToWork.Cells(Rows.Count, 1).End(xlUp).Row ' Enter row of last record in sheet ' CHANGES ' Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet ' Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") '** Set Cn = New ADODB.Connection Cn.Open "Driver={SQL Server};Server=" & ServerName & ";Database=" & DatabaseName & _ ";Uid=" & UserID & ";Pwd=" & Password & ";" rs.Open TableName, Cn, adOpenKeyset, adLockOptimistic For RowCounter = StartRow To EndRow rs.AddNew For ColCounter = 1 To NoOfFields rs(ColCounter - 1) = shtSheetToWork.Cells(RowCounter, ColCounter) Next ColCounter Next RowCounter rs.UpdateBatch ' Tidy up rs.Close Set rs = Nothing Cn.Close Set Cn = Nothing End Sub

  Read the article

• Possible to have multiple Profiles in ASP.NET for different users?

  - by asple

  My application has a few different user types with their own members. For example, I have the student user as well as the teacher user. I authenticate my users through active directory in my custom MembershipProvider's ValidateUser method. While querying AD, I pull out all their relevant information. I'd like to put that information into a Profile, but from what I've read and the examples I've sen, you can only define a single Profile (like so): <profile defaultProvider="CustomProfileProvider" enabled="true"> <properties> <add name="YearLevel" type="String" /> <add name="Name" type="String" /> <add name="Age" type="String" /> </properties> </profile> The above profile would work for a student, but not for a teacher, who does not have a value for "YearLevel" in AD. Is it possible to have multiple profiles to accomplish this? Or is it easier to add all properties from AD spanning all user types, then in my code, just check what user type they are and then access their specific properties?

  Read the article

• Most efficient way to check for DBNull and then assign to a variable?

  - by ilitirit

  This question comes up occasionally but I haven't seen a satisfactory answer. A typical pattern is (row is a DataRow): if (row["value"] != DBNull.Value) { someObject.Member = row["value"]; } My first question is which is more efficient (I've flipped the condition): row["value"] == DBNull.Value; // Or row["value"] is DBNull; // Or row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull) // Or... any suggestions? This indicates that .GetType() should be faster, but maybe the compiler knows a few tricks I don't? Second question, is it worth caching the value of row["value"] or does the compiler optimize the indexer away anyway? eg. object valueHolder; if (DBNull.Value == (valueHolder = row["value"])) {} Disclaimers: row["value"] exists. I don't know the column index of the column (hence the column name lookup) I'm asking specifically about checking for DBNull and then assignment (not about premature optimization etc). Edit: I benchmarked a few scenarios (time in seconds, 10000000 trials): row["value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:01.5478995 row["value"] is DBNull: 00:00:01.6306578 row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull): 00:00:02.0138757 Object.ReferenceEquals has the same performance as "==" The most interesting result? If you mismatch the name of the column by case (eg. "Value" instead of "value", it takes roughly ten times longer (for a string): row["Value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:12.2792374 The moral of the story seems to be that if you can't look up a column by it's index, then ensure that the column name you feed to the indexer matches the DataColumn's name exactly. Caching the value also appears to be nearly twice as fast: No Caching: 00:00:03.0996622 With Caching: 00:00:01.5659920 So the most efficient method seems to be: object temp; string variable; if (DBNull.Value != (temp = row["value"]) { variable = temp.ToString(); } This was a good learning experience.

