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• Problem executing script using Python and subprocces.call yet works in Bash

  - by Antoine Benkemoun

  Hello, For the first time, I am asking a little bit of help over here as I am more of a ServerFault person. I am doing some scripting in Python and I've been loving the language so far yet I have this little problem which is keeping my script from working. Here is the code line in question : subprocess.call('xen-create-image --hostname '+nom+' --memory '+memory+' --partitions=/root/scripts/part.tmp --ip '+ip+' --netmask '+netmask+' --gateway '+gateway+' --passwd',shell=True) I have tried the same thing with os.popen. All the variables are correctly set. When I execute the command in question in my regular Linux shell, it works perfectly fine but when I execute it using my Python scripts, I get bizarre errors. I even replaced subprocess.call() by the print function to make sure I am using the exact output of the command. I went looking into environment variables of my shell but they are pretty much the same... I'll post the error I am getting but I'm not sure it's relevant to my problem. Use of uninitialized value $lines[0] in substitution (s///) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 614. Use of uninitialized value $_ in pattern match (m//) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 628. I am not a Python expert so I'm most likely missing something here. Thank you in advance for your help, Antoine

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• Standardizing a Release/Tools group on a specific language

  - by grahzny

  I'm part of a six-member build and release team for an embedded software company. We also support a lot of developer tools, such as Atlassian's Fisheye, Jira, etc., Perforce, Bugzilla, AnthillPro, and a couple of homebrew tools (like my Django release notes generator). Most of the time, our team just writes little plugins for larger apps (ex: customize workflows in Anthill), long-term utility scripts (package up a release for QA), or things like Perforce triggers (don't let people check into a specific branch unless their change description includes a bug number; authenticate against Active Directory instead of Perforce's internal passwords). That's about the scale of our problems, although we sometimes tackle something slightly more sizable. My boss, who is reasonably technical, has asked us to standardize on one or two languages so we can more easily substitute for each other. He's advocating bash scripts and Perl, due to their universality and simplicity. I can see his point--we mostly do "glue", so why not use "glue" languages rather than saddle ourselves with something designed for much larger projects? Since some of the tools we work with are Java-based, we do need to use something that speaks JVM sometimes. (The path of least resistance for these projects is BeanShell and Groovy.) I feel a tremendous itch toward language advocacy, but I'm trying to avoid saying "We should use Python 'cause I like it and Perl is gross." Instead, I'm trying to come up with a good approach to defining our problem set: what problems do we solve with scripts? Would we benefit from a library of common functions by our team, or are most of our projects more isolated? What is it reasonable to expect my co-workers to learn? What languages give us the most ease of development and ease of modification? Can you folks suggest some useful ways to approach this problem, both for my own thinking process and to help me facilitate some brainstorming among my coworkers?

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• Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

  - by David Jeske

  .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

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• Most efficient way to check for DBNull and then assign to a variable?

  - by ilitirit

  This question comes up occasionally but I haven't seen a satisfactory answer. A typical pattern is (row is a DataRow): if (row["value"] != DBNull.Value) { someObject.Member = row["value"]; } My first question is which is more efficient (I've flipped the condition): row["value"] == DBNull.Value; // Or row["value"] is DBNull; // Or row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull) // Or... any suggestions? This indicates that .GetType() should be faster, but maybe the compiler knows a few tricks I don't? Second question, is it worth caching the value of row["value"] or does the compiler optimize the indexer away anyway? eg. object valueHolder; if (DBNull.Value == (valueHolder = row["value"])) {} Disclaimers: row["value"] exists. I don't know the column index of the column (hence the column name lookup) I'm asking specifically about checking for DBNull and then assignment (not about premature optimization etc). Edit: I benchmarked a few scenarios (time in seconds, 10000000 trials): row["value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:01.5478995 row["value"] is DBNull: 00:00:01.6306578 row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull): 00:00:02.0138757 Object.ReferenceEquals has the same performance as "==" The most interesting result? If you mismatch the name of the column by case (eg. "Value" instead of "value", it takes roughly ten times longer (for a string): row["Value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:12.2792374 The moral of the story seems to be that if you can't look up a column by it's index, then ensure that the column name you feed to the indexer matches the DataColumn's name exactly. Caching the value also appears to be nearly twice as fast: No Caching: 00:00:03.0996622 With Caching: 00:00:01.5659920 So the most efficient method seems to be: object temp; string variable; if (DBNull.Value != (temp = row["value"]) { variable = temp.ToString(); } This was a good learning experience.

