Search Results

Search found 43110 results on 1725 pages for 'noob question'.

Page 418/1725 | < Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >

• How to override jquery's show() and hide() functions

  - by Max Williams

  hi all Short version of question: see title Long version of question: I've used jquery's show() and hide() functions extensively in my code and just encountered a bit of a problem: they work by changing the display attribute of the element to 'block' or 'none' respectively, so that if you have somethin that has display: inline and then hide and show it, you've changed its display to block, which screws up the layout in a couple of cases. In my code, whenever i want something to be hidden initially i give it a class 'hidden'. This class is simply {display: none}. I'd like the change show and hide to remove or add this class, instead of directly changing the display attribute, so that if you add the hidden class and then remove it again (ie hide and show something) then it's back to exactly how it was to start off with (since adding a class overrides the attributes rather than directly changing them). Something like this (this is a little pseucodey as i don't know how to set the function up properly - let's assume that 'this' is the object that show/hide was called on) function show(){ this.removeClass("hidden"); } function hide(){ this.addClass("hidden"); } how and where would i go about overriding the jquery methods? (I'm not a javascript expert) thanks - max

  Read the article

• Polling a web URL until event

  - by Jaxo

  I'm really sorry about the crappy title - if anybody has a better way of wording it, please edit it! I basically need to have a C# application run a function if the output of a URL is a certain value. For example, if the website says blue the background colour will be blue, red to make it red, etc. The problem is I don't want to spam my webserver with checks. The 4 bytes it downloads each time is negligible, but if I were to deploy this type of system on multiple computers, it would get slower and slower and the bandwidth would add up quickly. So my question is: How can my desktop application run a piece of code only when a web URL has a different output without checking each time? I can't use sockets, and any sort of LAN protocol won't end up working. My reasoning behind this potentially nefarious code is to be able to mute computers by updating a file on the website (as you may have seen in my previous question today, sorry!). I'd like it to be rather quick, and not have the refresh time minutes apart, a few seconds at the most would be ideal. How can I accomplish this? The website's code is easy, but getting the C# application to check when it changes is the part I'm stuck on. Nothing shows up on the website other than the command. Thanks!

  Read the article

• C++ IDE for Linux?

  - by Sven

  I want to expand my programming horizons to Linux. A good, dependable basic toolset is important, and what is more basic than an IDE? I could find these SO topics: Lightweight IDE for linux and What tools do you use to develop C++ applications on Linux? I'm not looking for a lightweight IDE. If an IDE is worth the money, then I will pay for it, so it need not be free. My question, then: What good, C++ programming IDE is available for Linux? The minimums are fairly standard: syntax highlighting, code completion (like intellisense or its Eclipse counterpart) and integrated debugging (e.g., basic breakpoints). I have searched for it myself, but there are so many that it is almost impossible to separate the good from the bads by hand, especially for someone like me who has little C++ coding experience in Linux. I know that Eclipse supports C++, and I really like that IDE for Java, but is it any good for C++ and is there something better? The second post actually has some good suggestions, but what I am missing is what exactly makes the sugested IDE so good for the user, what are its (dis)advantages? Maybe my question should therefore be: What IDE do you propose (given your experiences), and why?

  Read the article

• Bind an Incode DataTemplate in WPF

  - by Mike Bynum

  I have a WPF Application which is using MVVM. I know that there ways of doing this in XAML but I am working on a plugin architecture and came up with a solution where a plugin exposes it's viewmodel to my plugin host's viewmodel and it's datatemplate. I want to leave the lifetime management of the plugin view up to WPF. I have tried having the plugins expose a UserControl but ran into issues when WPF decided to dispose of my UserControl so I would not reattach it without weird hacky work arounds. I am having issues getting some sort of binding working to where i can bind a control to the data and it's template to my data template. I have a ViewModel which looks something like: public class MyViewModel { public DataTemplate SelectedTemplate{ get; set;} public object SelectedViewModel {get; set;} } The selected template and viewmodel are determined somewhere else in the code but are irrelevant to my question. My question is how i can bind to a DataTemplate so that I know how to display the data shown in the SelectedViewModel. The DataTemplate is a DataTemplate created incode which respresents: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:MyViewModel}"> <v:MyUserControl /> </DataTemplate> I have tried: <UserControl Template="{Binding Path=SelectedTemplate}" Content="{Binding Path=SelectedViewModel"} /> But UserControl expects a control template and not a data template.

  Read the article

• Most efficient way to make an activity log

  - by Nathan

  I am making a "recent activity" tab to profiles on my site and I also am going to have a log for moderators to see everything that happens on the site. This would require making an activity log of some sort. I just don't know what would be better. I have 2 options: Make a table called "activity" and then every time someone does something, add a record to it with the type of action, user id, timestamp, etc. Problem: table could get very long. Join all 3 tables (questions, answers, answer_comments) and then somehow show all these on the page in the order in which the action was taken. Problem: this would be extremely hard because I have no clue how I could make it say "John commented on an answer on Question Title Here" by just joining 3 tables. Does anyone know of a better way of making an activity log in this situation? I am using PHP and MySQL. If this is either too inefficient or hard I will probably just forget the Recent Activity tab on profiles but I still need an activity log for moderators. Here's some SQL that I started making for option 2, but this would not work because there is no way of detecting whether the action is a comment, question, or answer when I echo the info in a while loop: SELECT q.*, a.*, ac.* FROM questions q JOIN answers a ON a.questionid = q.qid JOIN answer_comments ac ON c.answerid = a.ans_id WHERE q.user = $userid AND a.userid = $userid AND ac.userid = $userid ORDER BY q.created DESC, a.created DESC, ac.created DESC Thanks in advance for any help!

  Read the article

• C# properties: How are they instantiated?

  - by Pedery

  Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

  Read the article

• Best way to implement some type of ITaggable interface

  - by Jack

  I've got a program I'm creating that reports on another certain programs backup xml files. I've gotten to the point where I need to implement some type of ITaggable interface - but am unsure how to go about it code wise. My idea is that each item (BackupClient, BackupVersion, and BackupFile) should implement an ITaggable interface for highlighting old, out of date, or non-existent files in their HTML or Excel report. The user will be able to specify tags in the settings. My question is this, how can a user dynamically specify a "tag" such as File Date 3 days old? - Background Color = Red. Actually I guess my question is more, how can I, the programmer, implement this dynamically? I was thinking Expression trees, but am unsure this is the way to go as I havn't studied them much. I know my ITaggable interface would have methods such as AddTag(T tag), RemoveTag(T tag), but what exactly specifies the criteria for the tag to be added? I realize this may be subjective, and can be marked as wiki if need be, but I truly am stuck. Any input would be greatly helpful!

  Read the article

• Nested bind expressions

  - by user328543

  This is a followup question to my previous question. #include <functional> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 3;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> auto func(C&& c) -> decltype(c()) { return c(); } template <class C> int doit(C&& c) { return c();} template <class C> void func_wrapper(C&& c) { func( std::bind(doit<C>, std::forward<C>(c)) ); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); func_wrapper(foo); // error // call with a member function bar b; func(b); func_wrapper(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); func_wrapper(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // error // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); func_wrapper( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); return 0; } I'm getting a compile errors deep in the C++ headers: functional:1137: error: invalid initialization of reference of type ‘int (&)()’ from expression of type ‘int (*)()’ functional:1137: error: conversion from ‘int’ to non-scalar type ‘std::_Bind(bar, int)’ requested func_wrapper(foo) is supposed to execute func(doit(foo)). In the real code it packages the function for a thread to execute. func would the function executed by the other thread, doit sits in between to check for unhandled exceptions and to clean up. But the additional bind in func_wrapper messes things up...

  Read the article

• Why would 1.000 subforms in a db be a bad idea?

  - by KlaymenDK

  Warm-up I'm trying to come up with a good way to implement customized document forms. It's for a tool to request access to applications; each application will want to ask its own specific questions. The thing is, we have one kind of (common) user who needs to fill in and submit documents based on templates, and another kind of (super) user who needs to be able to define what each template needs to contain. One implementation option would be to use a form (with the basic mandatory stuff), and have that form dynamically include a subform appropriate to the specific task at hand. The gist of the matter is that we could (=will!) quite easily end up having many hundreds of different subforms! (NB. These subforms will be maintained in an automated manner, but that is another topic that may be considered outside the scope of this Question.) Question It's common knowledge that having a lot of views in a Notes database is Bad Thing. But has anyone tried pushing the number of forms or subforms and made any experiences regarding performance?

  Read the article

• Port Java Application to Android

  - by mihirk

  I am not so sure about the question or what I should call what I am trying to achieve. I use a dialer called super sify. Here is the download - http://thegoan.com/supersify/supersify.zip The when extracted it has two files for linux, one is a .jar file which consists of some classes. The application was written in java. The other is a .sh file, which is a shell executable and takes some parameters like username and password and machine id and stuff. I want to port this app to android. What exactly would I have to do. Some more information is the .jar file is named supersify.jar and the .sh file is named ss.sh so here is the code for ss.sh java -jar supersify.jar $* if [ $? -eq 1 ] then read fi Please help me out. This is an open source software.So I am not doing any illegal modifications. I need to port this app to android, so would I have to write the whole thing again or just something else. I know some basic hello world android app development, and I have made an app to add two numbers, I am still on my way to become an android app developer, but I need this app and will learn a lot to make this possible unless it involves rewriting all the java classes. Thank you in advance If you have anymore question I will be glad to answer to them :D.

  Read the article

• C++ - Where to throw exception?

  - by HardCoder1986

  Hello! I have some kind of an ideological question, so: Suppose I have some templated function template <typename Stream> void Foo(Stream& stream, Object& object) { ... } which does something with this object and the stream (for example, serializes that object to the stream or something like that). Let's say I also add some plain wrappers like (and let's say the number of these wrappers equals 2 or 3): void FooToFile(const std::string& filename, Object& object) { std::ifstream stream(filename.c_str()); Foo(stream, object); } So, my question is: Where in this case (ideologically) should I throw the exception if my stream is bad? Should I do this in each wrapper or just move that check to my Foo, so that it's body would look like if (!foo.good()) throw (something); // Perform ordinary actions I understand that this may be not the most important part of coding and these solutions are actually equal, but I just wan't to know "the proper" way to implement this. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Coding style in .NET: whether to refactor into new method or not?

  - by Dione

  Hi As you aware, in .NET code-behind style, we already use a lot of function to accommodate those _Click function, _SelectedIndexChanged function etc etc. In our team there are some developer that make a function in the middle of .NET function, for example: public void Button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) {     some logic here..     some logic there..     DoSomething();     DoSomethingThere();     another logic here..     DoOtherSomething(); } private void DoSomething() { } private void DoSomethingThere() { } private void DoOtherSomething() { } public void DropDown_SelectedIndexChanged() { } public void OtherButton_Click() { } and the function listed above is only used once in that function and not used anywhere else in the page, or called from other part of the solution. They said it make the code more tidier by grouping them and extract them into additional sub-function. I can understand if the sub-function is use over and over again in the code, but if it is only use once, then I think it is not really a good idea to extract them into sub-function, as the code getting bigger and bigger, when you look into the page and trying to understand the logic or to debug by skimming through line by line, it will make you confused by jumping from main function to the sub-function then to main function and to sub-function again. I know this kind of grouping by method is better when you writing old ASP or Cold fusion style, but I am not sure if this kind of style is better for .NET or not. Question is: which is better when you developing .NET, is grouping similar logic into a sub-method better (although they only use once), or just put them together inside main function and add //explanation here on the start of the logic is better? Hope my question is clear enough. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Overlaying several CLR reference fields with each other in explicit struct?

  - by thr

  Edit: I'm well aware of that this works very well with value types, my specific question is about using this for reference types. I've been tinkering around with structs in .NET/C#, and I just found out that you can do this: using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Foo { } class Bar { } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit)] struct Overlaid { [FieldOffset(0)] public object AsObject; [FieldOffset(0)] public Foo AsFoo; [FieldOffset(0)] public Bar AsBar; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var overlaid = new Overlaid(); overlaid.AsObject = new Bar(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsBar); overlaid.AsObject = new Foo(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsFoo); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Basically circumventing having to do dynamic casting during runtime by using a struct that has an explicit field layout and then accessing the object inside as it's correct type. Now my question is: Can this lead to memory leaks somehow, or any other undefined behavior inside the CLR? Or is this a fully supported convention that is usable without any issues? I'm aware that this is one of the darker corners of the CLR, and that this technique is only a viable option in very few specific cases.

