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  • The fastest way to iterate through a collection of objects

    - by Trev
    Hello all, First to give you some background: I have some research code which performs a Monte Carlo simulation, essential what happens is I iterate through a collection of objects, compute a number of vectors from their surface then for each vector I iterate through the collection of objects again to see if the vector hits another object (similar to ray tracing). The pseudo code would look something like this for each object { for a number of vectors { do some computations for each object { check if vector intersects } } } As the number of objects can be quite large and the amount of rays is even larger I thought it would be wise to optimise how I iterate through the collection of objects. I created some test code which tests arrays, lists and vectors and for my first test cases found that vectors iterators were around twice as fast as arrays however when I implemented a vector in my code in was somewhat slower than the array I was using before. So I went back to the test code and increased the complexity of the object function each loop was calling (a dummy function equivalent to 'check if vector intersects') and I found that when the complexity of the function increases the execution time gap between arrays and vectors reduces until eventually the array was quicker. Does anyone know why this occurs? It seems strange that execution time inside the loop should effect the outer loop run time.

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  • Two questions on ensuring EndInvoke() gets called on a list of IAsyncResult objects

    - by RobV
    So this question is regarding the .Net IAsyncResult design pattern and the necessity of calling EndInvoke as covered in this question Background I have some code where I'm firing off potentially many asynchronous calls to a particular function and then waiting for all these calls to finish before using EndInvoke() to get back all the results. Question 1 I don't know whether any of the calls has encountered an exception until I call EndInvoke() and in the event that an exception occurs in one of the calls the entire method should fail and the exception gets wrapped into an API specific exception and thrown upwards. So my first question is what's the best way then to ensure that the remainder of the async calls get properly terminated? Is a finally block which calls EndInvoke() on the remainder of the unterminated calls (and ignores any further exceptions) the best way to do this? Question 2 Secondly when I first fire off all my asyc calls I then call WaitHandle.WaitAll() on the array of WaitHandle instances that I've got from my IAsyncResult instances. The method which is firing all these async calls has a timeout to adhere to so I provide this to the WaitAll() method. Then I test whether all the calls have completed, if not then the timeout must have been reached so the method should also fail and throw another API specific exception. So my second question is what should I do in this case? I need to call EndInvoke() to terminate all these async calls before I throw the error but at the same time I don't want the code to get stuck since EndInvoke() is blocking. In theory at least if the WaitAll() call times out then all the async calls should themselves have timed out and thrown exceptions (thus completing the call) since they are also governed by a timeout but this timeout is potentially different from the main timeout

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  • Background problem on UITableView

    - by f0rz
    Hi ! I have come to a problem, wich I have no idea how to solve. Can anyone think outside the box and point me to right directions? I would be very thankfull ! The problem. I have a UITableView containing a first row wich is always the same (a empty row with repeating background) Next rows are bounch of dynamic data rows. I have set the yellow background on my UITableView in IBuilder, My cells (except first row) have white background with code: UIView* backgroundView = [ [ [ UIView alloc ] initWithFrame:CGRectZero ] autorelease ]; backgroundView.backgroundColor = [UIColor colorWithRed: 0.96078431372549 green: 0.96078431372549 blue: 0.96078431372549 alpha: 1.0]; cell.backgroundView = backgroundView; for ( UIView* view in cell.contentView.subviews ) { view.backgroundColor = [ UIColor clearColor ]; } The example yellow background, I only want to be showed at the top. As u see img example below. The thing is I dont want to have yellow background under the last datarow, I want to contain same white color I have on the cells. This should be white as the cells. Not yellow. Thank u for your time. Regards

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  • CakePHP: Missing database table

    - by Justin
    I have a CakePHP application that is running fine locally. I uploaded it to a production server and the first page that uses a database connection gives the "Missing Database Table" error. When I look at the controller dump, it's complaining about the first table. I've tried a variety of things to fix this problem, with no luck: I've confirmed that at the command line I can login with the given MySQL credentials in database.php I've confirmed this table exists I've tried using the MySQL root credentials (temporarily) to see if the problem lies with permissions of the user. The same error appeared. My debug level is currently set to 3 I've deleted the entire contents of /app/tmp/cache I've set 777 permissions on /app/tmp* I've confirmed that I can run DESCRIBE commands at the commant line MySQL when logged in with the MySQL credentials used by by the application I've verified that the CakePHP log file only contains the error I'm setting in the browser window. I've tried all the suggestions I could find in similar postings on SO I've Googled around and didn't find any other ideas I think I've eliminating the obvious problems and my research isn't turning anything up. I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas?

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  • Which SQL statements to execute with intersection / junction tables

    - by user1455103
    Here a simplified database layout One condo can hold multiple properties (flats, garage boxes, etc) - 1->n relationship One owner can have multiple properties in the same condo and properties can have more than one owner (m->n changed to 1->n with the junction table) One condo can have multiple owners - 1->n Some additional clarification: A owner is a member of a condo. A condo is made of properties belonging to owners BUT a owner is not linked to a property directly (there can be no relation between a property and a owner for a certain time BUT there will ALWAYS be a relation between a owner and a condo). Reason for this: the agent managing the condo will first create a list of owners and a list of properties. It is only later thet he will "link" each property to one or multiple owners (or inversely) I'm quite new to SQL. What SQL statements should I execute to: SELECT, for a specific condo (WHERE condition), the properties and their respective owners (all properties should be listed even if owners are null) SELECT, for a specific condo (WHERE condition), the owners along with their properties (all owners should be listed even if properties are null) UPDATE / DELETE existing owners (I'm uncertain about how to handle the operation for the junction tables. Should I first check if there is an entry in the junction table or not ?) UPDATE / DELETE existing properties (same concern) INSERT new owners (should I use two different SQL statements depending if the owner should be linked to a property or NOT - IF condition ?) INSERT new properties (same question as above) Could you be as clear and generic as possible so that it can be reused ? :-)

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  • How would i down-sample a .wav file then reconstruct it using nyquist? - in MATLAB

    - by Andrew
    This is all done in MATLAB 2010 My objective is to show the results of: undersampling, nyquist rate/ oversampling First i need to downsample the .wav file to get an incomplete/ or impartial data stream that i can then reconstuct. Heres the flow chart of what im going to be doing So the flow is analog signal - sampling analog filter - ADC - resample down - resample up - DAC - reconstruction analog filter what needs to be achieved: F= Frequency F(Hz=1/s) E.x. 100Hz = 1000 (Cyc/sec) F(s)= 1/(2f) Example problem: 1000 hz = Highest frequency 1/2(1000hz) = 1/2000 = 5x10(-3) sec/cyc or a sampling rate of 5ms This is my first signal processing project using matlab. what i have so far. % Fs = frequency sampled (44100hz or the sampling frequency of a cd) [test,fs]=wavread('test.wav'); % loads the .wav file left=test(:,1); % Plot of the .wav signal time vs. strength time=(1/44100)*length(left); t=linspace(0,time,length(left)); plot(t,left) xlabel('time (sec)'); ylabel('relative signal strength') **%this is were i would need to sample it at the different frequecys (both above and below and at) nyquist frequency.*I think.*** soundsc(left,fs) % shows the resaultant audio file , which is the same as original ( only at or above nyquist frequency however) Can anyone tell me how to make it better, and how to do the sampling at verious frequencies?

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  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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  • MVVM using Page Navigation On Windows Mobile 7

    - by anon
    The Navigation framework in Windows Mobile 7 is a cut down version of what is in Silverlight. You can only navigate to a Uri and not pass in a view. Since the NavigationService is tied to the View, how do people get this to fit into MVVM. For example: public class ViewModel : IViewModel { private IUnityContainer container; private IView view; public ViewModel(IUnityContainer container, IView view) { this.container = container; this.view = view; } public ICommand GoToNextPageCommand { get { ... } } public IView { get { return this.view; } } public void GoToNextPage() { // What do I put here. } } public class View : PhoneApplicationPage, IView { ... public void SetModel(IViewModel model) { ... } } I am using the Unity IOC container. I have to resolve my view model first and then use the View property to get hold of the view and then show it. However using the NavigationService, I have to pass in a view Uri. There is no way for me to create the view model first. Is there a way to get around this.

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  • rails Rake and mysql ssh port forwarding.

    - by rube_noob
    Hello, I need to create a rake task to do some active record operations via a ssh tunnel. The rake task is run on a remote windows machine so I would like to keep things in ruby. This is my latest attempt. desc "Syncronizes the tablets DB with the Server" task(:sync => :environment) do require 'rubygems' require 'net/ssh' begin Thread.abort_on_exception = true tunnel_thread = Thread.new do Thread.current[:ready] = false hostname = 'host' username = 'tunneluser' Net::SSH.start(hostname, username) do|ssh| ssh.forward.local(3333, "mysqlhost.com", 3306) Thread.current[:ready] = true puts "ready thread" ssh.loop(0) { true } end end until tunnel_thread[:ready] == true do end puts "tunnel ready" Importer.sync rescue StandardError => e puts "The Database Sync Failed." end end The task seems to hang at "tunnel ready" and never attempts the sync. I have had success when running first a rake task to create the tunnel and then running the rake sync in a different terminal. I want to combine these however so that if there is an error with the tunnel it will not attempt the sync. This is my first time using ruby Threads and Net::SSH forwarding so I am not sure what is the issue here. Any Ideas!? Thanks

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  • Bidirectional/Loopback UDP in .net

    - by Jason Williams
    I've got an app that needs to transmit and receive on the same port. This can happen in two cases: Where the PC is talking to a piece of remote hardware. It "replies to sender", so the datagrams come back in to my PC via the sending port. Where the PC is talking to itself (loopback mode) for testing and demoing (a test app feeds fake data into our main app via UDP). This only seems to fail when trying to achieve loopback. The only way I can get it working is to ensure that the receiver is set up first - something I cannot guarantee. Can anyone help narrow down my search by suggesting a "correct" way to implement the UdpClient(s) to handle the above situations reliably? (The only solution that I've found to work reliably with the remote hardware is to use a single UdpClient in a bidirectional manner, although I'm working with legacy code that may be influencing that finding. I've tried using two UdpClients, but they step on each others toes - In some cases, once one client is started up, the other client cannot connect. With ExclusiveAddressUse/ReuseAddress set up to allow port sharing, I can almost get it to work, apart from the receiver having to start first)

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  • jQuery AJAX request (Rails 3) gets redirected and returns empty message body!

    - by elsurudo
    I'm trying to do a manual jQuery AJAX request the following way: $("#user_plan_id").change(function() { $("#plan_container").load('/plans/' + this.value); }); I have the "rails.js" file included in my header, and a "<%= csrf_meta_tag %". I see from my log that the request IS getting to the server (although without the authenticity token... does rails.js even do this?), but the response is a 302 (Found) rather than 200, and no data actually gets rendered. Any ideas? Edit: I now see that the first request redirects, and the proper partial gets rendered on the redirect. However, the 2nd response's body (on the client-side) is still empty. I'm guessing jQuery uses the first response and doesn't have a listener set up for the redirect. How do I get around this? Also, another note: the page doing the requesting is an HTTPS page. Here is what my log says: Started GET "/plans/221168073" for 127.0.0.1 at Tue Jun 15 01:24:06 -0400 2010 Processing by PlansController#show as HTML Parameters: {"id"=>"221168073"} DEPRECATION WARNING: Using #request_uri is deprecated. Use fullpath instead. (called from ensure_proper_protocol at /Users/ernestsurudo/Sites/vidfolia/vendor/plugins/ssl_requirement/lib/ssl_requirement.rb:57) Redirected to http://vidfolia.com/plans/221168073 Completed 302 Found in 1ms Perhaps it has something to do with the deprecation warning?

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  • Increment part of a string in Ruby

    - by Rik
    I have a method in a Ruby script that is attempting to rename files before they are saved. It looks like this: def increment (path) if path[-3,2] == "_#" print " Incremented file with that name already exists, renaming\n" count = path[-1].chr.to_i + 1 return path.chop! << count.to_s else print " A file with that name already exists, renaming\n" return path << "_#1" end end Say you have 3 files with the same name being saved to a directory, we'll say the file is called example.mp3. The idea is that the first will be saved as example.mp3 (since it won't be caught by if File.exists?("#{file_path}.mp3") elsewhere in the script), the second will be saved as example_#1.mp3 (since it is caught by the else part of the above method) and the third as example_#2.mp3 (since it is caught by the if part of the above method). The problem I have is twofold. 1) if path[-3,2] == "_#" won't work for files with an integer of more than one digit (example_#11.mp3 for example) since the character placement will be wrong (you'd need it to be path[-4,2] but then that doesn't cope with 3 digit numbers etc). 2) I'm never reaching problem 1) since the method doesn't reliably catch file names. At the moment it will rename the first to example_#1.mp3 but the second gets renamed to the same thing (causing it to overwrite the previously saved file). This is possibly too vague for Stack Overflow but I can't find anything that addresses the issue of incrementing a certain part of a string. Thanks in advance!

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  • Passing in a lambda to a Where statement

    - by sonicblis
    I noticed today that if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2); items = items.Where(i => i.Property > 4); Once I access the items var, it executes only the first line as the data call and then does the second call in memory. However, if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2).Where(i => i.Property > 4); I get only one expression executed against the context that includes both where statements. I have a host of variables that I want to use to build the expression for the linq lambda, but their presence or absence changes the expression such that I'd have to have a rediculous number of conditionals to satisfy all cases. I thought I could just add the Where() statements as in my first example above, but that doesn't end up in a single expression that contains all of the criteria. Therefore, I'm trying to create just the lambda itself as such: //bogus syntax if (var1 == "something") var expression = Expression<Func<item, bool>>(i => i.Property == "Something); if (var2 == "somethingElse") expression = expression.Where(i => i.Property2 == "SomethingElse"); And then pass that in to the where of my context.Items to evaluate. A) is this right, and B) if so, how do you do it?

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  • how can I validate column names and count in an List array? C#

    - by Christopher Klein
    I'm trying to get this resolved in .NET 2.0 and unfortunately that is not negotiable. I am reading in a csv file with columns of data that 'should' correspond to a List of tickers in IdentA with some modifications. The csv file columsn would read: A_MSFT,A_CSCO,_A_YHOO,B_MSFT,B_CSCO,B_YHOO,C_MSFT,C_CSCO,C_YHOO IdentA[0]="MSFT" IdentA[1]="CSCO" IdentA[2]="YHOO" The AssetsA array is populated with the csv data AssetsA[0]=0 AssetsA[1]=1.1 AssetsA[2]=0 AssetsA[3]=2 AssetsA[4]=3.2 AssetsA[5]=12 AssetsA[6]=54 AssetsA[7]=13 AssetsA[8]=0.2 The C_ columns are optional but if they exist they all need to exist. All of the suffixes must match the values in IdentA. The values in the csv files all need to be decimal. I'm using a group of 3 as an example, there could be any number of tickers in the IdentA array. Its easy enough to do the first part: for (int x = 0; x < IdentA.Count; x++) { decimal.TryParse(AssetsA[x + IdentA.Count], out currentelections); } So that will get me the first set of values for the A_ columns but how can I get through B_ and C_ ? I can't do something as simple as IdentA.Count*2...

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  • Apply CSS style to anchor problem

    - by Jake
    Using jquery I have a clicking tab mechanism that are nothing but anchor tags that return false but call javascript functions to run some events on the page. The problem is I am using jquery to apply an opacity style to the active anchor. and the other sibling anchor get a lesser opacity view. My code looks like this $("#menutab li a").click(function(){ $(this).animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); } I would think this code would act only on the clicked element and apply that css style to that element and the other style to the other anchor tags except the clicked one. It kind of does that, but also what it does is leave the earlier clicked element to opacity =1, so if I click an element it sets it opacity to 1 and then if I click another one it sets it opacity to 1 while leave the earlier clicked one to 1 also instead of setting it to .25 like the others. Edit: I changed the above code to: $("#menutab ul li").click(function(){ $(this).children().animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().children().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); }); and now I get the desired effect, except that when the first anchor in the list is clicked doesn't follow the event rules, When the first one is clicked its as if, the click event is not triggered, because no opacity style changes. which I don't understand.

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  • Loading Jscript files into Firefox extension

    - by colon3l
    Hi ! Let's get directly to the problem : I'm actually doing a firefox extension in which i would like to implement the jWebsocket API in order to build a small chat. I got my main script file, named test.js, and the jWebsocket lib into a js folder. Just for you to know, this is my first firefox extension ever. So in my XUL file I got this (for the script part only of course, the interface code is not shown) : <overlay id="test-overlay" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://test/content/test.js" /> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://test/content/js/jwebsocket.js" /> jwebsocket.js being the file I need to call according to jWebsocket website. In my main script file test.js I start with : if (jws.browserSupportsWebSockets()) { jWebSocketClient = new jws.jWebSocketJSONClient(); } else { var lMsg = jws.MSG_WS_NOT_SUPPORTED; alert(lMsg); } jws being the namespace created into the jwebsocket.js file. Of course I've got the required stand-alone server running in background, and working. So from what I understood looking on various websites, is that if a js file is loaded into the javascript allocated memory space (with the tag), all namespace/function should be available between each file. But this was mostly for HTML-oriented issues, so I'm not sure if it applies to XUL/Firefox environment. But the script keep failing at the first jws call. Any ideas on what goes wrong here ? I'm stuck for 2 days now :/

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  • Refactoring code/consolidating functions (e.g. nested for-loop order)

    - by bmay2
    Just a little background: I'm making a program where a user inputs a skeleton text, two numbers (lower and upper limit), and a list of words. The outputs are a series of modifications on the skeleton text. Sample inputs: text = "Player # likes @." (replace # with inputted integers and @ with words in list) lower = 1 upper = 3 list = "apples, bananas, oranges" The user can choose to iterate over numbers first: Player 1 likes apples. Player 2 likes apples. Player 3 likes apples. Or words first: Player 1 likes apples. Player 1 likes bananas. Player 1 likes oranges. I chose to split these two methods of outputs by creating a different type of dictionary based on either number keys (integers inputted by the user) or word keys (from words in the inputted list) and then later iterating over the values in the dictionary. Here are the two types of dictionary creation: def numkey(dict): # {1: ['Player 1 likes apples', 'Player 1 likes...' ] } text, lower, upper, list = input_sort(dict) d = {} for num in range(lower,upper+1): l = [] for i in list: l.append(text.replace('#', str(num)).replace('@', i)) d[num] = l return d def wordkey(dict): # {'apples': ['Player 1 likes apples', 'Player 2 likes apples'..] } text, lower, upper, list = input_sort(dict) d = {} for i in list: l = [] for num in range(lower,upper+1): l.append(text.replace('#', str(num)).replace('@', i)) d[i] = l return d It's fine that I have two separate functions for creating different types of dictionaries but I see a lot of repetition between the two. Is there any way I could make one dictionary function and pass in different values to it that would change the order of the nested for loops to create the specific {key : value} pairs I'm looking for? I'm not sure how this would be done. Is there anything related to functional programming or other paradigms that might help with this? The question is a little abstract and more stylistic/design-oriented than anything.

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  • Same jQuery code returns two different results – Submit Button Text

    - by Lijo
    I have two jQuery codes - http://jsfiddle.net/Lijo/CXGX7/7/ and http://jsfiddle.net/Lijo/CXGX7/8/ . The first code returns undefined whereas the second code returns text of button. QUESTIONS What is the reason for this difference in result? Why is the first code not returning expected text of button? Note: I verified that both are using same version of jQuery (by an alert of jQuery) alert($.fn.jquery); CODE <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head><title> </title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.aspnetcdn.com/ajax/jquery/jquery-1.8.1.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> alert($('.myButton').attr("value")); </script> </head> <body> <form method="post" action="Test.aspx" id="form1"> <div class="aspNetHidden"> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwULLTE0MDM4MzYxMjNkZMycQvsYQ+GPFsQHoQ8j/8vEo2vQbqkhfgPc60kxXaQO" /> </div> <div class="aspNetHidden"> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWAwKqxqqrCgLi/JazDQKM54rGBqgaroRQTXJkD1LyUlVxAmLRCNfTGVe73swQBMemBtvN" /> </div> <div> <input name="txtEmpName" type="text" id="txtEmpName" /> <input type="submit" name="Button1" value="Submit" id="Button1" class="myButton" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> REFERENCES Retrieve Button value with jQuery How to determine and print jQuery version?

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  • How do I do client-side form validation in jQuery?

    - by marcamillion
    I am trying to use this plugin: http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Validation Where #user_new is the id for my form, this is what my code looks like: $('#user_new').validate({ rules: { user[username]: "required", user[email]: { required: true, email: true } }, messages: { user[username]: "Please specify your name", user[email]: { required: "We need your email address to contact you", email: "Your email address must be in the format of [email protected]" } } }) Where these are how my input fields look when the page is rendered (generated by Rails): <input class="clearField curved" id="user_f_name" name="user[f_name]" size="30" type="text" value="First Name" /><br /> <input class="clearField curved" id="user_l_name" name="user[l_name]" size="30" type="text" value="Last Name" /><br /> <input class="clearField curved" id="user_username" name="user[username]" size="30" type="text" value="Username" /><br /> <input class="clearField curved" id="user_password" name="user[password]" size="30" type="password" value="Password" /><br /> <input class="clearField curved" id="user_password_confirmation" name="user[password_confirmation]" size="30" type="password" value="Password" /><br /> <input class="clearField curved" id="user_email" name="user[email]" size="30" type="text" value="Email Address" /><br /> I was just trying to validate username & email first. Then take it from there. For the life of me, I can't figure out how to specify the syntax and the rules for working with this plugin. Help!

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  • Customizing the TFS 2008 build sequence to avoid compilation and deploy SSRS

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to create a CI process for SQL Server Reporting Services. I am fairly new to TFS but quite experienced with MSBuild. In the past I've used a combination of MSBuild with Team City so the whole build process is more or less custom. Here lies the start of my problems, as the solution I am deploying only contains Report Server projects (rds), no compilation is required. I thought that I would override the the first default task that TFS runs (EndToEndIteration) to override the default TFS build sequence and inject my own. The first snag that I have come across is that the build always fails, how can I set the status of the build to success? Currently the EndToEndIteration task is very light and only has a message. Is this the best method to create a custom build process in TFS where compilation is not required? Or should I use the default sequence and override one of the hook tasks mentioned in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa337604%28VS.80%29.aspx (ie: AfterCompile) The core steps that I'd like to achieve are: Bundle the RDL and datasource files Connect to the host server to register/deploy the reports Re-apply any subscriptions that previously existed Run tests to verify the deployment succeeded and is returning results as expected I have found another article on Report services deployment: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/88710/reporting-services-deployment But it doesn't mention the best practice for customizing the standard build process. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Sequential animations in Jquery

    - by Pickels
    I see a lot people struggling with this(me included). I guess it's mostly due to not perfectly knowing how Javascript scopes work. An image slideshow is a good example of this. So lets say you have series of images, the first one fades in = waits = fades out = next image. When I first created this I was already a little lost. I think the biggest problem for creating the basics is to keep it clean. I noticed working with callbacks can get uggly pretty fast. So to make it even more complicated most slideshows have control buttons. Next, previous, go to img, pause, ... I've been trying this for a while now and this is where I got: $(InitSlideshow); function InitSlideshow() { var img = $("img").hide(); var animate = { wait: undefined, start: function() { img.fadeIn(function() { animate.middle(); }); }, middle: function() { animate.wait = setTimeout(function() { animate.end(); }, 1000); }, end: function() { img.fadeOut(function() { animate.start(); }); }, stop: function() { img.stop(); clearTimeout(animate.wait); } }; $("#btStart").click(animate.start); $("#btStop").click(animate.stop); }; This code works(I think) but I wonder how other people deal with sequentials animations in Jquery? Tips and tricks are most welcome. So are links to good resources dealing with this issue. If this has been asked before I will delete this question. I didn't find a lot of info about this right away. I hope making this community wiki is correct as there is not one correct answer to my question. Kind regards, Pickels

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  • jQuery arrays - newbie needs a kick start

    - by Jonny Wood
    I've only really started using this site and alredy I am very impressed by the community here! This is my third question in less than three days. Hopefully I'll be able to start answering questions soon instead of just asking them! I'm fairly new to jQuery and can't find a decent tutorial on Arrays. I'd like to be able to create an array that targets several ID's on my page and performs the same effect for each. For example I have tabs set up with the following: $('.tabs div.tab').hide(); $('.tabs div:first').show(); $('.tabs ul li:first a').addClass('current'); $('.tabs ul li a').click(function(){ $('.tabs ul li a').removeClass('current'); $(this).addClass('current'); var currentTab = $(this).attr('href'); $('.tabs div.tab').hide(); $(currentTab).show(); return false; }); I've used the class .tag to target the tabs as there are several sets on the same page, but I've heard jQuery works much faster when targetting ID's How would I add an array to the above code to target 4 different ID's? I've looked at var myArray = new Array('#id1', 'id2', 'id3', 'id4'); And also var myValues = [ '#id1', 'id2', 'id3', 'id4' ]; Which is correct and how do I then use the array in the code for my tabs...?

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  • C# / XNA - Load objects to the memory - how it works?

    - by carl
    Hello I'm starting with C# and XNA. In the "Update" method of the "Game" class I have this code: t = Texture2D.FromFile( [...] ); //t is a 'Texture2D t;' which loads small image. "Update" method is working like a loop, so this code is called many times in a second. Now, when I run my game, it takes 95MB of RAM and it goes slowly to about 130MB (due to the code I've posted, without this code it remains at 95MB), then goes immediately to about 100MB (garbare colletion?) and again goes slowly to 130MB, then immediately to 100MB and so on. So my first question: Can You explain why (how) it works like that? I've found, that if I change the code to: t.Dispose() t = Texture2D.FromFile( [...] ); it works like that: first it takes 95MB and then goes slowly to about 101MB (due to the code) and remains at this level. I don't understand why it takes this 6MB (101-95)... ? I want to make it works like that: load image, release from memory, load image, release from memory and so on, so the program should always takes 95MB (it takes 95MB when image is loaded only once in previous method). Whats instructions should I use? If it is important, the size of the image is about 10KB. Thank You!

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  • Form (or Formset?) to handle multiple table rows in Django

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm working on my first Django application. In short, what it needs to do is to display a list of film titles, and allow users to give a rating (out of 10) to each film. I've been able to use the {{ form }} and {{ formset }} syntax in a template to produce a form which lets you rate one film at a time, which corresponds to one row in a MySQL table, but how do I produce a form that iterates over all the movie titles in the database and produces a form that lets you rate lots of them at once? At first, I thought this was what formsets were for, but I can't see any way to automatically iterate over the contents of a database table to produce items to go in the form, if you see what I mean. Currently, my views.py has this code: def survey(request): ScoreFormSet = formset_factory(ScoreForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = ScoreFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponseRedirect('/') else: formset = ScoreFormSet() return render_to_response('cf/survey.html', { 'formset':formset, }) And my survey.html has this: <form action="/survey/" method="POST"> <table> {{ formset }} </table> <input type = "submit" value = "Submit"> </form> Oh, and the definition of ScoreForm and Score from models.py are: class Score(models.Model): movie = models.ForeignKey(Movie) score = models.IntegerField() user = models.ForeignKey(User) class ScoreForm(ModelForm): class Meta: model = Score So, in case the above is not clear, what I'm aiming to produce is a form which has one row per movie, and each row shows a title, and has a box to allow the user to enter their score. If anyone can point me at the right sort of approach to this, I'd be most grateful. Thanks, Ben

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  • Google Maps API and "rightclick" events on Macs

    - by samc
    Using the Google Maps API (v3), I can create a map and handle normal click events just fine, but when I want to handle rightclick events, it doesn't work on Macs. I assume this is because a rightclick on a Mac is actually converted to a ctrl-click, but the Google Maps API MouseEvent doesn't provide information about modifier keys, so I can't check for the ctrl key. I tried adding an "capture" event listener to the document that converts the click event to a rightclick event. function convertClick(e) { if (e.ctrlKey) { e.button = 2; } } document.addEventListener("click", convertClick, true) I added an alert to verify that the condition is correct, but modifying the event in this way didn't work. So, I decided to have my event handler set a global flag that my click handler could check. If the flag is set, it means ctrl was pressed, so the click handler just invokes the rightclick handler. var ctrl; function captureCtrl(e) { ctrl = e.ctrlKey; } This approach worked great, except for one thing. The ctrl flag gets set for the click after the one that occured when ctrl was pressed. That means the event handler is be called during the bubble phase rather than the capture phase. Could explain why the event modification approach didn't work. So, my question is how can you detect "rightclick" events from Macs with the Google Maps API? I can't be the first person to want to do this. That said, when I right-click on the map on http://maps.google.com from a Windows or Linux machine, I get a popup box with options like "Directions from here...", etc. On a Mac, nothing happens. So, not even the main Google Maps page has solved this problem. ...maybe I am the first person to want to do this.

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