  Read the article

• Excel VBA Macro for Pivot Table with Dynamic Data Range

  - by John Ziebro

  CODE IS WORKING! THANKS FOR THE HELP! I am attempting to create a dynamic pivot table that will work on data that varies in the number of rows. Currently, I have 28,300 rows, but this may change daily. Example of data format as follows: Case Number Branch Driver 1342 NYC Bob 4532 PHL Jim 7391 CIN John 8251 SAN John 7211 SAN Mary 9121 CLE John 7424 CIN John Example of finished table: Driver NYC PHL CIN SAN CLE Bob 1 0 0 0 0 Jim 0 1 0 0 0 John 0 0 2 1 1 Mary 0 0 0 1 0 Code as follows: Sub CreateSummaryReportUsingPivot() ' Use a Pivot Table to create a static summary report ' with model going down the rows and regions across Dim WSD As Worksheet Dim PTCache As PivotCache Dim PT As PivotTable Dim PRange As Range Dim FinalRow As Long Dim FinalCol As Long Set WSD = Worksheets("PivotTable") 'Name active worksheet as "PivotTable" ActiveSheet.Name = "PivotTable" ' Delete any prior pivot tables For Each PT In WSD.PivotTables PT.TableRange2.Clear Next PT ' Define input area and set up a Pivot Cache FinalRow = WSD.Cells(Application.Rows.Count, 1).End(xlUp).Row FinalCol = WSD.Cells(1, Application.Columns.Count). _ End(xlToLeft).Column Set PRange = WSD.Cells(1, 1).Resize(FinalRow, FinalCol) Set PTCache = ActiveWorkbook.PivotCaches.Add(SourceType:= _ xlDatabase, SourceData:=PRange) ' Create the Pivot Table from the Pivot Cache Set PT = PTCache.CreatePivotTable(TableDestination:=WSD. _ Cells(2, FinalCol + 2), TableName:="PivotTable1") ' Turn off updating while building the table PT.ManualUpdate = True ' Set up the row fields PT.AddFields RowFields:="Driver", ColumnFields:="Branch" ' Set up the data fields With PT.PivotFields("Case Number") .Orientation = xlDataField .Function = xlCount .Position = 1 End With With PT .ColumnGrand = False .RowGrand = False .NullString = "0" End With ' Calc the pivot table PT.ManualUpdate = False PT.ManualUpdate = True End Sub

  Read the article

• Solution for cleaning an image cache directory on the SD card

  - by synic

  I've got an app that is heavily based on remote images. They are usually displayed alongside some data in a ListView. A lot of these images are new, and a lot of the old ones will never be seen again. I'm currently storing all of these images on the SD card in a custom cache directory (ala evancharlton's magnatune app). I noticed that after about 10 days, the directory totals ~30MB. This is quite a bit more than I expected, and it leads me to believe that I need to come up with a good solution for cleaning out old files... and I just can't think of a great one. Maybe you can help. These are the ideas that I've had: Delete old files. When the app starts, start a background thread, and delete all files older than X days. This seems to pose a problem, though, in that, if the user actively uses the app, this could make the device sluggish if there are hundreds of files to delete. After creating the files on the SD card, call new File("/path/to/file").deleteOnExit(); This will cause all files to be deleted when the VM exits (I don't even know if this method works on Android). This is acceptable, because, even though the files need to be cached for the session, they don't need to be cached for the next session. It seems like this will also slow the device down if there are a lot of files to be deleted when the VM exits. Delete old files, up to a max number of files. Same as #1, but only delete N number of files at a time. I don't really like this idea, and if the user was very active, it may never be able to catch up and keep the cache directory clean. That's about all I've got. Any suggestions would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• Standardizing a Release/Tools group on a specific language

  - by grahzny

  I'm part of a six-member build and release team for an embedded software company. We also support a lot of developer tools, such as Atlassian's Fisheye, Jira, etc., Perforce, Bugzilla, AnthillPro, and a couple of homebrew tools (like my Django release notes generator). Most of the time, our team just writes little plugins for larger apps (ex: customize workflows in Anthill), long-term utility scripts (package up a release for QA), or things like Perforce triggers (don't let people check into a specific branch unless their change description includes a bug number; authenticate against Active Directory instead of Perforce's internal passwords). That's about the scale of our problems, although we sometimes tackle something slightly more sizable. My boss, who is reasonably technical, has asked us to standardize on one or two languages so we can more easily substitute for each other. He's advocating bash scripts and Perl, due to their universality and simplicity. I can see his point--we mostly do "glue", so why not use "glue" languages rather than saddle ourselves with something designed for much larger projects? Since some of the tools we work with are Java-based, we do need to use something that speaks JVM sometimes. (The path of least resistance for these projects is BeanShell and Groovy.) I feel a tremendous itch toward language advocacy, but I'm trying to avoid saying "We should use Python 'cause I like it and Perl is gross." Instead, I'm trying to come up with a good approach to defining our problem set: what problems do we solve with scripts? Would we benefit from a library of common functions by our team, or are most of our projects more isolated? What is it reasonable to expect my co-workers to learn? What languages give us the most ease of development and ease of modification? Can you folks suggest some useful ways to approach this problem, both for my own thinking process and to help me facilitate some brainstorming among my coworkers?

  Read the article

• jQuery Tools alert works once (but only once)

  - by Jim Miller

  I'm trying to build a simple alert mechanism with jQuery Tools -- in response to a bit of Javascript code, pop up an overlay with a message and an OK button that, when clicked, makes the overlay go away. Trivial, or it should be. I've been slavishly following http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/trigger.html, and have something that works fine the first time it's invoked, but only that time. If I repeat the JS action that should expose the overlay, it doesn't. My content/DIV: <div class='modal' id='the_alert'> <div id='modal_content' class='modal_content'> <h2>hi there</h2> this is the body <p> <button class='close'>OK</button> </p> </div> <div id='modal_background' class='modal_background'><img src='/images/overlay/f9f9f9-180.png' class='stretch' alt='' /></div> </div> and the Javascript: function showOverlayDialog() { $('#the_alert').overlay({ mask: {color: '#cccccc', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.9}, closeOnClick: false, load: true }); } As I said: When showOverlayDialog() is invoked the first time, the overlay appears just like it should, and goes away when the "OK" button is clicked. But if I cause showOverlayDialog() to run again, without reloading the page, nothing happens. If I reload the page, then the pattern repeats -- the first invocation brings up the overlay, but the second one doesn't. I'm obviously missing something -- any advice out there? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Resolving Circular References for Objects Implementing ISerializable

  - by Chris

  I'm writing my own IFormatter implementation and I cannot think of a way to resolve circular references between two types that both implement ISerializable. Here's the usual pattern: [Serializable] class Foo : ISerializable { private Bar m_bar; public Foo(Bar bar) { m_bar = bar; m_bar.Foo = this; } public Bar Bar { get { return m_bar; } } protected Foo(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_bar = (Bar)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Bar)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_bar); } } [Serializable] class Bar : ISerializable { private Foo m_foo; public Foo Foo { get { return m_foo; } set { m_foo = value; } } public Bar() { } protected Bar(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_foo = (Foo)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Foo)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_foo); } } I then do this: Bar b = new Bar(); Foo f = new Foo(b); bool equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); // true // Serialise and deserialise b equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); If I use an out-of-the-box BinaryFormatter to serialise and deserialise b, the above test for reference-equality returns true as one would expect. But I cannot conceive of a way to achieve this in my custom IFormatter. In a non-ISerializable situation I can simply revisit "pending" object fields using reflection once the target references have been resolved. But for objects implementing ISerializable it is not possible to inject new data using SerializationInfo. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

  Read the article

• rails HABTM versus view (formtastic)

  - by VP

  I have two models: The model NetworkObject try to describe "hosts". I want to have a rule with source and destination, so i'm trying to use both objects from the same class since it dont makes sense to create two different classes. class NetworkObject < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :ip, :netmask, :name has_many :statements has_many :rules, :through =>:statements end class Rule < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :active, :destination_ids, :source_ids has_many :statements has_many :sources, :through=> :statements, :source=> :network_object has_many :destinations, :through => :statements, :source=> :network_object end To build the HABTM i did choose the Model JOIN. so in this case i created a model named Statement with: class Statement < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :source_id, :rule_id, :destination_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :destination_id belongs_to :rule end The problem is: is right to add two belongs_to to the same class using different foreign_keys? I tried all combinations like: belongs_to :sources, :class_name => :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id but no success.. anything that i am doing wrong?