  Read the article

• HTML form never calls Javascript

  - by user1205577

  I have a set of radio buttons defined in HTML like so: <input type="radio" name="group" id="rad1" value="rad1" onClick="doStuff(this.id)">Option 1<br> <input type="radio" name="group" id="rad2" value="rad2" onClick="doStuff(this.id)">Option 2<br> Just before the </body> tag, I have the following JavaScript behavior defined: <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ function doStuff(var id){ alert("Doing stuff!"); } /*]]>*/ </script> When I run the program, the page loads as expected in my browser window and the radio buttons allow me to click them. The doStuff() function, however, is never called (I validated this using breakpoints as well). I also tried the following just to see if inline made the difference, but it seems the JavaScript is never called at all: <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ alert("JavaScript called!"); main(); function main(){ var group = document.getElementsByName('group'); for(var i=0; i<group.length; i++){ group[i].onclick = function(){ doStuff(this.id); }; } } /*]]>*/ </script> My question is, is there something special I need to do using HTML and JavaScript in this context? My question is not whether I should be using inline function calls or whether this is your favorite way to write code.

  Read the article

• How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

  - by Roberto Sebestyen

  I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

  Read the article

• Cookies not working for password-protected Pages on WordPress

  - by KaOSoFt

  Initially I had the issue reported in this question. Now, what I noticed is that there are some browsers that accept the password, and there are some which don't. Difference? For some reason the cookie is generated when I log in into the Administration module, but it isn't when I write down the password to access the page, forcing it to simply reload. I can see the cookie created for the log-in, but I can see none for the password-protected Page. These happens on Internet Explorer, both version 7 and 8; only on some machines, though, but most of them fail this. I already tried white-listing the URL, and even letting it accept ALL cookies, to no avail. What may be the cause? If perhaps it's got something to do with question above, please help me! Thanks in advance. PS: If you know of another, cookie-free method to make a simple authentication, please link me to it. Thanks. Oh, and by the way, this is inside an Intranet with static, class C IPs.

  Read the article

• data ownership and performance

  - by Ami

  We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

  Read the article

• call function inside a nested jquery plugin

  - by tchoesang

  There are many topics related to my question and i have been through most of them, but i haven't got it right. The closest post to my question is the following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1042072/how-to-call-functions-that-are-nested-inside-a-jquery-plugin Below is the jquery plugin i am using. On resize, the element sizes are recalculated. I am now trying to call the function resizeBind() from outside of the jquery plugin and it gives me error I tried the following combinations to call the function $.fn.splitter().resizeBind() $.fn.splitter.resizeBind() Any ideas, where i am getting wrong? ;(function($){ $.fn.splitter = function(args){ //Other functions ...... $(window).bind("resize", function(){ resizeBind(); }); function resizeBind(){ var top = splitter.offset().top; var wh = $(window).height(); var ww = $(window).width(); var sh = 0; // scrollbar height if (ww <0 && !jQuery.browser.msie ) sh = 17; var footer = parseInt($("#footer").css("height")) || 26; splitter.css("height", wh-top-footer-sh+"px"); $("#tabsRight").css("height", splitter.height()-30+"px"); $(".contentTabs").css("height", splitter.height()-70+"px"); } return this.each(function() { }); }; })(jQuery);

  Read the article

• Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

  - by przno

  I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

  Read the article

• Pointer reference and dereference

  - by ZhekakehZ

  I have the following code: #include <iostream> char ch[] = "abcd"; int main() { std::cout << (long)(int*)(ch+0) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+1) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+2) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+3) << std::endl; std::cout << *(int*)(ch+0) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+1) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+2) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+3) << std::endl; std::cout << int('abcd') << ' ' << int('bcd') << ' ' << int('cd') << ' ' << int('d') << std::endl; } My question is why the pointer of 'd' is 100 ? I think it should be: int('d') << 24; //plus some trash on stack after ch And the question is why the second and the third line of the stdout are different ? 6295640 6295641 6295642 6295643 1684234849 6579042 25699 100 1633837924 6447972 25444 100 Thanks.

  Read the article

• Boost shared_ptr use_count function

  - by photo_tom

  My application problem is the following - I have a large structure foo. Because these are large and for memory management reasons, we do not wish to delete them when processing on the data is complete. We are storing them in std::vector<boost::shared_ptr<foo>>. My question is related to knowing when all processing is complete. First decision is that we do not want any of the other application code to mark a complete flag in the structure because there are multiple execution paths in the program and we cannot predict which one is the last. So in our implementation, once processing is complete, we delete all copies of boost::shared_ptr<foo>> except for the one in the vector. This will drop the reference counter in the shared_ptr to 1. Is it practical to use shared_ptr.use_count() to see if it is equal to 1 to know when all other parts of my app are done with the data. One additional reason I'm asking the question is that the boost documentation on the shared pointer shared_ptr recommends not using "use_count" for production code.

  Read the article

• Designing a database for a user/points system? (in Django)

  - by AP257

  First of all, sorry if this isn't an appropriate question for StackOverflow. I've tried to make it as generalisable as possible. I want to create a database (MySQL, site running Django) that has users, who can be allocated a certain number of points for various types of action - it's a collaborative game. My requirements are to obtain: the number of points a user has the user's ranking compared to all other users and the overall leaderboard (i.e. all users ranked in order of points) This is what I have so far, in my Django models.py file: class SiteUser(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=250 ) email = models.EmailField(max_length=250 ) date_added = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) def points_total(self): points_added = PointsAdded.objects.filter(user=self) points_total = 0 for point in points_added: points_total += point.points return points_total class PointsAdded(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey('SiteUser') action = models.ForeignKey('Action') date_added = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) def points(self): points = Action.objects.filter(action=self.action) return points class Action(models.Model): points = models.IntegerField() action = models.CharField(max_length=36) However it's rapidly becoming clear to me that it's actually quite complex (in Django query terms at least) to figure out the user's ranking and return the leaderboard of users. At least, I'm finding it tough. Is there a more elegant way to do something like this? This question seems to suggest that I shouldn't even have a separate points table - what do people think? It feels more robust to have separate tables, but I don't have much experience of database design.

  Read the article

• How to explain to client that you can't give them some of the source

  - by Bo

  We have a number of AS/Flex components that we've built over time and improved upon. They've been turned into components so they can be reused in different projects and save us time. So you can think of them as part of an in-house framework of sorts. We're now realizing that it doesn't make sense to release the source code for these components to the various clients as part of the project, because technically this code isn't really owned by the clients. So my question When a client comes to you, how do you explain to them that you can't give them the full source code for those components. The client doesn't understand the difference, he just expects you to give them all the code for the site that he paid you to do. He doesn't understand that this code has taken you a lot longer to write than what he's paying for his site. But since he doesn't understand, he would get turned off and thinks you're ripping him off or something. How do you handle this situation? What do you tell clients upfront? Do you advertise it on your site from the very beginning? How do you handle their objections so they still hire you? As a side question, how often do you give AS and Flex source code to your clients? In the case when the code doesn't have any in-house components that you reuse in several projects, and in the case when it does have in-house components.

  Read the article

• How can I use Perl to determine whether the contents of two files are identical?

  - by Zaid

  This question comes from a need to ensure that changes I've made to code doesn't affect the values it outputs to text file. Ideally, I'd roll a sub to take in two filenames and return 1or return 0 depending on whether the contents are identical or not, whitespaces and all. Given that text-processing is Perl's forté, it should be quite easy to compare two files and determine whether they are identical or not (code below untested). use strict; use warnings; sub files_match { my ( $fileA, $fileB ) = @_; open my $file1, '<', $fileA; open my $file2, '<', $fileB; while (my $lineA = <$file1>) { next if $lineA eq <$file2>; return 0 and last; } return 1; } The only way I can think of (sans CPAN modules) is to open the two files in question, and read them in line-by-line until a difference is found. If no difference is found, the files must be identical. But this approach is limited and clumsy. What if the total lines differ in the two files? Should I open and close to determine line count, then re-open to scan the texts? Yuck. I don't see anything in perlfaq5 relating to this. I want to stay away from modules unless they come with the core Perl 5.6.1 distribution.

  Read the article

• Designers, Expression or SharePoint Designer, and real source control

  - by David Lively

  I'm trying desperately to move from VSS to a real source control system. Options include TFS and SVN. My designers need to keep their ability to modify source files and instantly preview their changes in a browser without having to commit their changes. Using FPSE with VSS, this works flawlessly, since saving a file causes the copy in the working folder on the dev server to be updated, so they can just save and refresh their browser which is pointed at the dev server. The site in question consists of 350k+ lines of classic ASP code and some new ASP.NET MVC. They only need to be able to modify views within the MVC code, not C#. Though Expression includes a version of Cassini for local debugging, Cassini does not support classic ASP. Surely someone has solved this problem before. It can't be necessary to install IIS on each designer's machine (this is absolutely untenable). I need a way to have a common working folder on a dev webserver updated whenever someone saves a file locally, just like using FPSE. I'd rather not write an FPSE proxy that knows how to talk to TFS/SVN. Any suggestions? (I know I've asked this question in the past, but I haven't yet found a solution.)

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >