Search Results

Search found 43110 results on 1725 pages for 'noob question'.

Page 418/1725 | < Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >

  • Subdomain Routing Rules (using chaining) Broke after upgrading to Zend Framework 1.9.5, but only for

    - by Dan
    I asked a similar question months ago (see How do I write Routing Chains for a Subdomain in Zend Framework in a routing INI file?), on how to write chaining rules in an app.ini format. The answer to this question worked wonderfully! Now, however, I have upgraded to the latest version of the Zend Framework 1.9.5 (I needed to upgrade for another issue) and now my subdomains no longer work! To clarify, if I visit subdomain.domain.com, it does not recognize my rule. However, if I visit subdomain.domain.com/somepage/ it does recognize my routing rule. Here is my code: ;; the following is apparently being ignored, and does not work routes.manager.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" routes.manager.route = "manager.sitename.com" routes.manager.defaults.module = "manager" ;; this is not being ignored and works! routes.manager.chains.settings.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Static" routes.manager.chains.settings.route = "/settings" routes.manager.chains.settings.defaults.controller = "manager" routes.manager.chains.settings.defaults.action = "settings" So for example, if I go to manager.sitename.com, it just redirects to my default index and controller (does not access the module, $this-getRequest()-getModuleName() is blank). However, if I go to manager.sitename.com/settings, the page comes up! This app.ini configuration works fine in ZF 1.7.8, But now since I upgraded to 1.9.5, it no longer works. I have tried adding routes.manager.defaults.controller = "manager" and routes.manager.defaults.action = 'index" to my configuration as well, but this didn't work. There is not much out there on the internet with chaining and app.ini dealing with Zend Framework. Any help on this issue would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

    Read the article

  • Detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on Windows Phone 7

    - by David_001
    Simple question: How do I detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on windows mobile 7? Is there an event I can add a listener to? It takes up about half the screen and I want to scroll the view up when it gets displayed... EDIT: A comment below indicates more clearly what I'm trying to do: I have a textbox input, and as the user types into it an autocomplete dropdown appears below it (like google suggest). By default, the active control (the textbox) scrolls into view when focussed, and the onscreen keyboard is directly below it. The onscreen keyboard appears in front of my autocomplete dropdown - what I want to do is make the screen scroll a little further up, so there's some room for my dropdown to be shown. The windows phone UI design guidelines say: "When the keyboard is deployed, the application should scroll to ensure the active edit control and the caret are in view". This happens fine, it's just the non-active dropdown gets hidden behind the onscreen keyboard. The guidelines also say that an application can choose to show the onscreen keyboard, and can also choose to close it. At the moment i'm stuck, and I don't think (based on my research and the replies to this question) that it's possible to detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed. I'm moving my investigation to see if it's possible to determine the "visible area" of the page (width & height in pixels for example), and combine this with an onfocus for the textbox... not sure if this will prove fruitful though.

    Read the article

  • Polling a web URL until event

    - by Jaxo
    I'm really sorry about the crappy title - if anybody has a better way of wording it, please edit it! I basically need to have a C# application run a function if the output of a URL is a certain value. For example, if the website says blue the background colour will be blue, red to make it red, etc. The problem is I don't want to spam my webserver with checks. The 4 bytes it downloads each time is negligible, but if I were to deploy this type of system on multiple computers, it would get slower and slower and the bandwidth would add up quickly. So my question is: How can my desktop application run a piece of code only when a web URL has a different output without checking each time? I can't use sockets, and any sort of LAN protocol won't end up working. My reasoning behind this potentially nefarious code is to be able to mute computers by updating a file on the website (as you may have seen in my previous question today, sorry!). I'd like it to be rather quick, and not have the refresh time minutes apart, a few seconds at the most would be ideal. How can I accomplish this? The website's code is easy, but getting the C# application to check when it changes is the part I'm stuck on. Nothing shows up on the website other than the command. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Is a web-server (e.g servlets) a good solution for an IM server?