  Read the article

• bxSlider-4 text slide pass into the next slide

  - by Martialp

  I use http://bxslider.com/ to slide some content, just simple text. But it seem to have a problem with the text, not the image. I post a simple live exemple : http://jsfiddle.net/Sbt75/324/ As you can see on the exemple, we see the previous text from the previous slide on the left of the active slide. <div class="row"> <div class="large-6 columns"> <ul class="bxslider"> <li><p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit. Accusantium, obcaecati, laudantium, blanditiis, adipisci quod eaque porro sapiente eligendi dicta voluptates voluptatum sunt aperiam totam modi quis vitae maxime! Dolor, possimus.</p></li> <li>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit. Odit, recusandae, delectus amet ipsa voluptate tempora architecto ad blanditiis officia perspiciatis nesciunt at ducimus quas nihil fuga. Qui optio minima accusamus?</li> <li><p class="right"> il etait une fois un grand mechant loupqui s'appelet jean et qui aimer courir dans l'herbe avec une grande harpe pour jouer dvant les enfants Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit. Odit, recusandae, delectus amet ipsa voluptate tempora architecto ad blanditiis officia perspiciatis nesciunt at ducimus quas nihil fuga. Qui optio minima accusamus? </p> </li> </ul> </div> </div> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.bxslider').bxSlider({ auto: false, autoControls: false, nextSelector: '#slider-next', prevSelector: '#slider-prev', nextText: 'Onward ?', prevText: '? Go back' }); });

  Read the article

• reading excel using scriptom for groovy, producing xml

  - by john

  Dear friends, I got a program from http://kousenit.wordpress.com/2007/03/27/groovyness-with-excel-and-xml but I got some very strange results: 1) I can still print xml but two records are not readable. 2) I got exception suggesting some thing missing could some experts enlighten me about what might go wrong? I copied the program and result below. thanks! import org.codehaus.groovy.scriptom.ActiveXObject def addresses = new File('addresses1.xls').canonicalPath def xls = new ActiveXObject('Excel.Application') def workbooks = xls.Workbooks def workbook = workbooks.Open(addresses) // select the active sheet def sheet = workbook.ActiveSheet sheet.Visible = true // get the XML builder ready def builder = new groovy.xml.MarkupBuilder() builder.people { for (row in 2..1000) { def ID = sheet.Range("A${row}").Value.value if (!ID) break // use the builder to write out each person person (id: ID) { name { firstName sheet.Range("B${row}").Value.value lastName sheet.Range("C${row}").Value.value } address { street sheet.Range("D${row}").Value.value city sheet.Range("E${row}").Value.value state sheet.Range("F${row}").Value.value zip sheet.Range("G${row}").Value.value } } } } // close the workbook without asking for saving the file workbook.Close(false, null, false) // quits excel xls.Quit() xls.release() however, i got the following results: <people> <person id='1234.0'> <name> <firstName>[C@128a25</firstName> <lastName>[C@5e45</lastName> </name> <address> <street>[C@179ef7c</street> <city>[C@12f95de</city> <state>[C@138b554</state> <zip>12345.0</zip> </address> </person> </person> Exception thrown May 12, 2010 4:07:15 AM org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.StackTraceUtils sanitize WARNING: Sanitizing stacktrace: java.lang.NullPointerException at org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.callsite.GetEffectivePojoFieldSite.acceptGetProperty(GetEffectivePojoFieldSite.java:43) at org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.callsite.AbstractCallSite.callGetProperty(AbstractCallSite.java:237) at sriptom4_excel$_run_closure1.doCall(sriptom4_excel.groovy:18) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) [1]: http://kousenit.wordpress.com/2007/03/27/groovyness-with-excel-and-xml/

  Read the article

• function in php for displaying a menu

  - by Stanislas Piotrowski

  I met some trouble with a function I have written. In fact I have an array in which I have different custom values. I would like to display the result of that, so here is my function function getAccess($var){ $data=mysql_fetch_array(mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `acces` WHERE `id`='.$var.'")); return $data; } getAccess($_SESSION['id']); $paramAcces = array( 'comptesfinanciers' => array( 'libelle' => 'COMPTES FINANCIERS', 'acces' => $data['comptesfinanciers'], 'lien' => 'financier', 'image' => 'images/finances.png' ) ); I have done a var_dump of $paramAcces which return array(1) { ["comptesfinanciers"]=> array(4) { ["libelle"]=> string(18) "COMPTES FINANCIERS" ["acces"]=> NULL ["lien"]=> string(9) "financier" ["image"]=> string(19) "images/finances.png" } } (that are the ecpected values). Here is the function for displaying what is in the array /** * AFFICHAGE DE LA SECTION PARAMETRES SUR LA PAGE D'ACCUEIL */ function affichParam($paramAccees){ echo '<ul class="getcash-vmenu"><li><a href="index.php?p='.$paramAccees['lien'].'" class="active"><span class="t"><img src="'.$paramAccees['image'].'"> '.$paramAccees['libelle'].'</span></a></li></ul>'; } The trouble is that actualy it return to me an empty line. I really do not know what I'm wrong doin: I call the function like that: <?php affichParam($paramAccees) ?> In a second time I will add more value, so I think I will have to do a for each loop or something like that. But actualy I just would like to display the first record. Any kind of help will be much apprecitaed

  Read the article

• Java: Match tokens between two strings and return the number of matched tokens

  - by Cryssie

  Need some help to find the number of matched tokens between two strings. I have a list of string stored in ArrayList (example given below): Line 0 : WRB VBD NN VB IN CC RB VBP NNP Line 1 : WDT NNS VBD DT NN NNP NNP Line 2 : WRB MD PRP VB DT NN IN NNS POS JJ NNS Line 3 : WDT NN VBZ DT NN IN DT JJ NN IN DT NNP Line 4 : WP VBZ DT JJ NN IN NN Here, you can see each string consists of a bunch of tokens separated by spaces. So, there's three things I need to work with.. Compare the first token (WRB) in Line 0 to the tokens in Line 1 to see if they match. Move on to the next tokens in Line 0 until a match is found. If there's a match, mark the matched tokens in Line 1 so that it will not be matched again. Return the number of matched tokens between Line 0 and Line 1. Return the distance of the matched tokens. Example: token NN is found on position 3 on line 0 and position 5 on Line 1. Distance = |3-5| = 2 I've tried using split string and store it to String[] but String[] is fixed and doesn't allow shrinking or adding of new elements. Tried Pattern Matcher but with disasterous results. Tried a few other methods but there's some problems with my nested for loops..(will post part of my coding if it will help). Any advice or pointers on how to solve this problem this would be very much appreciated. Thank you very much.

  Read the article

• Strange Ruby String Selection

  - by Daniel

  The string in question (read from a file): if (true) then { _this = createVehicle ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir -2.109278; }; Retrieved from a large list of similar (all same file) strings via the following: get_stringR(string,"if","};") And the function code: def get_stringR(a,b,c) b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.rindex(c) c ||= b r = a[b,c] return r end As so far, this works fine, but what I wanted to do is select the array after "createVehicle", the following (I thought) should work. newstring = get_string(myString,"\[","\];") Note get_string is the same as get_stringR, except it uses the first occurrence of the pattern both times, rather then the first and last occurrence. The output should have been: ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; Instead it was the below, given via 'puts': ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir Some 40 characters past the point it should have retrieve, which was very strange... Second note, using both get_string and get_stringR produced the exact same result with the parameters given. I then decided to add the following to my get_string code: b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.index(c) c ||= b if c 40 then c -= 40 end r = a[b,c] return r And it works as expected (for every 'block' in the file, even though the strings after that array are not identical in any way), but something obviously isn't right :).