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• jQuery Tools alert works once (but only once)

  - by Jim Miller

  I'm trying to build a simple alert mechanism with jQuery Tools -- in response to a bit of Javascript code, pop up an overlay with a message and an OK button that, when clicked, makes the overlay go away. Trivial, or it should be. I've been slavishly following http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/trigger.html, and have something that works fine the first time it's invoked, but only that time. If I repeat the JS action that should expose the overlay, it doesn't. My content/DIV: <div class='modal' id='the_alert'> <div id='modal_content' class='modal_content'> <h2>hi there</h2> this is the body <p> <button class='close'>OK</button> </p> </div> <div id='modal_background' class='modal_background'><img src='/images/overlay/f9f9f9-180.png' class='stretch' alt='' /></div> </div> and the Javascript: function showOverlayDialog() { $('#the_alert').overlay({ mask: {color: '#cccccc', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.9}, closeOnClick: false, load: true }); } As I said: When showOverlayDialog() is invoked the first time, the overlay appears just like it should, and goes away when the "OK" button is clicked. But if I cause showOverlayDialog() to run again, without reloading the page, nothing happens. If I reload the page, then the pattern repeats -- the first invocation brings up the overlay, but the second one doesn't. I'm obviously missing something -- any advice out there? Thanks!

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• Possible to have multiple Profiles in ASP.NET for different users?

  - by asple

  My application has a few different user types with their own members. For example, I have the student user as well as the teacher user. I authenticate my users through active directory in my custom MembershipProvider's ValidateUser method. While querying AD, I pull out all their relevant information. I'd like to put that information into a Profile, but from what I've read and the examples I've sen, you can only define a single Profile (like so): <profile defaultProvider="CustomProfileProvider" enabled="true"> <properties> <add name="YearLevel" type="String" /> <add name="Name" type="String" /> <add name="Age" type="String" /> </properties> </profile> The above profile would work for a student, but not for a teacher, who does not have a value for "YearLevel" in AD. Is it possible to have multiple profiles to accomplish this? Or is it easier to add all properties from AD spanning all user types, then in my code, just check what user type they are and then access their specific properties?

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• Resolving Circular References for Objects Implementing ISerializable

  - by Chris

  I'm writing my own IFormatter implementation and I cannot think of a way to resolve circular references between two types that both implement ISerializable. Here's the usual pattern: [Serializable] class Foo : ISerializable { private Bar m_bar; public Foo(Bar bar) { m_bar = bar; m_bar.Foo = this; } public Bar Bar { get { return m_bar; } } protected Foo(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_bar = (Bar)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Bar)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_bar); } } [Serializable] class Bar : ISerializable { private Foo m_foo; public Foo Foo { get { return m_foo; } set { m_foo = value; } } public Bar() { } protected Bar(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_foo = (Foo)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Foo)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_foo); } } I then do this: Bar b = new Bar(); Foo f = new Foo(b); bool equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); // true // Serialise and deserialise b equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); If I use an out-of-the-box BinaryFormatter to serialise and deserialise b, the above test for reference-equality returns true as one would expect. But I cannot conceive of a way to achieve this in my custom IFormatter. In a non-ISerializable situation I can simply revisit "pending" object fields using reflection once the target references have been resolved. But for objects implementing ISerializable it is not possible to inject new data using SerializationInfo. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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• filterSecurityInterceptor and metadatasource implementation spring-security

