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  • How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

    - by Roberto Sebestyen
    I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

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  • call function inside a nested jquery plugin

    - by tchoesang
    There are many topics related to my question and i have been through most of them, but i haven't got it right. The closest post to my question is the following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1042072/how-to-call-functions-that-are-nested-inside-a-jquery-plugin Below is the jquery plugin i am using. On resize, the element sizes are recalculated. I am now trying to call the function resizeBind() from outside of the jquery plugin and it gives me error I tried the following combinations to call the function $.fn.splitter().resizeBind() $.fn.splitter.resizeBind() Any ideas, where i am getting wrong? ;(function($){ $.fn.splitter = function(args){ //Other functions ...... $(window).bind("resize", function(){ resizeBind(); }); function resizeBind(){ var top = splitter.offset().top; var wh = $(window).height(); var ww = $(window).width(); var sh = 0; // scrollbar height if (ww <0 && !jQuery.browser.msie ) sh = 17; var footer = parseInt($("#footer").css("height")) || 26; splitter.css("height", wh-top-footer-sh+"px"); $("#tabsRight").css("height", splitter.height()-30+"px"); $(".contentTabs").css("height", splitter.height()-70+"px"); } return this.each(function() { }); }; })(jQuery);

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  • Designers, Expression or SharePoint Designer, and real source control

    - by David Lively
    I'm trying desperately to move from VSS to a real source control system. Options include TFS and SVN. My designers need to keep their ability to modify source files and instantly preview their changes in a browser without having to commit their changes. Using FPSE with VSS, this works flawlessly, since saving a file causes the copy in the working folder on the dev server to be updated, so they can just save and refresh their browser which is pointed at the dev server. The site in question consists of 350k+ lines of classic ASP code and some new ASP.NET MVC. They only need to be able to modify views within the MVC code, not C#. Though Expression includes a version of Cassini for local debugging, Cassini does not support classic ASP. Surely someone has solved this problem before. It can't be necessary to install IIS on each designer's machine (this is absolutely untenable). I need a way to have a common working folder on a dev webserver updated whenever someone saves a file locally, just like using FPSE. I'd rather not write an FPSE proxy that knows how to talk to TFS/SVN. Any suggestions? (I know I've asked this question in the past, but I haven't yet found a solution.)

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  • Calling a network State check from other activities

    - by Laurent
    I realize this question has been answered before but couldn't find an answer that deals with my specific case. I want to create a class called "InternetConnectionChecks" that will handle checking a network state and http timeouts. I'll call the methods twice in the app (once at the beginning to get data from a server, and once at the end to send user orders to the server). For good form I'd like to put all these methods in a single class rather than copy/paste at different points in my code. To check the network state, I'm using ConnectivityManager; thing is, getSystemService requires a class that extends Activity. package arbuckle.app; import android.app.Activity; import android.app.Service; import android.content.Context; import android.net.ConnectivityManager; import android.net.NetworkInfo; public class InternetConnectionChecks extends Activity { public boolean isNetworkAvailable(){ ConnectivityManager connectivityManager = (ConnectivityManager) getSystemService(Context.CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); NetworkInfo activeNetworkInfo = connectivityManager.getActiveNetworkInfo(); if ((activeNetworkInfo != null)&&(activeNetworkInfo.isConnected())){ return true; }else{ return false; } } } QUESTION: if I call the method isNetworkAvailable from another activity, am I: - going to hit up serious errors. - violating good coding form? *If this isn't the right way to do things, can you point me in the right direction to set up a separate class I can call on to check internet connection? Thanks everyone!

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  • Why would 1.000 subforms in a db be a bad idea?