  Read the article

• filterSecurityInterceptor and metadatasource implementation spring-security

  - by Mike

  Hi! I created a class that implements the FilterInvocationSecurityMetadataSource interface. I implemented it like this: public List<ConfigAttribute> getAttributes(Object object) { FilterInvocation fi = (FilterInvocation) object; Object principal = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication().getPrincipal(); Long companyId = ((ExtenededUser) principal).getCompany().getId(); String url = fi.getRequestUrl(); // String httpMethod = fi.getRequest().getMethod(); List<ConfigAttribute> attributes = new ArrayList<ConfigAttribute>(); FilterSecurityService service = (FilterSecurityService) SpringBeanFinder.findBean("filterSecurityService"); Collection<Role> roles = service.getRoles(companyId); for (Role role : roles) { for (View view : role.getViews()) { if (view.getUrl().equalsIgnoreCase(url)) attributes.add(new SecurityConfig(role.getName() + "_" + role.getCompany().getName())); } } return attributes; } when I debug my application I see it reaches this class, it only reaches getAllConfigAttributes method, that is empty as I said, and return null. after that it prints this warning: Could not validate configuration attributes as the SecurityMetadataSource did not return any attributes from getAllConfigAttributes(). My aplicationContext- security is like this: <beans:bean id="filterChainProxy" class="org.springframework.security.web.FilterChainProxy"> <filter-chain-map path-type="ant"> <filter-chain filters="sif,filterSecurityInterceptor" pattern="/**" /> </filter-chain-map> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityInterceptor" class="org.springframework.security.web.access.intercept.FilterSecurityInterceptor"> <beans:property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> <beans:property name="accessDecisionManager" ref="accessDecisionManager" /> <beans:property name="securityMetadataSource" ref="filterSecurityMetadataSource" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityMetadataSource" class="com.mycompany.filter.FilterSecurityMetadataSource"> </beans:bean> what could be the problem?

  Read the article

• What is the best software design to use in this scenario

  - by domdefelice

  I need to generate HTML snippets using jQuery. The creation of those snippets depends on some data. The data is stored server-side, in session (where PHP is used). At the moment I achieved this - retrieving the data from the server via AJAX in form of JSON - and building the snippets via specific javascript functions that read those data The problem is that the complexity of the data is getting bigger and hence the serialization into JSON is getting even more difficult since I can't do it automatically. I can't do it automatically because some information are sensible so I generate a "stripped" version to send to the client. I know it is difficult to understand without any code to read, but I am hoping this is a common scenario and would be glad for any tip, suggestion or even design-pattern you can give me. Should I store both a complete and a stripped data on the server and then use some library to automatically generate the JSON from the stripped data? But this also means I have to get the two data synchronized. Or maybe I could move the logic server-side, this way avoiding sending the data. But this means sending javascript code (since I rely on jQuery). Maybe not a good idea. Feel free to ask me more details if this is not clear. Thank you for any help

  Read the article

• Why put a DAO layer over a persistence layer (like JDO or Hibernate)

  - by Todd Owen

  Data Access Objects (DAOs) are a common design pattern, and recommended by Sun. But the earliest examples of Java DAOs interacted directly with relational databases -- they were, in essence, doing object-relational mapping (ORM). Nowadays, I see DAOs on top of mature ORM frameworks like JDO and Hibernate, and I wonder if that is really a good idea. I am developing a web service using JDO as the persistence layer, and am considering whether or not to introduce DAOs. I foresee a problem when dealing with a particular class which contains a map of other objects: public class Book { // Book description in various languages, indexed by ISO language codes private Map<String,BookDescription> descriptions; } JDO is clever enough to map this to a foreign key constraint between the "BOOKS" and "BOOKDESCRIPTIONS" tables. It transparently loads the BookDescription objects (using lazy loading, I believe), and persists them when the Book object is persisted. If I was to introduce a "data access layer" and write a class like BookDao, and encapsulate all the JDO code within this, then wouldn't this JDO's transparent loading of the child objects be circumventing the data access layer? For consistency, shouldn't all the BookDescription objects be loaded and persisted via some BookDescriptionDao object (or BookDao.loadDescription method)? Yet refactoring in that way would make manipulating the model needlessly complicated. So my question is, what's wrong with calling JDO (or Hibernate, or whatever ORM you fancy) directly in the business layer? Its syntax is already quite concise, and it is datastore-agnostic. What is the advantage, if any, of encapsulating it in Data Access Objects?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426  | Next Page >