  - by Mike

  Hi! I created a class that implements the FilterInvocationSecurityMetadataSource interface. I implemented it like this: public List<ConfigAttribute> getAttributes(Object object) { FilterInvocation fi = (FilterInvocation) object; Object principal = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication().getPrincipal(); Long companyId = ((ExtenededUser) principal).getCompany().getId(); String url = fi.getRequestUrl(); // String httpMethod = fi.getRequest().getMethod(); List<ConfigAttribute> attributes = new ArrayList<ConfigAttribute>(); FilterSecurityService service = (FilterSecurityService) SpringBeanFinder.findBean("filterSecurityService"); Collection<Role> roles = service.getRoles(companyId); for (Role role : roles) { for (View view : role.getViews()) { if (view.getUrl().equalsIgnoreCase(url)) attributes.add(new SecurityConfig(role.getName() + "_" + role.getCompany().getName())); } } return attributes; } when I debug my application I see it reaches this class, it only reaches getAllConfigAttributes method, that is empty as I said, and return null. after that it prints this warning: Could not validate configuration attributes as the SecurityMetadataSource did not return any attributes from getAllConfigAttributes(). My aplicationContext- security is like this: <beans:bean id="filterChainProxy" class="org.springframework.security.web.FilterChainProxy"> <filter-chain-map path-type="ant"> <filter-chain filters="sif,filterSecurityInterceptor" pattern="/**" /> </filter-chain-map> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityInterceptor" class="org.springframework.security.web.access.intercept.FilterSecurityInterceptor"> <beans:property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> <beans:property name="accessDecisionManager" ref="accessDecisionManager" /> <beans:property name="securityMetadataSource" ref="filterSecurityMetadataSource" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityMetadataSource" class="com.mycompany.filter.FilterSecurityMetadataSource"> </beans:bean> what could be the problem?

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• Excel VBA SQL Import

  - by user307655

  Hi All, I have the following code which imports data from a spreadsheet to SQL directly from Excel VBA. The code works great. However I am wondering if somebody can help me modify the code to: 1) Check if data from column A already exists in the SQL Table 2) If exists, then only update rather than import as a new role 3) if does not exist then import as a new role. Thanks again for your help Sub SQLIM() ' Send data to SQL Server ' This code loads data from an Excel Worksheet to an SQL Server Table ' Data should start in column A and should be in the same order as the server table ' Autonumber fields should NOT be included' ' FOR THIS CODE TO WORK ' In VBE you need to go Tools References and check Microsoft Active X Data Objects 2.x library Dim Cn As ADODB.Connection Dim ServerName As String Dim DatabaseName As String Dim TableName As String Dim UserID As String Dim Password As String Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim RowCounter As Long Dim ColCounter As Integer Dim NoOfFields As Integer Dim StartRow As Long Dim EndRow As Long Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset ServerName = "WIN764X\sqlexpress" ' Enter your server name here DatabaseName = "two28it" ' Enter your database name here TableName = "COS" ' Enter your Table name here UserID = "" ' Enter your user ID here ' (Leave ID and Password blank if using windows Authentification") Password = "" ' Enter your password here NoOfFields = 7 ' Enter number of fields to update (eg. columns in your worksheet) StartRow = 2 ' Enter row in sheet to start reading records EndRow = shtSheetToWork.Cells(Rows.Count, 1).End(xlUp).Row ' Enter row of last record in sheet ' CHANGES ' Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet ' Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") '** Set Cn = New ADODB.Connection Cn.Open "Driver={SQL Server};Server=" & ServerName & ";Database=" & DatabaseName & _ ";Uid=" & UserID & ";Pwd=" & Password & ";" rs.Open TableName, Cn, adOpenKeyset, adLockOptimistic For RowCounter = StartRow To EndRow rs.AddNew For ColCounter = 1 To NoOfFields rs(ColCounter - 1) = shtSheetToWork.Cells(RowCounter, ColCounter) Next ColCounter Next RowCounter rs.UpdateBatch ' Tidy up rs.Close Set rs = Nothing Cn.Close Set Cn = Nothing End Sub