    - by John
    I'm looking at a new app, broadly speaking an IM application with a strong client-server model - all communications go through a server so they can be logged centrally. The server will be Java in some form, clients could at this point be anything from a .NET Desktop app to Flex/Silverlight, to a simple web-interface using JS/AJAX. I had anticipated doing the server using standard J2EE so I get a thread-safe, multi-user server for 'free'... to make things simple let's say using Servlets (but in practice SpringMVC would be likely). This all seemed very neat but I'm concerned if the stateless nature of Servlets is the best approach. If my memory of servlets (been a year or two) is right, each time a client sent a HTTP request, typically a new message entered by the user, the servlet could not assume it had the user/chat in memory and might have to get it from the DB... regardless it has to look it up. Then it either has to use some PUSH system to inform other members of the chat, or cache that there are new messages, for other clients who poll the server using AJAX or similar - and when they poll it again has to lookup the chat, including new messages, and send the new data. I'm wondering if a better system would be the server is running core Java, and implements a socket-based communication with clients. This allows much more immediate data transfer and is more flexible if say the IM client included some game you could play. But then you're writing a custom server and sockets don't sound very friendly to a browser-based client on current browsers. Am I missing some big piece of the puzzle here, it kind of feels like I am? Perhaps a better way to ask the question would simply be "if the client was browser-based using HTML/JS and had to run on IE7+,FF2+ (i.e no HTML5), how would you implement the server?" edit: if you are going to suggest using XMPP, I have been trying to get my head around this in another question, so please consider if that's a more appropriate place to discuss this specifically.

    Read the article

  • HTML form never calls Javascript

    - by user1205577
    I have a set of radio buttons defined in HTML like so: <input type="radio" name="group" id="rad1" value="rad1" onClick="doStuff(this.id)">Option 1<br> <input type="radio" name="group" id="rad2" value="rad2" onClick="doStuff(this.id)">Option 2<br> Just before the </body> tag, I have the following JavaScript behavior defined: <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ function doStuff(var id){ alert("Doing stuff!"); } /*]]>*/ </script> When I run the program, the page loads as expected in my browser window and the radio buttons allow me to click them. The doStuff() function, however, is never called (I validated this using breakpoints as well). I also tried the following just to see if inline made the difference, but it seems the JavaScript is never called at all: <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ alert("JavaScript called!"); main(); function main(){ var group = document.getElementsByName('group'); for(var i=0; i<group.length; i++){ group[i].onclick = function(){ doStuff(this.id); }; } } /*]]>*/ </script> My question is, is there something special I need to do using HTML and JavaScript in this context? My question is not whether I should be using inline function calls or whether this is your favorite way to write code.

    Read the article

  • List all foreign key constraints that refer to a particular column in a specific table

    - by Sid
    I would like to see a list of all the tables and columns that refer (either directly or indirectly) a specific column in the 'main' table via a foreign key constraint that has the ON DELETE=CASCADE setting missing. The tricky part is that there would be an indirect relationships buried across up to 5 levels deep. (example: ... great-grandchild- FK3 = grandchild = FK2 = child = FK1 = main table). We need to dig up the leaf tables-columns, not just the very 1st level. The 'good' part about this is that execution speed isn't of concern, it'll be run on a backup copy of the production db to fix any relational issues for the future. I did SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys but that gives me the name of the constraint - not the names of the child-parent tables and the columns in the relationship (the juicy bits). Plus the previous designer used short, non-descriptive/random names for the FK constraints, unlike our practice below The way we're adding constraints into SQL Server: ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] FOREIGN KEY([UserId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[UserMasterTable] ([UserId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] GO The comments in this SO question inpire this question.

    Read the article

  • How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

    - by Roberto Sebestyen
    I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

    Read the article

  • Designers, Expression or SharePoint Designer, and real source control

    - by David Lively
    I'm trying desperately to move from VSS to a real source control system. Options include TFS and SVN. My designers need to keep their ability to modify source files and instantly preview their changes in a browser without having to commit their changes. Using FPSE with VSS, this works flawlessly, since saving a file causes the copy in the working folder on the dev server to be updated, so they can just save and refresh their browser which is pointed at the dev server. The site in question consists of 350k+ lines of classic ASP code and some new ASP.NET MVC. They only need to be able to modify views within the MVC code, not C#. Though Expression includes a version of Cassini for local debugging, Cassini does not support classic ASP. Surely someone has solved this problem before. It can't be necessary to install IIS on each designer's machine (this is absolutely untenable). I need a way to have a common working folder on a dev webserver updated whenever someone saves a file locally, just like using FPSE. I'd rather not write an FPSE proxy that knows how to talk to TFS/SVN. Any suggestions? (I know I've asked this question in the past, but I haven't yet found a solution.)

    Read the article

  • Use of Java [Interfaces / Abstract classes]

    - by Samuel
    Hello, Lately i decided to take a look at Java so i am still pretty new to it and also to the approach of OO programming, so i wanted to get some things straight before learning more, (i guess it's never to soon to start with good practices). I am programming a little 2D game for now but i think my question applies to any non trivial project. For the simplicity i'll provide examples from my game. I have different kinds of zombies, but they all have the same attributes (x, y, health, attack etc) so i wrote an interface Zombie which i implement by WalkingZombie, RunningZombie TeleportingZombie etc. Is this the best thing to do? Am i better of with an abstract class? Or with a super class? (I am not planning to partially implement functions - therefor my choice for an interface instead of an abstract class) I have one class describing the main character (Survivor) and since it is pretty big i wanted to write an interface with the different functions, so that i can easily see and share the structure of it. Is it good practice? Or is it simply a waste of space and time? I hope this question will not be rated as subjective because i thought that experienced programmers won't disagree about this kind of topic since the use of interfaces / super classes / abstract classes follows logical rules and is thereby not simply a personal choice. Thank you for your time -Samuel

    Read the article

  • Most efficient way to make an activity log

    - by Nathan
    I am making a "recent activity" tab to profiles on my site and I also am going to have a log for moderators to see everything that happens on the site. This would require making an activity log of some sort. I just don't know what would be better. I have 2 options: Make a table called "activity" and then every time someone does something, add a record to it with the type of action, user id, timestamp, etc. Problem: table could get very long. Join all 3 tables (questions, answers, answer_comments) and then somehow show all these on the page in the order in which the action was taken. Problem: this would be extremely hard because I have no clue how I could make it say "John commented on an answer on Question Title Here" by just joining 3 tables. Does anyone know of a better way of making an activity log in this situation? I am using PHP and MySQL. If this is either too inefficient or hard I will probably just forget the Recent Activity tab on profiles but I still need an activity log for moderators. Here's some SQL that I started making for option 2, but this would not work because there is no way of detecting whether the action is a comment, question, or answer when I echo the info in a while loop: SELECT q.*, a.*, ac.* FROM questions q JOIN answers a ON a.questionid = q.qid JOIN answer_comments ac ON c.answerid = a.ans_id WHERE q.user = $userid AND a.userid = $userid AND ac.userid = $userid ORDER BY q.created DESC, a.created DESC, ac.created DESC Thanks in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • Why would 1.000 subforms in a db be a bad idea?

    - by KlaymenDK
    Warm-up I'm trying to come up with a good way to implement customized document forms. It's for a tool to request access to applications; each application will want to ask its own specific questions. The thing is, we have one kind of (common) user who needs to fill in and submit documents based on templates, and another kind of (super) user who needs to be able to define what each template needs to contain. One implementation option would be to use a form (with the basic mandatory stuff), and have that form dynamically include a subform appropriate to the specific task at hand. The gist of the matter is that we could (=will!) quite easily end up having many hundreds of different subforms! (NB. These subforms will be maintained in an automated manner, but that is another topic that may be considered outside the scope of this Question.) Question It's common knowledge that having a lot of views in a Notes database is Bad Thing. But has anyone tried pushing the number of forms or subforms and made any experiences regarding performance?

    Read the article

  • call function inside a nested jquery plugin

    - by tchoesang
    There are many topics related to my question and i have been through most of them, but i haven't got it right. The closest post to my question is the following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1042072/how-to-call-functions-that-are-nested-inside-a-jquery-plugin Below is the jquery plugin i am using. On resize, the element sizes are recalculated. I am now trying to call the function resizeBind() from outside of the jquery plugin and it gives me error I tried the following combinations to call the function $.fn.splitter().resizeBind() $.fn.splitter.resizeBind() Any ideas, where i am getting wrong? ;(function($){ $.fn.splitter = function(args){ //Other functions ...... $(window).bind("resize", function(){ resizeBind(); }); function resizeBind(){ var top = splitter.offset().top; var wh = $(window).height(); var ww = $(window).width(); var sh = 0; // scrollbar height if (ww <0 && !jQuery.browser.msie ) sh = 17; var footer = parseInt($("#footer").css("height")) || 26; splitter.css("height", wh-top-footer-sh+"px"); $("#tabsRight").css("height", splitter.height()-30+"px"); $(".contentTabs").css("height", splitter.height()-70+"px"); } return this.each(function() { }); }; })(jQuery);

    Read the article

  • Jquery Block on my document .ready function not working

    - by kumar
    Hello Friens, I have this code, I added JS Script file to my Master page. <script src="/Scripts/Jquery.blockUI.js" type="text/javascript"></script> This Below code I have in my master page.on document.ready <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $.blockUI({ message: $('#question'), css: { width: '275px'} }); }); </script> <div id="question" style="display:none; cursor: default"> <h2 class="padding"><br />An unexpected system error has occurred while processing your request.<br /></h2> <h3>We apologize for this inconvenience.<br /> Please report this error to your system administrator with the following information:<br /><br /> Session id is:</h3> <input type="button" id="OK" value="OK" /> </asp:Content> On my Document.ready Function my BlockUi is not working? can any body tell me why its not working? thanks

    Read the article

  • Overlaying several CLR reference fields with each other in explicit struct?

    - by thr
    Edit: I'm well aware of that this works very well with value types, my specific question is about using this for reference types. I've been tinkering around with structs in .NET/C#, and I just found out that you can do this: using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Foo { } class Bar { } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit)] struct Overlaid { [FieldOffset(0)] public object AsObject; [FieldOffset(0)] public Foo AsFoo; [FieldOffset(0)] public Bar AsBar; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var overlaid = new Overlaid(); overlaid.AsObject = new Bar(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsBar); overlaid.AsObject = new Foo(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsFoo); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Basically circumventing having to do dynamic casting during runtime by using a struct that has an explicit field layout and then accessing the object inside as it's correct type. Now my question is: Can this lead to memory leaks somehow, or any other undefined behavior inside the CLR? Or is this a fully supported convention that is usable without any issues? I'm aware that this is one of the darker corners of the CLR, and that this technique is only a viable option in very few specific cases.

    Read the article

  • Updating Cells in a DataTable

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm writing a small app to do a little processing on some cells in a CSV file I have. I've figured out how to read and write CSV files with a library I found online, but I'm having trouble: the library parses CSV files into a DataTable, but, when I try to change a cell of the table, it isn't saving the change in the table! Below is the code in question. I've separated the process into multiple variables and renamed some of the things to make it easier to debug for this question. Code Inside the loop: string debug1 = readIn.Rows[i].ItemArray[numColumnToCopyTo].ToString(); string debug2 = readIn.Rows[i].ItemArray[numColumnToCopyTo].ToString().Trim(); string debug3 = readIn.Rows[i].ItemArray[numColumnToCopyFrom].ToString().Trim(); string towrite = debug2 + ", " + debug3; readIn.Rows[i].ItemArray[numColumnToCopyTo] = (object)towrite; After the loop: readIn.AcceptChanges(); When I debug my code, I see that towrite is being formed correctly and everything's OK, except that the row isn't updated: why isn't it working? I have a feeling that I'm making a simple mistake here: the last time I worked with DataTables (quite a long time ago), I had similar problems. If you're wondering why I'm adding another comma in towrite, it's because I'm combining a street address field with a zip code field - I hope that's not messing anything up. My code is kind of messy, as I'm only trying to edit one file to make a small fix, so sorry.

    Read the article

  • Boost shared_ptr use_count function

    - by photo_tom
    My application problem is the following - I have a large structure foo. Because these are large and for memory management reasons, we do not wish to delete them when processing on the data is complete. We are storing them in std::vector<boost::shared_ptr<foo>>. My question is related to knowing when all processing is complete. First decision is that we do not want any of the other application code to mark a complete flag in the structure because there are multiple execution paths in the program and we cannot predict which one is the last. So in our implementation, once processing is complete, we delete all copies of boost::shared_ptr<foo>> except for the one in the vector. This will drop the reference counter in the shared_ptr to 1. Is it practical to use shared_ptr.use_count() to see if it is equal to 1 to know when all other parts of my app are done with the data. One additional reason I'm asking the question is that the boost documentation on the shared pointer shared_ptr recommends not using "use_count" for production code.

    Read the article

  • Pointer reference and dereference

    - by ZhekakehZ
    I have the following code: #include <iostream> char ch[] = "abcd"; int main() { std::cout << (long)(int*)(ch+0) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+1) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+2) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+3) << std::endl; std::cout << *(int*)(ch+0) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+1) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+2) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+3) << std::endl; std::cout << int('abcd') << ' ' << int('bcd') << ' ' << int('cd') << ' ' << int('d') << std::endl; } My question is why the pointer of 'd' is 100 ? I think it should be: int('d') << 24; //plus some trash on stack after ch And the question is why the second and the third line of the stdout are different ? 6295640 6295641 6295642 6295643 1684234849 6579042 25699 100 1633837924 6447972 25444 100 Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Trying to create a group of button sprites

    - by user1449653
    Good day, I have like 15 images I need to be buttons. I have buttons working with a Box() (Box - looks like this) class Box(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def __init__(self): pygame.sprite.Sprite.__init__(self) self.image = pygame.Surface((35, 30)) self.image = self.image.convert() self.image.fill((255, 0, 0)) self.rect = self.image.get_rect() self.rect.centerx = 25 self.rect.centery = 505 self.dx = 10 self.dy = 10 I am trying to make the buttons work with image sprites. So I attempted to copy the class style of the box and do the same for my Icons.. code looks like this... class Icons(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def __init__(self): pygame.sprite.Sprite.__init__(self) self.image = pygame.image.load("images/airbrushIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() self.rect.x = 25 self.rect.y = 550 the code in the main() rect = image.get_rect() rect.x = 25 rect.y = 550 ic1 = Icons((screen.get_rect().x, screen.get_rect().y)) screen.blit(ic1.image, ic1.rect) pygame.display.update() This code produces a positional (accepts 1 argument but 2 are there) error or an image is not referenced error (inside the Icon class). I'm unsure if this is the right way to go about this anyways.. I know for sure that I need to load all the images (as sprites)... store them in an array... and then have my mouse check if it is clicking one of the items in the array using a for loop. Thanks. EDIT QUESTION 2: class Icons(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def init(self, *args): pygame.sprite.Sprite.init(self, *args) self.image = pygame.image.load("images/airbrushIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() ic1 = self.image self.rect.x = 10 self.rect.y = 490 self.image = pygame.image.load("images/fillIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() ic2 = self.image self.rect.x = 10 self.rect.y = 540 Thanks to your help I got the Icons class loading ONE image. Its not loading both. Obviously because its being overwritten by the second one. It seems that "class" for this purpose isn't what I need. Which begs the question how I make sprites outside of a class.. If there is a way to make the class work please let me know.

    Read the article

  • Cookies not working for password-protected Pages on WordPress

    - by KaOSoFt
    Initially I had the issue reported in this question. Now, what I noticed is that there are some browsers that accept the password, and there are some which don't. Difference? For some reason the cookie is generated when I log in into the Administration module, but it isn't when I write down the password to access the page, forcing it to simply reload. I can see the cookie created for the log-in, but I can see none for the password-protected Page. These happens on Internet Explorer, both version 7 and 8; only on some machines, though, but most of them fail this. I already tried white-listing the URL, and even letting it accept ALL cookies, to no avail. What may be the cause? If perhaps it's got something to do with question above, please help me! Thanks in advance. PS: If you know of another, cookie-free method to make a simple authentication, please link me to it. Thanks. Oh, and by the way, this is inside an Intranet with static, class C IPs.

    Read the article

  • How can I use Perl to determine whether the contents of two files are identical?

    - by Zaid
    This question comes from a need to ensure that changes I've made to code doesn't affect the values it outputs to text file. Ideally, I'd roll a sub to take in two filenames and return 1or return 0 depending on whether the contents are identical or not, whitespaces and all. Given that text-processing is Perl's forté, it should be quite easy to compare two files and determine whether they are identical or not (code below untested). use strict; use warnings; sub files_match { my ( $fileA, $fileB ) = @_; open my $file1, '<', $fileA; open my $file2, '<', $fileB; while (my $lineA = <$file1>) { next if $lineA eq <$file2>; return 0 and last; } return 1; } The only way I can think of (sans CPAN modules) is to open the two files in question, and read them in line-by-line until a difference is found. If no difference is found, the files must be identical. But this approach is limited and clumsy. What if the total lines differ in the two files? Should I open and close to determine line count, then re-open to scan the texts? Yuck. I don't see anything in perlfaq5 relating to this. I want to stay away from modules unless they come with the core Perl 5.6.1 distribution.

    Read the article

  • How to override jquery's show() and hide() functions

    - by Max Williams
    hi all Short version of question: see title Long version of question: I've used jquery's show() and hide() functions extensively in my code and just encountered a bit of a problem: they work by changing the display attribute of the element to 'block' or 'none' respectively, so that if you have somethin that has display: inline and then hide and show it, you've changed its display to block, which screws up the layout in a couple of cases. In my code, whenever i want something to be hidden initially i give it a class 'hidden'. This class is simply {display: none}. I'd like the change show and hide to remove or add this class, instead of directly changing the display attribute, so that if you add the hidden class and then remove it again (ie hide and show something) then it's back to exactly how it was to start off with (since adding a class overrides the attributes rather than directly changing them). Something like this (this is a little pseucodey as i don't know how to set the function up properly - let's assume that 'this' is the object that show/hide was called on) function show(){ this.removeClass("hidden"); } function hide(){ this.addClass("hidden"); } how and where would i go about overriding the jquery methods? (I'm not a javascript expert) thanks - max

    Read the article

  • Temporarily disable vim plugin without relaunching

    - by simont
    I'm using c-support in Vim. One of it's features is the automatic comment expansion. When I'm pasting code into Vim from an external editor, the comments are expanded (which gives me double-comments and messes up the paste - see below for example). I'd like to be able to disable the plugin, paste, then re-enable it, without relaunching Vim. I'm not sure if this is possible. The SO questions here, here and here all describe methods to disable plugins, but they all require me to close Vim, mess with my .vimrc or similar, and relaunch; if I have to close Vim, I might as well cat file1 >> myfile; vim myfile, then shift the lines internally, which will be just as quick. Is it possible to disable a plugin while running vim without relaunching, preferably in a way which allows me to map a hot-key toggle-plugin (so re-sourcing ~/.vimrc is alright; that's mappable to a hotkey [I imagine, haven't tried it yet])? Messed up comments: /* * * Authors: * * A Name * * * * Copyright: * * A Name, 2012 * */ EDIT: It turns out you can :set paste, :set nopaste (which, to quote :help paste, will "avoid unexpected effects [while pasting]". (See the comments). However, I'm still curious whether you can disable/enable a plugin as per the original question, so I shall leave the question open.

    Read the article

  • Best way to implement some type of ITaggable interface

    - by Jack
    I've got a program I'm creating that reports on another certain programs backup xml files. I've gotten to the point where I need to implement some type of ITaggable interface - but am unsure how to go about it code wise. My idea is that each item (BackupClient, BackupVersion, and BackupFile) should implement an ITaggable interface for highlighting old, out of date, or non-existent files in their HTML or Excel report. The user will be able to specify tags in the settings. My question is this, how can a user dynamically specify a "tag" such as File Date 3 days old? - Background Color = Red. Actually I guess my question is more, how can I, the programmer, implement this dynamically? I was thinking Expression trees, but am unsure this is the way to go as I havn't studied them much. I know my ITaggable interface would have methods such as AddTag(T tag), RemoveTag(T tag), but what exactly specifies the criteria for the tag to be added? I realize this may be subjective, and can be marked as wiki if need be, but I truly am stuck. Any input would be greatly helpful!

    Read the article

  • What is the n in O(n) when comparing sorting algorithms?

    - by Mumfi
    The question is rather simple, but I just can't find a good enough answer. I've taken a look at the most upvoted question regarding the Big-Oh notation, namely this: Plain English explanation of Big O It says there that: For example, sorting algorithms are typically compared based on comparison operations (comparing two nodes to determine their relative ordering). Now let's consider the simple bubble sort algorithm: for (int i = arr.length - 1; i > 0 ; i--) { for (int j = 0; j<i; j++) { if (arr[j] > arr[j+1]) { switchPlaces(...) } } } I know that worst case is O(n^2) and best case is O(n), but what is n exactly? If we attempt to sort an already sorted algorithm (best case), we would end up doing nothing, so why is it still O(n)? We are looping through 2 for-loops still, so if anything it should be O(n^2). n can't be the number of comparison operations, because we still compare all the elements, right? This confuses me, and I appreciate if someone could help me.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >