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  • Alternate colors on click with jQuery

    - by Jace Cotton
    I'm sure there is a simple solution to this, and I'm sure this is a duplicate question, though I have been unable to solve my solution particularly because I don't really know how to phrase it in order to search for other questions/solutions, so I'm coming here hoping for some help. Basically, I have spans with classes that assigns a background-color property, and inside those spans are words. I have three of these spans, and each time a user clicks on a span I want the class to change (thus changing the background color and inner text). HTML: <span class="alternate"> <span class="blue showing">Lorem</span> <span class="green">Ipsum</span> <span class="red">Dolor</span> </span> CSS: .alternate span { display : none } .alternate .showing { display : inline } .blue { background : blue } .green { background : green } .red { background : red } jQuery: $(".alternate span").each(function() { $(this).on("click", function() { $(this).removeClass("showing"); $(this).next().addClass("showing"); }); }); This solution works great using $.next until I get to the third click, whereafter .showing is removed, and is not added since there are no more $.next options. How do I, after getting to the last-child, add .showing to the first-child and then start over? I have tried various options including if($(".alternate span:last-child").hasClass("showing")) { etc. etc. }, and I attempted to use an array and for loop though I failed to make it work. Newb question, I know, but I can't seem to solve this so as a last resort I'm coming here.

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  • Interpreting item click in ListView

    - by Matt Huggins
    I'm working on my first Android project, and I created a menu via the XML method. My activity is pretty basic, in that it loads the main layout (containing a ListView with my String array of options). Here's the code inside my Activity: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // allow stuff to happen when a list item is clicked ListView ls = (ListView)findViewById(R.id.menu); ls.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { // @todo } }); } Within the onItemClick callback handler, I'd like to check which item was clicked, and load a new menu based upon that. Question 1: How do I go about figuring out which item was clicked? I can't find any straightforward examples on retrieving/testing the id value of the clicked item. Question 2: Once I have the id value, I assume I can just call the setContentView method again to change to another layout containing my new menu. Is that correct?

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  • How can I filter then modify e-mails using IMAP?

    - by swolff1978
    I have asked this question in a different post here on SO: How can a read receipt be suppressed? I have been doing some research of my own to try and solve this problem and accessing the e-mail account via IMAP seems like it is going to be a good solution. I have successfully been able to access my own Inbox and mark messages as read with no issue. I have been asked to preform the same task on an Inbox that contains over 23,000 emails. I would like to run the test on a small amount of e-mails from that inbox before letting the whole 23,000 get it. Here is the code I have been running via telnet: . LOGIN [email protected] password . SELECT Inbox . STORE 1:* flags \Seen 'this line marks all the e-mails as read So my question is how can i execute that store command on a specific group of e-mails... say emails that are going to / coming from a specific account? Is there a way to like concatenate the commands? like a FETCH then the STORE? Or is there a better way to go about getting a collection of e-mails based on certain criteria and then modifying ONLY those e-mails that can be accomplished through IMAP?

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  • How to close and open access to SQL Server 2008 in Windows application?

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have a MS Access 97 application (but the question is general) working directly with SQL Server 2008 (without application server or anything). Numbers of users can be up to 1000. Windows Authentication is used. The question is: How to handle modes, so some users will be allowed to work in read-only mode some users won't have access to db for some time My versions: Using a table with a mode id for every group of users, that will work the same way. On Form Load application will query that table for mode id. Using trigger on the tables, that must work according to that mode. The trigger will query mode value and doesn't work if access is closed or it's in read-only mode I know these are not the best solutions, that's why I'm asking for your advice. There's one more point. If the mode is changed to "access-is-closed" for a group of users, that group must not be able to query to DB starting that moment. With first solution I wrote it won't work, because user can be in application at that moment and no form load event will work. How can I do this? Is there any optimal solution? Thank you. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Are we in demand?