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• Xcode - duplicate Target - new Target fails to build

  - by SirRatty

  Hi all, using Xcode 3.2.5 on 10.6.6 (10J521) I have an Xcode project containing 1 Target: "MyApp". It builds and runs successfully. As well as source and resource files, the Target contains a "Copy Files" build phase which copies "Sparkle.framework" in. The framework is in the same directory as the project. I want to duplicate this Target. Steps taken: Did "Clean all Targets". Right-clicked on the "MyApp" Target within Xcode, and then chose "Duplicate". Renamed the duplicated target to "MyAppTarget2". Selected "MyAppTarget2" as the Active Target from the popup menu in the top-left. Did "Build". The problem: error: Sparkle/Sparkle.h: No such file or directory This is puzzling! Each Build step appears to have been replicated in the duplicated Target, including the "Copy Files" phase. The Sparkle.framework exists at the path indicated by [Get Info on the Copy Phase item]. If I right-click on the Sparkle.framework file within the "Copy Files" build phase of the duplicated Target, and select "Reveal in Finder", then the correct Sparkle.framework file is shown. The required file exists at Sparkle.framework/Headers/Sparkle.h If I switch back to the original "MyApp" target, it builds and runs successfully. Am I doing something obviously wrong here? Thanks.

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• CUDA: When to use shared memory and when to rely on L1 caching?

  - by Roger Dahl

  After Compute Capability 2.0 (Fermi) was released, I've wondered if there are any use cases left for shared memory. That is, when is it better to use shared memory than just let L1 perform its magic in the background? Is shared memory simply there to let algorithms designed for CC < 2.0 run efficiently without modifications? To collaborate via shared memory, threads in a block write to shared memory and synchronize with __syncthreads(). Why not simply write to global memory (through L1), and synchronize with __threadfence_block()? The latter option should be easier to implement since it doesn't have to relate to two different locations of values, and it should be faster because there is no explicit copying from global to shared memory. Since the data gets cached in L1, threads don't have to wait for data to actually make it all the way out to global memory. With shared memory, one is guaranteed that a value that was put there remains there throughout the duration of the block. This is as opposed to values in L1, which get evicted if they are not used often enough. Are there any cases where it's better too cache such rarely used data in shared memory than to let the L1 manage them based on the usage pattern that the algorithm actually has?

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• Solution for cleaning an image cache directory on the SD card

  - by synic

  I've got an app that is heavily based on remote images. They are usually displayed alongside some data in a ListView. A lot of these images are new, and a lot of the old ones will never be seen again. I'm currently storing all of these images on the SD card in a custom cache directory (ala evancharlton's magnatune app). I noticed that after about 10 days, the directory totals ~30MB. This is quite a bit more than I expected, and it leads me to believe that I need to come up with a good solution for cleaning out old files... and I just can't think of a great one. Maybe you can help. These are the ideas that I've had: Delete old files. When the app starts, start a background thread, and delete all files older than X days. This seems to pose a problem, though, in that, if the user actively uses the app, this could make the device sluggish if there are hundreds of files to delete. After creating the files on the SD card, call new File("/path/to/file").deleteOnExit(); This will cause all files to be deleted when the VM exits (I don't even know if this method works on Android). This is acceptable, because, even though the files need to be cached for the session, they don't need to be cached for the next session. It seems like this will also slow the device down if there are a lot of files to be deleted when the VM exits. Delete old files, up to a max number of files. Same as #1, but only delete N number of files at a time. I don't really like this idea, and if the user was very active, it may never be able to catch up and keep the cache directory clean. That's about all I've got. Any suggestions would be appreciated.

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• Is ASP.NET MVC is really MVC? Or how to separate model from controller?

  - by Andrey

  Hi all, This question is a bit rhetorical. At some point i got a feeling that ASP.NET MVC is not that authentic implementation of MVC pattern. Or i didn't understood it. Consider following domain: electric bulb, switch and motion detector. They are connected together and when you enter the room motion detector switches on the bulb. If i want to represent them as MVC: switch is model, because it holds the state and contains logic bulb is view, because it presents the state of model to human motion detector is controller, because it converts user actions to generic model commands Switch has one private field (On/Off) as a State and two methods (PressOn, PressOff). If you call PressOn when it is Off it goes to On, if you call it again state doesn't change. Bulb can be replaced with buzzer, motion detector with timer or button, but the model still represent the same logic. Eventually system will have same behavior. This is how i understand classical MVC decomposition, please correct me if i am wrong. Now let's decompose it in ASP.Net MVC way. Bulb is still a view Controller will be switch + motion detector Model is some object that will just pass state to bulb. So the logic that defines behavior moves to controller. Question 1: Is my understanding of MVC and ASP.NET MVC correct? Question 2: If yes, do you agree that ASP.NET MVC is not 100% accurate implementation? And back to life. The final question is how to separate model from controller in case of ASP.NET MVC. There can be two extremes. Controller does basic stuff and call model to do all the logic. Another is controller does all the logic and model is just something like class with properties that is mapped to DB. Question 3: Where should i draw the line between this extremes? How to balance? Thanks, Andrey

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• Strange Ruby String Selection

  - by Daniel

  The string in question (read from a file): if (true) then { _this = createVehicle ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir -2.109278; }; Retrieved from a large list of similar (all same file) strings via the following: get_stringR(string,"if","};") And the function code: def get_stringR(a,b,c) b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.rindex(c) c ||= b r = a[b,c] return r end As so far, this works fine, but what I wanted to do is select the array after "createVehicle", the following (I thought) should work. newstring = get_string(myString,"\[","\];") Note get_string is the same as get_stringR, except it uses the first occurrence of the pattern both times, rather then the first and last occurrence. The output should have been: ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; Instead it was the below, given via 'puts': ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir Some 40 characters past the point it should have retrieve, which was very strange... Second note, using both get_string and get_stringR produced the exact same result with the parameters given. I then decided to add the following to my get_string code: b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.index(c) c ||= b if c 40 then c -= 40 end r = a[b,c] return r And it works as expected (for every 'block' in the file, even though the strings after that array are not identical in any way), but something obviously isn't right :).

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• Using JavaCC to infer semantics from a Composite tree

  - by Skice

  Hi all, I am programming (in Java) a very limited symbolic calculus library that manages polynomials, exponentials and expolinomials (sums of elements like "x^n * e^(c x)"). I want the library to be extensible in the sense of new analytic forms (trigonometric, etc.) or new kinds of operations (logarithm, domain transformations, etc.), so a Composite pattern that represent the syntactic structure of an expression, together with a bunch of Visitors for the operations, does the job quite well. My problem arise when I try to implement operations that depends on the semantics more than on the syntax of the Expression (like integrals, for instance: there are a lot of resolution methods for specific classes of functions, but these same classes can be represented with more than a single syntax). So I thought I need something to "parse" the Composite tree to infer its semantics in order to invoke the right integration method (if any). Someone pointed me to JavaCC, but all the examples I've seen deal only with string parsing; so, I don't know if I'm digging in the right direction. Some suggestions? (I hope to have been clear enough!)

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• reading excel using scriptom for groovy, producing xml

  - by john

  Dear friends, I got a program from http://kousenit.wordpress.com/2007/03/27/groovyness-with-excel-and-xml but I got some very strange results: 1) I can still print xml but two records are not readable. 2) I got exception suggesting some thing missing could some experts enlighten me about what might go wrong? I copied the program and result below. thanks! import org.codehaus.groovy.scriptom.ActiveXObject def addresses = new File('addresses1.xls').canonicalPath def xls = new ActiveXObject('Excel.Application') def workbooks = xls.Workbooks def workbook = workbooks.Open(addresses) // select the active sheet def sheet = workbook.ActiveSheet sheet.Visible = true // get the XML builder ready def builder = new groovy.xml.MarkupBuilder() builder.people { for (row in 2..1000) { def ID = sheet.Range("A${row}").Value.value if (!ID) break // use the builder to write out each person person (id: ID) { name { firstName sheet.Range("B${row}").Value.value lastName sheet.Range("C${row}").Value.value } address { street sheet.Range("D${row}").Value.value city sheet.Range("E${row}").Value.value state sheet.Range("F${row}").Value.value zip sheet.Range("G${row}").Value.value } } } } // close the workbook without asking for saving the file workbook.Close(false, null, false) // quits excel xls.Quit() xls.release() however, i got the following results: <people> <person id='1234.0'> <name> <firstName>[C@128a25</firstName> <lastName>[C@5e45</lastName> </name> <address> <street>[C@179ef7c</street> <city>[C@12f95de</city> <state>[C@138b554</state> <zip>12345.0</zip> </address> </person> </person> Exception thrown May 12, 2010 4:07:15 AM org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.StackTraceUtils sanitize WARNING: Sanitizing stacktrace: java.lang.NullPointerException at org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.callsite.GetEffectivePojoFieldSite.acceptGetProperty(GetEffectivePojoFieldSite.java:43) at org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.callsite.AbstractCallSite.callGetProperty(AbstractCallSite.java:237) at sriptom4_excel$_run_closure1.doCall(sriptom4_excel.groovy:18) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) [1]: http://kousenit.wordpress.com/2007/03/27/groovyness-with-excel-and-xml/

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• rails HABTM versus view (formtastic)

  - by VP

  I have two models: The model NetworkObject try to describe "hosts". I want to have a rule with source and destination, so i'm trying to use both objects from the same class since it dont makes sense to create two different classes. class NetworkObject < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :ip, :netmask, :name has_many :statements has_many :rules, :through =>:statements end class Rule < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :active, :destination_ids, :source_ids has_many :statements has_many :sources, :through=> :statements, :source=> :network_object has_many :destinations, :through => :statements, :source=> :network_object end To build the HABTM i did choose the Model JOIN. so in this case i created a model named Statement with: class Statement < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :source_id, :rule_id, :destination_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :destination_id belongs_to :rule end The problem is: is right to add two belongs_to to the same class using different foreign_keys? I tried all combinations like: belongs_to :sources, :class_name => :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id but no success.. anything that i am doing wrong?

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• How to run crontab-e?

  - by user1723760

  I am currently reading this documentation here where I want to use CRON. Now it says in the first section that I need to enter in a command: crontab -e. Do I only need to enter this in a simple text editor file and just upload the file into the server? I am using helios.hud.ac.uk so would this be the correct command: * * 25 10 * helios.hud.ac.uk/u00000000/Mobile/inactivatesession.php This will execute this php script below (inactivatesession.php): <?php include('connect.php'); $createDate = mktime(0,0,0,10,25,date("Y")); $selectedDate = date('d-m-Y', ($createDate)); $sql = "UPDATE Session SET Active = ? WHERE DATE_FORMAT(SessionDate,'%Y-%m-%d' ) <= ?"; $update = $mysqli->prepare($sql); $update->bind_param("is", 0, $selectedDate); $update->execute(); ?> The url for this php script is: helios.hud.ac.uk/u00000000/Mobile/inactivatesession.php I havn't used CRON before so just need little help on it. Thanks

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• Passing arguments to objects created using the new operator?

  - by Abhijit

  Hi guys, I have a small C++ problem to which I don't know the best solution. I have two classes A and B as follows: class A { int n; B* b; public: A(int num): n(num) { b = new B[n]; for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) { b[i].setRef(this); } } ~A() { delete [] b; } }; class B { A* a; public: B() { } B(A* aref) { a = aref; } void setRef(A* aref) { a = aref; } }; I am creating an object of class A by passing to its constructor the number of objects of class B I want to be created. I want every object of class B to hold a pointer to the class A object that creates it. I think the best way to do this would be by passing the pointer to the class A object as a constructor argument to the class B object. However, since I'm using the new operator, the no-args constructor for class B is called. As a result, the only solution I can see here is calling the setRef(A*) method for every object of class B after it has been constructed using the new operator. Is there a better solution/design pattern that would be more applicable here? Would using placement new for class B be a better solution? Thanks in advance for your help.

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• Convert pre-IEEE-574 C++ floating-point numbers to/from C#

  - by Richard Kucia

  Before .Net, before math coprocessors, before IEEE-574, Microsoft defined a bit pattern for floating-point numbers. Old versions of the C++ compiler happily used that definition. I am writing a C# app that needs to read/write such floating-point numbers in a file. How can I do the conversions between the 2 bit formats? I need conversion methods in both directions. This app is going to run in a PocketPC/WinCE environment. Changing the structure of the file is out-of-scope for this project. Is there a C++ compiler option that instructs it to use the old FP format? That would be ideal. I could then exchange data between the C# code and C++ code by using a null-terminated text string, and the C++ methods would be simple wrappers around sprintf and atof functions. At the very least, I'm hoping someone can reply with the bit definitions for the old FP format, so I can put together a low-level bit manipulation algorithm if necessary. Thanks.

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• Elegant Algorithm for Parsing Data Stream Into Record

  - by Matt Long

  I am interfacing with a hardware device that streams data to my app over Wifi. The data is streaming in just fine. The data contains a character header (DATA:) that indicates a new record has begun. The issues is that the data I receive doesn't necessarily fall on the header boundary, so I have to capture the data until what I've captured contains the header. Then, everything that precedes the header goes into the previous record and everything that comes after it goes into a new record. I have this working, but wondered if anyone has done this before and has a good computer-sciencey way to solve the problem. Here's what I do: Convert the NSData of the current read to an NSString Append the NSString to a placeholder string Check placeholder string for the header (DATA:). If the header is not there, just wait for the next read. If the header exists, append whatever precedes it to a previous record placeholder and hand that placeholder off to an array as a complete record that I can further parse into fields. Take whatever shows up after the header and place it in the record placeholder so that it can be appended to in the next read. Repeat steps 3 - 5. Let me know if you see any flaws with this or have a suggestion for a better way. Seems there should be some design pattern for this, but I can't think of one. Thanks.

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• What is the best software design to use in this scenario

  - by domdefelice

  I need to generate HTML snippets using jQuery. The creation of those snippets depends on some data. The data is stored server-side, in session (where PHP is used). At the moment I achieved this - retrieving the data from the server via AJAX in form of JSON - and building the snippets via specific javascript functions that read those data The problem is that the complexity of the data is getting bigger and hence the serialization into JSON is getting even more difficult since I can't do it automatically. I can't do it automatically because some information are sensible so I generate a "stripped" version to send to the client. I know it is difficult to understand without any code to read, but I am hoping this is a common scenario and would be glad for any tip, suggestion or even design-pattern you can give me. Should I store both a complete and a stripped data on the server and then use some library to automatically generate the JSON from the stripped data? But this also means I have to get the two data synchronized. Or maybe I could move the logic server-side, this way avoiding sending the data. But this means sending javascript code (since I rely on jQuery). Maybe not a good idea. Feel free to ask me more details if this is not clear. Thank you for any help

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• I like the way they Design/Architecture it but how do I implement this

  - by Rachel

  Summary: I have different components on homepage and each components shows some promotion to the user. I have Cart as one Component and depending upon content of the cart promotion are show. I have to track user online activities and send that information to Omniture for Report Generation. Now my components are loaded asynchronously basically are loaded when AjaxRequest is fired up and so there is not fix pattern or rather information on when components will appear on the webpages. Now in order to pass information to Omniture I need to call track function on $(document).(ready) and append information for each components(7 parameters are required by Omniture for each component). So in the init:config function of each component am calling Omniture and passing paramters but now no. of Omniture calls is directly proportional to no. of Components on the webpage but this is not acceptable as each call to Omniture is very expensive. Now I am looking for a way where in I can club the information about 7 parameters and than make one Call to Omniture wherein I pass those information. Points to note is that I do not know when the components are loaded and so there is no pre-defined time or no. of components that would be loaded. The thing is am calling track function when document is ready but components are loaded after call to Omniture has been made and so my question is Q: How can I collect the information for all the components and than just make one call to Omniture to send those information ? As mentioned, I do not know when the components are loaded as they are done on the Ajax Request. Hope I am able to explain my challenge and would appreciate if some one can provide from Design/Architect Solutions for the Challenge.

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• bxSlider-4 text slide pass into the next slide

  - by Martialp

  I use http://bxslider.com/ to slide some content, just simple text. But it seem to have a problem with the text, not the image. I post a simple live exemple : http://jsfiddle.net/Sbt75/324/ As you can see on the exemple, we see the previous text from the previous slide on the left of the active slide. <div class="row"> <div class="large-6 columns"> <ul class="bxslider"> <li><p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit. Accusantium, obcaecati, laudantium, blanditiis, adipisci quod eaque porro sapiente eligendi dicta voluptates voluptatum sunt aperiam totam modi quis vitae maxime! Dolor, possimus.</p></li> <li>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit. Odit, recusandae, delectus amet ipsa voluptate tempora architecto ad blanditiis officia perspiciatis nesciunt at ducimus quas nihil fuga. Qui optio minima accusamus?</li> <li><p class="right"> il etait une fois un grand mechant loupqui s'appelet jean et qui aimer courir dans l'herbe avec une grande harpe pour jouer dvant les enfants Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit. Odit, recusandae, delectus amet ipsa voluptate tempora architecto ad blanditiis officia perspiciatis nesciunt at ducimus quas nihil fuga. Qui optio minima accusamus? </p> </li> </ul> </div> </div> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.bxslider').bxSlider({ auto: false, autoControls: false, nextSelector: '#slider-next', prevSelector: '#slider-prev', nextText: 'Onward ?', prevText: '? Go back' }); });

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• Zend: Fetching row from session db table after generating session id

  - by Nux

  Hi, I'm trying to update the session table used by Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable directly after authenticating the user and writing the session to the DB. But I can neither update nor fetch the newly inserted row, even though the session id I use to check (Zend_Session::getId()) is valid and the row is indeed inserted into the table. Upon fetching all session ids (on the same request) the one I newly inserted is missing from the results. It does appear in the results if I fetch it with something else. I've checked whether it is a problem with transactions and that does not seem to be the problem - there is no active transaction when I'm fetching the results. I've also tried fetching a few seconds after writing using sleep(), which doesn't help. $auth->getStorage()->write($ident); //sleep(1) $update = $this->db->update('session', array('uid' => $ident->user_id), 'id='.$this->db->quote(Zend_Session::getId())); $qload = 'SELECT id FROM session'; $load = $this->db->fetchAll($qload); echo $qload; print_r($load); $update fails. $load doesn't contain the row that was written with $auth-getStorage()-write($identity). $qload does contain the correct query - copying it to somewhere else leads to the expected result, that is the inserted row is included in the results. Database used is MySQL - InnoDB. If someone knows how to directly fix this (i.e. on the same request, not doing something like updating after redirecting to another page) without modifying Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable: Thank you very much!

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