    - by KlaymenDK
    Warm-up I'm trying to come up with a good way to implement customized document forms. It's for a tool to request access to applications; each application will want to ask its own specific questions. The thing is, we have one kind of (common) user who needs to fill in and submit documents based on templates, and another kind of (super) user who needs to be able to define what each template needs to contain. One implementation option would be to use a form (with the basic mandatory stuff), and have that form dynamically include a subform appropriate to the specific task at hand. The gist of the matter is that we could (=will!) quite easily end up having many hundreds of different subforms! (NB. These subforms will be maintained in an automated manner, but that is another topic that may be considered outside the scope of this Question.) Question It's common knowledge that having a lot of views in a Notes database is Bad Thing. But has anyone tried pushing the number of forms or subforms and made any experiences regarding performance?

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  • Most efficient way to make an activity log

    - by Nathan
    I am making a "recent activity" tab to profiles on my site and I also am going to have a log for moderators to see everything that happens on the site. This would require making an activity log of some sort. I just don't know what would be better. I have 2 options: Make a table called "activity" and then every time someone does something, add a record to it with the type of action, user id, timestamp, etc. Problem: table could get very long. Join all 3 tables (questions, answers, answer_comments) and then somehow show all these on the page in the order in which the action was taken. Problem: this would be extremely hard because I have no clue how I could make it say "John commented on an answer on Question Title Here" by just joining 3 tables. Does anyone know of a better way of making an activity log in this situation? I am using PHP and MySQL. If this is either too inefficient or hard I will probably just forget the Recent Activity tab on profiles but I still need an activity log for moderators. Here's some SQL that I started making for option 2, but this would not work because there is no way of detecting whether the action is a comment, question, or answer when I echo the info in a while loop: SELECT q.*, a.*, ac.* FROM questions q JOIN answers a ON a.questionid = q.qid JOIN answer_comments ac ON c.answerid = a.ans_id WHERE q.user = $userid AND a.userid = $userid AND ac.userid = $userid ORDER BY q.created DESC, a.created DESC, ac.created DESC Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • Port Java Application to Android

    - by mihirk
    I am not so sure about the question or what I should call what I am trying to achieve. I use a dialer called super sify. Here is the download - http://thegoan.com/supersify/supersify.zip The when extracted it has two files for linux, one is a .jar file which consists of some classes. The application was written in java. The other is a .sh file, which is a shell executable and takes some parameters like username and password and machine id and stuff. I want to port this app to android. What exactly would I have to do. Some more information is the .jar file is named supersify.jar and the .sh file is named ss.sh so here is the code for ss.sh java -jar supersify.jar $* if [ $? -eq 1 ] then read fi Please help me out. This is an open source software.So I am not doing any illegal modifications. I need to port this app to android, so would I have to write the whole thing again or just something else. I know some basic hello world android app development, and I have made an app to add two numbers, I am still on my way to become an android app developer, but I need this app and will learn a lot to make this possible unless it involves rewriting all the java classes. Thank you in advance If you have anymore question I will be glad to answer to them :D.

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  • Nested bind expressions

    - by user328543
    This is a followup question to my previous question. #include <functional> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 3;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> auto func(C&& c) -> decltype(c()) { return c(); } template <class C> int doit(C&& c) { return c();} template <class C> void func_wrapper(C&& c) { func( std::bind(doit<C>, std::forward<C>(c)) ); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); func_wrapper(foo); // error // call with a member function bar b; func(b); func_wrapper(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); func_wrapper(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // error // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); func_wrapper( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); return 0; } I'm getting a compile errors deep in the C++ headers: functional:1137: error: invalid initialization of reference of type ‘int (&)()’ from expression of type ‘int (*)()’ functional:1137: error: conversion from ‘int’ to non-scalar type ‘std::_Bind(bar, int)’ requested func_wrapper(foo) is supposed to execute func(doit(foo)). In the real code it packages the function for a thread to execute. func would the function executed by the other thread, doit sits in between to check for unhandled exceptions and to clean up. But the additional bind in func_wrapper messes things up...

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  • Polling a web URL until event

    - by Jaxo
    I'm really sorry about the crappy title - if anybody has a better way of wording it, please edit it! I basically need to have a C# application run a function if the output of a URL is a certain value. For example, if the website says blue the background colour will be blue, red to make it red, etc. The problem is I don't want to spam my webserver with checks. The 4 bytes it downloads each time is negligible, but if I were to deploy this type of system on multiple computers, it would get slower and slower and the bandwidth would add up quickly. So my question is: How can my desktop application run a piece of code only when a web URL has a different output without checking each time? I can't use sockets, and any sort of LAN protocol won't end up working. My reasoning behind this potentially nefarious code is to be able to mute computers by updating a file on the website (as you may have seen in my previous question today, sorry!). I'd like it to be rather quick, and not have the refresh time minutes apart, a few seconds at the most would be ideal. How can I accomplish this? The website's code is easy, but getting the C# application to check when it changes is the part I'm stuck on. Nothing shows up on the website other than the command. Thanks!

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  • HTML form never calls Javascript

    - by user1205577
    I have a set of radio buttons defined in HTML like so: <input type="radio" name="group" id="rad1" value="rad1" onClick="doStuff(this.id)">Option 1<br> <input type="radio" name="group" id="rad2" value="rad2" onClick="doStuff(this.id)">Option 2<br> Just before the </body> tag, I have the following JavaScript behavior defined: <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ function doStuff(var id){ alert("Doing stuff!"); } /*]]>*/ </script> When I run the program, the page loads as expected in my browser window and the radio buttons allow me to click them. The doStuff() function, however, is never called (I validated this using breakpoints as well). I also tried the following just to see if inline made the difference, but it seems the JavaScript is never called at all: <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ alert("JavaScript called!"); main(); function main(){ var group = document.getElementsByName('group'); for(var i=0; i<group.length; i++){ group[i].onclick = function(){ doStuff(this.id); }; } } /*]]>*/ </script> My question is, is there something special I need to do using HTML and JavaScript in this context? My question is not whether I should be using inline function calls or whether this is your favorite way to write code.

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  • List all foreign key constraints that refer to a particular column in a specific table

    - by Sid
    I would like to see a list of all the tables and columns that refer (either directly or indirectly) a specific column in the 'main' table via a foreign key constraint that has the ON DELETE=CASCADE setting missing. The tricky part is that there would be an indirect relationships buried across up to 5 levels deep. (example: ... great-grandchild- FK3 = grandchild = FK2 = child = FK1 = main table). We need to dig up the leaf tables-columns, not just the very 1st level. The 'good' part about this is that execution speed isn't of concern, it'll be run on a backup copy of the production db to fix any relational issues for the future. I did SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys but that gives me the name of the constraint - not the names of the child-parent tables and the columns in the relationship (the juicy bits). Plus the previous designer used short, non-descriptive/random names for the FK constraints, unlike our practice below The way we're adding constraints into SQL Server: ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] FOREIGN KEY([UserId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[UserMasterTable] ([UserId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] GO The comments in this SO question inpire this question.

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  • How can I use Perl to determine whether the contents of two files are identical?

    - by Zaid
    This question comes from a need to ensure that changes I've made to code doesn't affect the values it outputs to text file. Ideally, I'd roll a sub to take in two filenames and return 1or return 0 depending on whether the contents are identical or not, whitespaces and all. Given that text-processing is Perl's forté, it should be quite easy to compare two files and determine whether they are identical or not (code below untested). use strict; use warnings; sub files_match { my ( $fileA, $fileB ) = @_; open my $file1, '<', $fileA; open my $file2, '<', $fileB; while (my $lineA = <$file1>) { next if $lineA eq <$file2>; return 0 and last; } return 1; } The only way I can think of (sans CPAN modules) is to open the two files in question, and read them in line-by-line until a difference is found. If no difference is found, the files must be identical. But this approach is limited and clumsy. What if the total lines differ in the two files? Should I open and close to determine line count, then re-open to scan the texts? Yuck. I don't see anything in perlfaq5 relating to this. I want to stay away from modules unless they come with the core Perl 5.6.1 distribution.

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  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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  • Jquery Block on my document .ready function not working

    - by kumar
    Hello Friens, I have this code, I added JS Script file to my Master page. <script src="/Scripts/Jquery.blockUI.js" type="text/javascript"></script> This Below code I have in my master page.on document.ready <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $.blockUI({ message: $('#question'), css: { width: '275px'} }); }); </script> <div id="question" style="display:none; cursor: default"> <h2 class="padding"><br />An unexpected system error has occurred while processing your request.<br /></h2> <h3>We apologize for this inconvenience.<br /> Please report this error to your system administrator with the following information:<br /><br /> Session id is:</h3> <input type="button" id="OK" value="OK" /> </asp:Content> On my Document.ready Function my BlockUi is not working? can any body tell me why its not working? thanks

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  • How to override jquery's show() and hide() functions

    - by Max Williams
    hi all Short version of question: see title Long version of question: I've used jquery's show() and hide() functions extensively in my code and just encountered a bit of a problem: they work by changing the display attribute of the element to 'block' or 'none' respectively, so that if you have somethin that has display: inline and then hide and show it, you've changed its display to block, which screws up the layout in a couple of cases. In my code, whenever i want something to be hidden initially i give it a class 'hidden'. This class is simply {display: none}. I'd like the change show and hide to remove or add this class, instead of directly changing the display attribute, so that if you add the hidden class and then remove it again (ie hide and show something) then it's back to exactly how it was to start off with (since adding a class overrides the attributes rather than directly changing them). Something like this (this is a little pseucodey as i don't know how to set the function up properly - let's assume that 'this' is the object that show/hide was called on) function show(){ this.removeClass("hidden"); } function hide(){ this.addClass("hidden"); } how and where would i go about overriding the jquery methods? (I'm not a javascript expert) thanks - max

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  • Overlaying several CLR reference fields with each other in explicit struct?

    - by thr
    Edit: I'm well aware of that this works very well with value types, my specific question is about using this for reference types. I've been tinkering around with structs in .NET/C#, and I just found out that you can do this: using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Foo { } class Bar { } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit)] struct Overlaid { [FieldOffset(0)] public object AsObject; [FieldOffset(0)] public Foo AsFoo; [FieldOffset(0)] public Bar AsBar; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var overlaid = new Overlaid(); overlaid.AsObject = new Bar(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsBar); overlaid.AsObject = new Foo(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsFoo); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Basically circumventing having to do dynamic casting during runtime by using a struct that has an explicit field layout and then accessing the object inside as it's correct type. Now my question is: Can this lead to memory leaks somehow, or any other undefined behavior inside the CLR? Or is this a fully supported convention that is usable without any issues? I'm aware that this is one of the darker corners of the CLR, and that this technique is only a viable option in very few specific cases.

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  • Cookies not working for password-protected Pages on WordPress

    - by KaOSoFt
    Initially I had the issue reported in this question. Now, what I noticed is that there are some browsers that accept the password, and there are some which don't. Difference? For some reason the cookie is generated when I log in into the Administration module, but it isn't when I write down the password to access the page, forcing it to simply reload. I can see the cookie created for the log-in, but I can see none for the password-protected Page. These happens on Internet Explorer, both version 7 and 8; only on some machines, though, but most of them fail this. I already tried white-listing the URL, and even letting it accept ALL cookies, to no avail. What may be the cause? If perhaps it's got something to do with question above, please help me! Thanks in advance. PS: If you know of another, cookie-free method to make a simple authentication, please link me to it. Thanks. Oh, and by the way, this is inside an Intranet with static, class C IPs.

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  • Trying to create a group of button sprites

    - by user1449653
    Good day, I have like 15 images I need to be buttons. I have buttons working with a Box() (Box - looks like this) class Box(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def __init__(self): pygame.sprite.Sprite.__init__(self) self.image = pygame.Surface((35, 30)) self.image = self.image.convert() self.image.fill((255, 0, 0)) self.rect = self.image.get_rect() self.rect.centerx = 25 self.rect.centery = 505 self.dx = 10 self.dy = 10 I am trying to make the buttons work with image sprites. So I attempted to copy the class style of the box and do the same for my Icons.. code looks like this... class Icons(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def __init__(self): pygame.sprite.Sprite.__init__(self) self.image = pygame.image.load("images/airbrushIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() self.rect.x = 25 self.rect.y = 550 the code in the main() rect = image.get_rect() rect.x = 25 rect.y = 550 ic1 = Icons((screen.get_rect().x, screen.get_rect().y)) screen.blit(ic1.image, ic1.rect) pygame.display.update() This code produces a positional (accepts 1 argument but 2 are there) error or an image is not referenced error (inside the Icon class). I'm unsure if this is the right way to go about this anyways.. I know for sure that I need to load all the images (as sprites)... store them in an array... and then have my mouse check if it is clicking one of the items in the array using a for loop. Thanks. EDIT QUESTION 2: class Icons(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def init(self, *args): pygame.sprite.Sprite.init(self, *args) self.image = pygame.image.load("images/airbrushIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() ic1 = self.image self.rect.x = 10 self.rect.y = 490 self.image = pygame.image.load("images/fillIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() ic2 = self.image self.rect.x = 10 self.rect.y = 540 Thanks to your help I got the Icons class loading ONE image. Its not loading both. Obviously because its being overwritten by the second one. It seems that "class" for this purpose isn't what I need. Which begs the question how I make sprites outside of a class.. If there is a way to make the class work please let me know.

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  • Boost shared_ptr use_count function

    - by photo_tom
    My application problem is the following - I have a large structure foo. Because these are large and for memory management reasons, we do not wish to delete them when processing on the data is complete. We are storing them in std::vector<boost::shared_ptr<foo>>. My question is related to knowing when all processing is complete. First decision is that we do not want any of the other application code to mark a complete flag in the structure because there are multiple execution paths in the program and we cannot predict which one is the last. So in our implementation, once processing is complete, we delete all copies of boost::shared_ptr<foo>> except for the one in the vector. This will drop the reference counter in the shared_ptr to 1. Is it practical to use shared_ptr.use_count() to see if it is equal to 1 to know when all other parts of my app are done with the data. One additional reason I'm asking the question is that the boost documentation on the shared pointer shared_ptr recommends not using "use_count" for production code.

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  • Updating Cells in a DataTable

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm writing a small app to do a little processing on some cells in a CSV file I have. I've figured out how to read and write CSV files with a library I found online, but I'm having trouble: the library parses CSV files into a DataTable, but, when I try to change a cell of the table, it isn't saving the change in the table! Below is the code in question. I've separated the process into multiple variables and renamed some of the things to make it easier to debug for this question. Code Inside the loop: string debug1 = readIn.Rows[i].ItemArray[numColumnToCopyTo].ToString(); string debug2 = readIn.Rows[i].ItemArray[numColumnToCopyTo].ToString().Trim(); string debug3 = readIn.Rows[i].ItemArray[numColumnToCopyFrom].ToString().Trim(); string towrite = debug2 + ", " + debug3; readIn.Rows[i].ItemArray[numColumnToCopyTo] = (object)towrite; After the loop: readIn.AcceptChanges(); When I debug my code, I see that towrite is being formed correctly and everything's OK, except that the row isn't updated: why isn't it working? I have a feeling that I'm making a simple mistake here: the last time I worked with DataTables (quite a long time ago), I had similar problems. If you're wondering why I'm adding another comma in towrite, it's because I'm combining a street address field with a zip code field - I hope that's not messing anything up. My code is kind of messy, as I'm only trying to edit one file to make a small fix, so sorry.

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  • Pointer reference and dereference

    - by ZhekakehZ
    I have the following code: #include <iostream> char ch[] = "abcd"; int main() { std::cout << (long)(int*)(ch+0) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+1) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+2) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+3) << std::endl; std::cout << *(int*)(ch+0) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+1) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+2) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+3) << std::endl; std::cout << int('abcd') << ' ' << int('bcd') << ' ' << int('cd') << ' ' << int('d') << std::endl; } My question is why the pointer of 'd' is 100 ? I think it should be: int('d') << 24; //plus some trash on stack after ch And the question is why the second and the third line of the stdout are different ? 6295640 6295641 6295642 6295643 1684234849 6579042 25699 100 1633837924 6447972 25444 100 Thanks.

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  • C# properties: How are they instantiated?

    - by Pedery
    Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

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  • ORDERBY "human" alphabetical order using SQL string manipulation

    - by supertrue
    I have a table of posts with titles that are in "human" alphabetical order but not in computer alphabetical order. These are in two flavors, numerical and alphabetical: Numerical: Figure 1.9, Figure 1.10, Figure 1.11... Alphabetical: Figure 1A ... Figure 1Z ... Figure 1AA If I orderby title, the result is that 1.10-1.19 come between 1.1 and 1.2, and 1AA-1AZ come between 1A and 1B. But this is not what I want; I want "human" alphabetical order, in which 1.10 comes after 1.9 and 1AA comes after 1Z. I am wondering if there's still a way in SQL to get the order that I want using string manipulation (or something else I haven't thought of). I am not an expert in SQL, so I don't know if this is possible, but if there were a way to do conditional replacement, then it seems I could impose the order I want by doing this: delete the period (which can be done with replace, right?) if the remaining figure number is more than three characters, add a 0 (zero) after the first character. This would seem to give me the outcome I want: 1.9 would become 109, which comes before 110; 1Z would become 10Z, which comes before 1AA. But can it be done in SQL? If so, what would the syntax be? Note that I don't want to modify the data itself—just to output the results of the query in the order described. This is in the context of a Wordpress installation, but I think the question is more suitably an SQL question because various things (such as pagination) depend on the ordering happening at the MySQL query stage, rather than in PHP.

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  • Managing My Database in Source Control

    - by Jason
    As I am working with a new database project (within VS2008), and as I have never developed a database from scratch, I immediately began looking into how to manage a database within source control (in this case, Subversion). I found some information on SO, including this post: Keeping development databases in multiple environments in sync. One of the answers in particular pointed to a number of a links, all of which had good, useful information. I was reading a series of posts by K. Scott Allen which describe how he manages database change. From my reading (and please pardon the noobishness of my question), it seems as though the database itself is never checked into a repository. Rather, scripts that can build the database, along with test data (which is also populated from scripts) is checked into the repository. Ultimately, this means that, when a developer is testing his or her app, these scripts, which are part of the build process, are run. This ensures that the database is up-to-date, but is also run locally from every developer's machine. This makes sense to me (if I am indeed reading that correctly). However, if I am missing something, I would appreciate correction or additional guidance. In addition, another question I wanted to ask - does this also mean that I should NOT check in the mdf or ldf files that are created from Visual Studio? Thanks for any help and additional insight. Always appreciated.

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  • C++ - Where to throw exception?

    - by HardCoder1986
    Hello! I have some kind of an ideological question, so: Suppose I have some templated function template <typename Stream> void Foo(Stream& stream, Object& object) { ... } which does something with this object and the stream (for example, serializes that object to the stream or something like that). Let's say I also add some plain wrappers like (and let's say the number of these wrappers equals 2 or 3): void FooToFile(const std::string& filename, Object& object) { std::ifstream stream(filename.c_str()); Foo(stream, object); } So, my question is: Where in this case (ideologically) should I throw the exception if my stream is bad? Should I do this in each wrapper or just move that check to my Foo, so that it's body would look like if (!foo.good()) throw (something); // Perform ordinary actions I understand that this may be not the most important part of coding and these solutions are actually equal, but I just wan't to know "the proper" way to implement this. Thank you.

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