    - by dotnetdev
    I was made redundant in the end of November. This wasn't because I lacked required skills (although I'm a youngster and in career levels a junior dev - though I knew a lot more than was called for in my job). Anyway, I was laid off due to the whole recession/credit crunch thing going on. I worked for a small company and money got tight and I had to go. I haven't made a thread about this but I have seen threads about others being laid off and experiencing a similar fate. This leads me to the question: What is the job market like for developers? Are we in demand? I ask this question on a global level, but I live in London UK (in case anyone comes across this thread from the same area). I am a .NET dev but my secondary skillset is Flex (actionscript too) and Java, which my personal portfolio is made with. I hope to be strong enough in this to do this commercially, with a few more months of practise. Then I will have more jobs applicable to me. Unfortunately, I use agencies and sites like Jobserve/Monster.com but no new jobs are ever posted on there so when you apply to all the relevant jobs, then what? Whatsmore, a lot of companies are putting a freeze on recruitment. Thanks

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  • HTML form never calls Javascript

    - by user1205577
    I have a set of radio buttons defined in HTML like so: <input type="radio" name="group" id="rad1" value="rad1" onClick="doStuff(this.id)">Option 1<br> <input type="radio" name="group" id="rad2" value="rad2" onClick="doStuff(this.id)">Option 2<br> Just before the </body> tag, I have the following JavaScript behavior defined: <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ function doStuff(var id){ alert("Doing stuff!"); } /*]]>*/ </script> When I run the program, the page loads as expected in my browser window and the radio buttons allow me to click them. The doStuff() function, however, is never called (I validated this using breakpoints as well). I also tried the following just to see if inline made the difference, but it seems the JavaScript is never called at all: <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ alert("JavaScript called!"); main(); function main(){ var group = document.getElementsByName('group'); for(var i=0; i<group.length; i++){ group[i].onclick = function(){ doStuff(this.id); }; } } /*]]>*/ </script> My question is, is there something special I need to do using HTML and JavaScript in this context? My question is not whether I should be using inline function calls or whether this is your favorite way to write code.

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  • Newbie - eclipse workflow (PHP development)

    - by engil
    Hi all - this is a bit of a newbie question but hoping I can get some guidance. I've been playing around with Eclipse for a couple months yet I'm still not completely comfortable with my setup and it seems like every time I install it to a new system I end up with different results. What I'm hoping to achieve is (I think) fairly standard. In my environment I'd like SVN (currently using Subclipse), FTP support (currently using Aptana plugin), debugging (going to use XDebug) and all the usual bells and whistles of development (code completion, refactoring, etc.) My biggest current issue is how to set up my environment to support both a 'development' and 'production' server. Optimally I would be able to work directly against the dev server (Eclipse on my Vista desktop against the VM Ubuntu dev server) and then push to production server (shared hosting). I'd prefer to work directly against the dev server (with no local project files, just using the Connections provided by Aptana) but I'm guessing this won't allow for code-completoin or all the other bells and whistles provided for development. Any thoughts? Kind of an open ended question, but maybe this could be an opportunity for some of you with a great deal of experience using Eclipse to describe your setups so people like me can get some insight into good ways to get set up.

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  • Determine asymmetric latencies in a network

    - by BeeOnRope
    Imagine you have many clustered servers, across many hosts, in a heterogeneous network environment, such that the connections between servers may have wildly varying latencies and bandwidth. You want to build a map of the connections between servers my transferring data between them. Of course, this map may become stale over time as the network topology changes - but lets ignore those complexities for now and assume the network is relatively static. Given the latencies between nodes in this host graph, calculating the bandwidth is a relative simply timing exercise. I'm having more difficulty with the latencies - however. To get round-trip time, it is a simple matter of timing a return-trip ping from the local host to a remote host - both timing events (start, stop) occur on the local host. What if I want one-way times under the assumption that the latency is not equal in both directions? Assuming that the clocks on the various hosts are not precisely synchronized (at least that their error is of the the same magnitude as the latencies involved) - how can I calculate the one-way latency? In a related question - is this asymmetric latency (where a link is quicker in direction than the other) common in practice? For what reasons/hardware configurations? Certainly I'm aware of asymmetric bandwidth scenarios, especially on last-mile consumer links such as DSL and Cable, but I'm not so sure about latency. Added: After considering the comment below, the second portion of the question is probably better off on serverfault.

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  • Cocoa Drag and Drop, reading back the data. [Newbie]

    - by kodai
    Ok, I have a NSOutlineView set up, and I want it to capture PDF's if a pdf is dragged into the NSOutlineView. My first question, I have the following code: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; In all the apple Docs and examples I've seen I've also seen something like MySupportedType being an object registered for dragging. What does this mean? Do I change the code to be: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"pdf", NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; Currently I have it set up to recognize drag and drop, and I can even make it spit out the URL of the dragged file once the drag is accepted, however, this leads me to my second question. I want to keep a copy of those PDF's app side. I suppose, and correct me if I'm wrong, that the best way to do this is to grab the data off the clipboard, save it in some persistant store, and that's that. (as apposed to using some sort of copy command and literally copying the file to the app director.) That being said, I'm not sure how to do that. I've the code: - (BOOL)outlineView:(NSOutlineView *)ov acceptDrop:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)info item:(id)item childIndex:(NSInteger)childIndex { NSPasteboard *pboard = [info draggingPasteboard]; NSURL *fileURL; if ( [[pboard types] containsObject:NSURLPboardType] ) { fileURL = [NSURL URLFromPasteboard:pboard]; // Perform operation using the file’s URL } NSData *data = [pboard dataForType:@"NSPasteboardTypePDF"]; But this never actually gets any data. Like I said before, it does get the URL, just not the data. Does anyone have any advise on how to get this going? Thanks so much!

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  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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  • How to retrieve content via .load() or $.get() with this line

    - by Sin
    hello :) I posted a question a day or two ago about how to retrieve php via ajax method in this modal I was using. I kinda found out the right way to go about it, but there's still something I'm not doing right (obviously lol) Here's the section thats giving me the issues: jQuery('div that holds content').fadeIn(200).css({ 'width': Number( popWidth ) }); $('').load('/something/somewhere/this #content'); So, im using safari, and a local server (mamp), when I check activity in my browser, it shows that it is loading the content with every click, AND the pop up pops up, but no content. When I simply retrieve content via hidden div, ofcourse, i get it. This is what I'm trying to avoid. right now I have that div in my footer stashed as hidden. I'd rather just make a call when its needed, instead of loading it every single time a page is accessed. you can go here to see the whole script i posted in my last question: How to use ajax to show php in a modal pop up Anyone have any idea? I read that .load() has the ability to grab specific content from a request, but im not sure the major difference between that and $.get() I've tried both, and I get the same results. Im using wordpress, and wordpress's ajax requests run smooth as ever, so I know its not a local problem, i'ts my coding lol Ok....Im done typing :)

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  • How to skip certain tests with Test::Unit

    - by Daniel Abrahamsson
    In one of my projects I need to collaborate with several backend systems. Some of them somewhat lacks in documentation, and partly therefore I have some test code that interact with some test servers just to see everything works as expected. However, accessing these servers is quite slow, and therefore I do not want to run these tests every time I run my test suite. My question is how to deal with a situation where you want to skip certain tests. Currently I use an environment variable 'BACKEND_TEST' and a conditional statement which checks if the variable is set for each test I would like to skip. But sometimes I would like to skip all tests in a test file without having to add an extra row to the beginning of each test. The tests which have to interact with the test servers are not many, as I use flexmock in other situations. However, you can't mock yourself away from reality. As you can see from this question's title, I'm using Test::Unit. Additionally, if it makes any difference, the project is a Rails project.

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  • Help me understand making maven project w/ non-maven jar dependencies usable by others

    - by deet
    Hi, I'm in the process of learning maven (and java packaging & distribution) with a new oss project I'm making as practice. Here's my situation, all java of course: My main project is ProjectA, maven-based in a github repository. I have also created one utility project, maven-based, in github: ProjectB. ProjectA depends on a project I have heavily modified that originally was from a google-code ant-based repository, ProjectC. So, how do I set up the build for ProjectA such that someone can download ProjectA.jar and use it without needing to install jars for ProjectB and ProjectC, and also how do I set up the build such that someone could check out ProjectA and run only 'mvn package' for a full compile? (Additionally, what should I do with my modified version of ProjectC? include the class files directly into ProjectA, or fork the project into something that could then be used by as a maven dependency?) I've been reading around, links such as this SO question and this SO question, but I'm unclear how those relate to my particular circumstance. So, any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Ruby, Python, or PHP?

    - by Gabe
    And so we return to the age old question - but with a few twists. This morning, I searched and read up on which web development language to learn first. I'm thinking Ruby, Python, or perhaps PHP. But I have a few questions before deciding. Background: I'm a year into C++ (through school), but want to get into web development. I have all summer to commit to one language, learn it, do some projects, get up some websites, and so on. Now my questions (and these are assuming that I should choose between Ruby, Python, and PHP - if I should choose a different language, let me know.): I hope to use whichever language I learn for websites/web apps. Some of the threads on stackoverflow suggested Python was the best overall language, but others were unanimous that Ruby was best specifically for web development. For a first language suited towards web development, which language do you recommend, and why? This might tie into the first question, but which language looks most promising for future work, future personal projects, and basically the future in general? I'm just a freshman in college. Ideally, the language I choose would be on the rise, community-wise and opportunity-wise. (One reason I'm leaning towards Ruby is that it seems a lot of the newer tech startups/successes are using it.)

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  • Creating mock Objects in PHP unit

    - by Mike
    Hi, I've searched but can't quite find what I'm looking for and the manual isn't much help in this respect. I'm fairly new to unit testing, so not sure if I'm on the right track at all. Anyway, onto the question. I have a class: <?php class testClass { public function doSomething($array_of_stuff) { return AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); } } ?> Now, clearly I want the AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); to return the same thing every time. My question is, in my unit test, how do I mockup this object? I've tried adding the AnotherClass to the top of the test file, but when I want to test AnotherClass I get the "Cannot redeclare class" error. I think I understand factory classes, but I'm not sure how I would apply that in this instance. Would I need to write an entirely seperate AnotherClass class which contained test data and then use the Factory class to load that instead of the real AnotherClass? Or is using the Factory pattern just a red herring. I tried this: $RedirectUtils_stub = $this->getMockForAbstractClass('RedirectUtils'); $o1 = new stdClass(); $o1->id = 2; $o1->test_id = 2; $o1->weight = 60; $o1->data = "http://www.google.com/?ffdfd=fdfdfdfd?route=1"; $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('chooseRandomRoot') ->will($this->returnValue($o1)); $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('decodeQueryString') ->will($this->returnValue(array())); in the setUp() function, but these stubs are ignored and I can't work out whether it's something I'm doing wrong, or the way I'm accessing the AnotherClass methods. Help! This is driving me nuts.

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  • How to accommodate for the next iPhones totally different screen resolution?

    - by mystify
    This is a programming question! Read on before you vote to close! According to Gizmodo, the next iPhone will have a new screen resolution: The 3.5-inch screen has a resolution of 960?×?640 pixels This little detail affects our apps in a heavy way. Most of the demo apps on the net have one thing in common: They position views in the believe that the screen has a fixed size of 320 x 480 pixels. So what most -if not all- developers do is: They designed everything in such a way, that a touchable area is -for example- 50 x 50 pixels big. Just enough to tap it. Things have been positioned relative to the upper left, to reach a specific position on screen - let's say the center, or somewhere at the bottom. So the big question is: How will the developers compensate their layout and graphics? Are there already solutions which can be used to calculate coordinates and sizes in a normalized manner, which then appear to be exactly the same when viewing them on a screen of any resolution, assuming at least that the aspect ration won't change? This is community wiki. Just add anything that you think is relevant to this huge problem (constant screen res was one of the main reasons why I didn't go for Android!!).

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  • [IE6] Cannot upload non-existent file

    - by geff_chang
    I am asking the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/691323/trying-to-upload-a-non-existent-file-in-internet-explorer-form-is-not-submitted I'm not sure if the topic starter found a solution, since he did not post the answer. So, I'd like to ask you guys this question again. I have type=input in my form, and a submit button. If I type garbage input into the textbox (like the text "abc") in the file control's textbox, and click the submit button, the form is not submitted to the server. AND, no feedback is given to the user. Instead of this "Is-the-submit-button-broken?" behavior, is there a way I could notify the user that the file does not exist? (I am aware this is not possible, except with ActiveX, but I don't want to go into that) My client wants to hide the textbox of the file control, but I'm not sure if this is a good design. What do you guys suggest? (If it makes any difference, I am also using this jquery plugin: http://www.fyneworks.com/jquery/multiple-file-upload/)

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  • Detecting well behaved / well known bots

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I found this question very interesting : Programmatic Bot Detection I have a very similar question, but I'm not bothered about 'badly behaved bots'. I am tracking (in addition to google analytics) the following per visit : Entry URL Referer UserAgent Adwords (by means of query string) Whether or not the user made a purchase etc. The problem is that to calculate any kind of conversion rate I'm ending up with lots of 'bot' visits that are greatly skewing my results. I'd like to ignore as many as possible bot visits, but I want a solution that I don't need to monitor too closely, and that won't in itself be a performance hog and preferably still work if someone has javascript disabled. Are there good published lists of the top 100 bots or so? I did find a list at http://www.user-agents.org/ but that appears to contain hundreds if not thousands of bots. I don't want to check every referer against thousands of links. Here is the current googlebot UserAgent. How often does it change? Mozilla/5.0 (compatible; Googlebot/2.1; +http://www.google.com/bot.html)

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  • List all foreign key constraints that refer to a particular column in a specific table

    - by Sid
    I would like to see a list of all the tables and columns that refer (either directly or indirectly) a specific column in the 'main' table via a foreign key constraint that has the ON DELETE=CASCADE setting missing. The tricky part is that there would be an indirect relationships buried across up to 5 levels deep. (example: ... great-grandchild- FK3 = grandchild = FK2 = child = FK1 = main table). We need to dig up the leaf tables-columns, not just the very 1st level. The 'good' part about this is that execution speed isn't of concern, it'll be run on a backup copy of the production db to fix any relational issues for the future. I did SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys but that gives me the name of the constraint - not the names of the child-parent tables and the columns in the relationship (the juicy bits). Plus the previous designer used short, non-descriptive/random names for the FK constraints, unlike our practice below The way we're adding constraints into SQL Server: ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] FOREIGN KEY([UserId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[UserMasterTable] ([UserId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] GO The comments in this SO question inpire this question.

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  • Solving algorithm for a simple problem

    - by maolo
    I'm searching for an algorithm (should be rather simple for you guys) that does nothing but solve the chicken or the egg problem. I need to implement this in C++. What I've got so far is: enum ChickenOrEgg { Chicken, Egg }; ChickenOrEgg WhatWasFirst( ) { ChickenOrEgg ret; // magic happens here return ret; } // testing #include <iostream> using namespace std; if ( WhatWasFirst( ) == Chicken ) { cout << "The chicken was first."; } else { cout << "The egg was first."; } cout << endl; Question: How could the pseudocode for the solving function look? Notes: This is not a joke, not even a bad one. Before you close this, think of why this isn't a perfectly valid question according to the SO rules. If someone here can actually implement an algorithm solving the problem he gets $500 in cookies from me (that's a hell lot of cookies!). Please don't tell me that this is my homework, what teacher would ever give his students homework like that?

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  • jQuery: responding to click event of element added to document after page load

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a page which uses a lot of in situ editing and updating using jQuery for AJAX. I have come accross a problem which can best be summarised by the workflow described below: Clicking on 'element1' on the page results in a jQuery AJAX POST Data is received in json format The data received in json format The received data is used to update an existing element 'results' in the page The received data is actual an HTML form I want jQuery to be responsible for POSTing the form when the form button is clicked The problem arises at point 6 above. I have code in my main page which looks like this: $(document).ready(function(){ $('img#inserted_form_btn').click(function(){ $.ajax({'type: 'POST', 'url': 'www.example.com', function($data){ $(data.id).html($data.frm); }), 'dataType': 'json'} }); }); However, the event is not being triggered. I think this is because when the document is first loaded, the img#inserted_form_btn element does not exist on the page (it is inserted into the DOM as the result of an element being clicked on the page (not shown in the code above - to keep the question short) My question therefore is: how can I get jQuery to be able to respond to events occuring in elements that were added to the DOM AFTER the page has loaded?

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  • Edit Settings in web.config

    - by Scott Selby
    I didn't know how to title this question - I am making a request to PayPal's Express Payment API. I am using their dll that helps make the request and parse the response. The instructions for their code to work is to add you authorization credentials in the web.config file. I have done so. My problem is that I want to be able to edit these credentials that are being set dynamically ( probably get from SQL ) because we are going to allow different users to enter their API credentials. Sending the request to PayPal looks like this Dim wrapper As New SetExpressCheckoutReq() wrapper.SetExpressCheckoutRequest = request Dim service As New PayPalAPIInterfaceServiceService() Dim setECResponse As SetExpressCheckoutResponseType = service.SetExpressCheckout(wrapper) There's not much room in there to edit the header of the request , because PayPalAPIInterfaceServiceService() is defined in their dll and applies its own header based on the credentials in the web.config. So, my question is , is there a way to point in the web.config to another location when it looks in web.config? I'm not to sure this is possible , also is there any way to edit the header of a request that is defined in a dll without changing the dll (to stay pci compliant) The line in the web.config is here: <account apiUsername="****" apiPassword="****" apiSignature="****"/>

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  • Android 2.1 gallery not backward compatible with Cupcake version, now what?

    - by Schermvlieger
    I don't know why, but in Eclair, the default (non-fancy) gallery app changed its begaviour from the Cupcake version, and it broke one of my commercial applications :-( Firstly, when long-pressing a gallery and choosing "Diashow", it does not publish an Intent to be picked up by any application that implements the Intent filter anymore. Instead, it will directly call "com.android.gallery/com.android.camera.ViewImage" with extras. Question: is it still possible to intercept this intent and allow the user to choose my application to do the Diashow? Secondly, the intent extras for the VIEW intent are messed up (in my build of 2.1 anyway): Instead of providing the BucketId of the picture in the Intent's queryparameter. But in 2.1, the BucketId is moved to the Intent's extras. Except; it is not passing the BUCKET_ID, but the unlocalized BUCKET_DISPLAY_NAME instead :-/ Question: how can I still get the unique BUCKET_ID from the intent, so that I do not have to work with a potentially non-unique BUCKET_DISPLAY_NAME? Is there anybody out there who has come up with a working solution for these problems? I thought the whole idea of Android Intents was to be able to integrate your applications with the base Android environment, but my build of 2.1 proves that this idea still lives in the land of Theory :-(

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  • How do you program a custom WordPress plug-in?

    - by James
    I have seen several WordPress plug-ins for adding a "quote of the day" feature (or something similar) to your blog. How do you create a customized one? I'm looking for something that will pull a daily entry from a list/database of my creation. I apologize if my question is not detailed enough. Still a newbie with WordPress. PART 2: Thanks for your prompt and on-point responses. With your responses and some additional research, I'm able to fine-tune my question. What I wish to accomplish is something similar to Amazon's Deal of the Day widget. Except, in my case, it will simply be a title and a corresponding link. My presumption is that I will set up a database and (using php or something similar) have the information drawn from the database and displayed in my WP sidebar. Additionally, I forgot to mention the time element. I want the displayed info to update once a day, at or around the same time each day. Any ideas? Thanks again. I'm so glad I found stackoverflow.

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  • How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

    - by Roberto Sebestyen
    I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

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