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  • Skip HTML escape in custom label_tag helper in Rail 3

    - by tricote
    Hi, I have this nice class ErrorFormBuilder that allows me to add the error description near the corresponding field in the form view : class ErrorFormBuilder < ActionView::Helpers::FormBuilder #Adds error message directly inline to a form label #Accepts all the options normall passed to form.label as well as: # :hide_errors - true if you don't want errors displayed on this label # :additional_text - Will add additional text after the error message or after the label if no errors def label(method, text = nil, options = {}) #Check to see if text for this label has been supplied and humanize the field name if not. text = text || method.to_s.humanize #Get a reference to the model object object = @template.instance_variable_get("@#{@object_name}") #Make sure we have an object and we're not told to hide errors for this label unless object.nil? || options[:hide_errors] #Check if there are any errors for this field in the model errors = object.errors.on(method.to_sym) if errors #Generate the label using the text as well as the error message wrapped in a span with error class text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" end end #Add any additional text that might be needed on the label text += " #{options[:additional_text]}" if options[:additional_text] #Finally hand off to super to deal with the display of the label super(method, text, options) end end But the HTML : text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" is escaped by default in the view... I tried to add the {:escape = false} option : super(method, text, options.merge({:escape => false})) without success Is there any way to bypass this behavior ? Thanks

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  • RSKeyMgmt -r unable to remove installtion ID

    - by Eves
    I have backed up databases on one 2005 SQL Server and have restored those databases on a second 2005 SQL Server. I am currently trying to remove the new server's OLD key instance ID using the Reporting Services Key Manager (RSKeyMgmt -r). Prior to running the removal command the list of the current instances shows the new server's OLD instance ID as well as the NEW instance ID from the first SQL Server. Executing the RSKeyMgmt -r command results in: "The command completed successfully". However, when I recheck the listing of current instance IDs I see both the OLD and NEW instance IDs. In addition, when I check the Application Event Viewer I see an error: Report Server Windows Service (MSSQLSERVER) has not been granted access to the catalog content Does anyone know why I would be getting the above application error? Or...does anyone know what I would need to do to give access to the catalog to the Report Server Window Service? The first SQL Server where the databases were backed up is an Enterprise edition SQL Server and the second SQL Server where the databases were restored is Standard edition. Could this be the cause of the problem? Is there a way to make this backup and restore migration work?

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  • How to get components from a JFrame with a GridLayout?

    - by NlightNfotis
    I have a question about Java and JFrame in particular. Let's say I have a JFrame that I am using with a GridLayout. Supposing that I have added JButtons in the JFrame, how can I gain access to the one I want using it's position (by position, I mean a x and a y, used to define the exact place on the Grid). I have tried several methods, for instance getComponentAt(int x, int y), and have seen that those methods do not work as intended when combined with GridLayout, or at least don't work as intended in my case. So I tried using getComponent(), which seems fine. The latest method, that seems to be on a right track for me is (assuming I have a JFrame with a GridLayout with 7 rows and 7 columns, x as columns, y as rows): public JButton getButtonByXAndY(int x, int y) { return (JButton) this.getContentPane().getComponent((y-1) * 7 + x); } Using the above, say I want to get the JButton at (4, 4), meaning the 25th JButton in the JFrame, I would index through the first 21 buttons at first, and then add 4 more, finally accessing the JButton I want. Problem is this works like that in theory only. Any ideas? P.S sorry for linking to an external website, but stack overflow won't allow me to upload the image, because I do not have the required reputation.

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  • How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

    - by sperling
    How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • WinForms - DateTimePicker default month selection behavior for Server 2003 vs Server 2008?

    - by Mike Loux
    Good Afternoon! Has anybody else noticed a change in the default behavior of the "next" and "previous" month arrows in the standard WinForms DateTimePicker control? I have users running on both Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008 R2, and they are reporting that on 2008 (and Vista/Win7), clicking the right or left arrows on the drop-down Calendar now selects the first day of the month rather than retaining the same day like 2003 (and XP) does. I have checked this out (I have a Win7 machine) and I have confirmed this behavior. I would prefer that the behavior remain consistent whenever possible. Does anybody know what causes this and if there is a way to get around this? Is there a way to trap the arrow-click event and force the resulting date to retain the original day rather than be reset to the first of the month? I thought about seeing if there was a way to hit-test the control on a MouseUp event and determine if the arrow buttons were clicked, and then override the month value being set, but I'm not sure if that is even possible. Can anybody provide some wisdom or insight? Thanks!

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  • Dockable panes created in CChildFrame not visible the second time the app. starts.

    - by Nijenhuis
    Hi, I have created some dockable panes in CChildFrame::OnCreate() The first time i start the application they are shown. The second time i start the application they are created but the splitterwindows are completly against the sides of the clients area (bottom and right), so not visible. So i have to use the mouse to pull the splitters into the clientarea so that the dockable windows become visible again. If i do File-New in my app a new client window is created and showing the dockable windows as they should be. I Think this has something to do with saving the windows layout in the registry, because if i change SetRegistryKey(_T("61sakjgsajkdg")); in the CWinApp derived class of my app. and rerun they are shown again the first time. (but not the second time i restart the app). How can i save the layout of those dockable windows as well, so if i restart my app. they are visible ? Or else how do i prevent my app. of overwritting the window layout with the one previously saved. Something to do with LoadCustomState() and SaveCustomState() ?, i could no find any info on howto implement those methods. I have here a link to the demo project to demonstrate what i mean: http://www.4shared.com/file/237193472/c384f0f6/GUI60.html Could someone tell me how to show those dockable windows in my CChildFrame class the second time the app starts?

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  • jquery.append() - only the last element of my list is appended, previous ones are erased

    - by jaes
    Hi, I have a page like this : <div id="daysTable"> <div id="day0" class="day"></div> <div id="day1" class="day"></div> <div id="day2" class="day"></div> <div id="day3" class="day"></div> <div id="day4" class="day"></div> <div id="day5" class="day"></div> <div id="day6" class="day"></div> </div> and some javascript to fill my calendar like this function getWeek(){ $.getJSON("/getWeek",function(events){ var eventHeight = $("#hoursTable > div").height(); var eventWidth = $("#daysTable > div").width(); var startWeek = events[0]// timestamp of the start of the week for(var i = 1; i < events.length; i ++){ $(".day").empty(); var startHour = (events[i].startDate - startWeek)/3600 var duration = (events[i].stopDate - startWeek)/3600 - startHour var dayStart = Math.floor(startHour/24); var startHour = startHour - dayStart * 24 divEvent = $('<div id="event'+events[i].idEvent+'"/>') .width(eventWidth-2) .height(duration*eventHeight) .css("border","1px solid black") .css("margin-top",startHour*eventHeight) .html(events[i].name); divEvent.appendTo("#day"+dayStart); console.log(divEvent); } }); } my problem being : events contain 3 element I'd like to display but only the last is displayed. If I stop my "for" at the first iteration I can see the first div appended, but it seems that if my loop goes for three iteration the two previous are deleted. The console.log() display some "not-anymore" existing element. Any idea ?

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  • jQuery click event on image only fires once

    - by stephenreece@
    I created a view of thumbnails. When the user clicks, I want the real image to pop-up in a dialog. That works the first time, but once the jQuery 'click' fires on an thumbnail it never fires again unless I reload the entire page. I've tried rebinding the click events on the dialog close that that does not help. Here is my code: function LoadGalleryView() { $('img.gallery').each(function(){ BindImage($(this)); }); } function BindImage(image) { var src= image.attr('src'); var id= image.attr('id'); var popurl = src.replace("thumbs/", ""); image.hover(function(){ image.attr('style', 'height: 100%; width: 100%;'); }, function(){ image.removeAttr('style'); }); $('#'+id).live('click', function() { PopUpImage(popurl); }); } function CheckImage(img,html) { if ( img.complete ) { $('#galleryProgress').html(''); var imgwidth = img.width+35; var imgheight = img.height+65; $('<div id="viewImage" title="View"></div>').html(html).dialog( { bgiframe: true, autoOpen: true, modal: true, width: imgwidth, height: imgheight, position: 'center', closeOnEscape: true }); } else { $('#galleryProgress').html('<img src="images/ajax-loader.gif" /><br /><br />'); setTimeout(function(){CheckImage(img,html);},10); } } function PopUpImage(url) { var html = '<img src="'+url+'" />'; var img = new Image(); img.src = url; if ( ! img.complete ) { setTimeout(function(){CheckImage(img,html);},10); } } PopUpImage() only executes the first time an image is clicked and I cannot figure out how to rebind.

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  • CRONTAB doesn't finish svndump

    - by Andrew
    I just discovered that the automated dumps I've been creating of my SVN repository have been getting cut off early and basically only half the dump is there. It's not an emergency, but I hate being in this situation. It defeats the purpose of making automated backups in the first place. The command I'm using is below. If I execute it manually in the terminal, it completes fine; the output.txt file is 16 megs in size with all 335 revisions. But if I leave it to crontab, it bails at the halfway mark, at around 8.1 megs and only the first 169 revisions. # m h dom mon dow command 18 00 * * * svnadmin dump /var/svn/repos/myproject > /home/andrew/output.txt I actually save to a dated gzipped file, and there's no shortage of space on the server, so this is not a disk space issue. It seems to bail after two seconds, so this could be a time issue, but the file size is the same every single time for the past month, so I don't think it's that either. Does crontab execute within a limited memory space?

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  • protocol parsing in c

    - by nomad.alien
    I have been playing around with trying to implement some protocol decoders, but each time I run into a "simple" problem and I feel the way I am solving the problem is not optimal and there must be a better way to do things. I'm using C. Currently I'm using some canned data and reading it in as a file, but later on it would be via TCP or UDP. Here's the problem. I'm currently playing with a binary protocol at work. All fields are 8 bits long. The first field(8bits) is the packet type. So I read in the first 8 bits and using a switch/case I call a function to read in the rest of the packet as I then know the size/structure of it. BUT...some of these packets have nested packets inside them, so when I encounter that specific packet I then have to read another 8-16 bytes have another switch/case to see what the next packet type is and on and on. (Luckily the packets are only nested 2 or 3 deep). Only once I have the whole packet decoded can I handle it over to my state machine for processing. I guess this can be a more general question as well. How much data do you have to read at a time from the socket? As much as possible? As much as what is "similar" in the protocol headers? So even though this protocol is fairly basic, my code is a whole bunch of switch/case statements and I do a lot of reading from the file/socket which I feel is not optimal. My main aim is to make this decoder as fast as possible. To the more experienced people out there, is this the way to go or is there a better way which I just haven't figured out yet? Any elegant solution to this problem?

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  • git changes modification time of files

    - by tanascius
    In the GitFaq I can read, that Git sets the current time as the timestamp on every file it modifies, but only those. However, I tried this command sequence (EDIT: added complete command sequence) $ git init test && cd test Initialized empty Git repository in d:/test/.git/ exxxxxxx@wxxxxxxx /d/test (master) $ touch filea fileb exxxxxxx@wxxxxxxx /d/test (master) $ git add . exxxxxxx@wxxxxxxx /d/test (master) $ git commit -m "first commit" [master (root-commit) fcaf171] first commit 0 files changed, 0 insertions(+), 0 deletions(-) create mode 100644 filea create mode 100644 fileb exxxxxxx@wxxxxxxx /d/test (master) $ ls -l > filea exxxxxxx@wxxxxxxx /d/test (master) $ touch fileb -t 200912301000 exxxxxxx@wxxxxxxx /d/test (master) $ ls -l total 1 -rw-r--r-- 1 exxxxxxx Administ 132 Feb 12 18:36 filea -rw-r--r-- 1 exxxxxxx Administ 0 Dec 30 10:00 fileb exxxxxxx@wxxxxxxx /d/test (master) $ git status -a warning: LF will be replaced by CRLF in filea # On branch master warning: LF will be replaced by CRLF in filea # Changes to be committed: # (use "git reset HEAD <file>..." to unstage) # # modified: filea # exxxxxxx@wxxxxxxx /d/test (master) $ git checkout . exxxxxxx@wxxxxxxx /d/test (master) $ ls -l total 0 -rw-r--r-- 1 exxxxxxx Administ 0 Feb 12 18:36 filea -rw-r--r-- 1 exxxxxxx Administ 0 Feb 12 18:36 fileb Now my question: Why did git change the timestamp of file fileb? I'd expect the timestamp to be unchanged. Are my commands causing a problem? Maybe it is possible to do something like a git checkout . --modified instead? I am using git version 1.6.5.1.1367.gcd48 under mingw32/windows xp.

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  • Parsing custom time format with SimpleDateFormat

    - by ggrigery
    I'm having trouble parsing a date format that I'm getting back from an API and that I have never seen (I believe is a custom format). An example of a date: /Date(1353447000000+0000)/ When I first encountered this format it didn't take me long to see that it was the time in milliseconds with a time zone offset. I'm having trouble extracting this date using SimpleDateFormat though. Here was my first attempt: String weirdDate = "/Date(1353447000000+0000)/"; SimpleDateFormat sdf = new SimpleDateFormat("'/Date('SSSSSSSSSSSSSZ')/'"); Date d1 = sdf.parse(weirdDate); System.out.println(d1.toString()); System.out.println(d1.getTime()); System.out.println(); Date d2 = new Date(Long.parseLong("1353447000000")); System.out.println(d2.toString()); System.out.println(d2.getTime()); And output: Tue Jan 06 22:51:41 EST 1970 532301760 Tue Nov 20 16:30:00 EST 2012 1353447000000 The date (and number of milliseconds parsed) is not even close and I haven't been able to figure out why. After some troubleshooting, I discovered that the way I'm trying to use SDF is clearly flawed. Example: String weirdDate = "1353447000000"; SimpleDateFormat sdf = new SimpleDateFormat("S"); Date d1 = sdf.parse(weirdDate); System.out.println(d1.toString()); System.out.println(d1.getTime()); And output: Wed Jan 07 03:51:41 EST 1970 550301760 I can't say I've ever tried to use SDF in this way to just parse a time in milliseconds because I would normally use Long.parseLong() and just pass it straight into new Date(long) (and in fact the solution I have in place right now is just a regular expression and parsing a long). I'm looking for a cleaner solution that I can easily extract this time in milliseconds with the timezone and quickly parse out into a date without the messy manual handling. Anyone have any ideas or that can spot the errors in my logic above? Help is much appreciated.

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  • ASP.NET MVC URL Routing problem

    - by Sadegh
    hi, i have defined a route as below: context.MapRoute("SearchEngineWebSearch", "search/web/{query}/{index}/{size}", new { controller = "search", action = "web", query = "", index = 0, size = 5 }); and action method to handle request match with that: public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Web(string query = "", int index = 0, int size = 5) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) return RedirectToRoute("SearchEngineBasicSearch"); var search = new Search(); var results = search.PerformSearch(query, index, size); ViewData["Query"] = query; if (results != null && results.Count() > 0) { ViewData["Results"]= results; return View("Web"); } else return View("Not-Found"); } and form to sent parameter to action method: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Web", "Search", FormMethod.Post)) { %> <input name="query" type="text" value="<%: ViewData["Query"]%>" class="search-field" /> <input type="submit" value="Search" class="search-button" /> <input type="hidden" name="index" value="2" /> <input type="hidden" name="size" value="2" /> <%} %> now after click on submit and sending value to action method all route values updated but url values still is equals to first time of sending parameter. for example if i sent for first time request such as http://localhost/search/web/google and for next time http://localhost/search/web/yahoo, query parameter which passed to action method is yahoo but url after postback is http://localhost/search/web/google still! can anybody help me plz? ;)

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  • Help me clean up this crazy lambda with the out keyword

    - by Sarah Vessels
    My code looks ugly, and I know there's got to be a better way of doing what I'm doing: private delegate string doStuff( PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt ); private bool tryEncryptPassword( doStuff encryptPassword, out string errorMessage ) { ...get some variables... string encryptedPassword = encryptPassword(encrypter, publicKey, privateKey, out salt); ... } This stuff so far doesn't bother me. It's how I'm calling tryEncryptPassword that looks so ugly, and has duplication because I call it from two methods: public bool method1(out string errorMessage) { string rawPassword = "foo"; return tryEncryptPassword( (PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt) => encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( // Overload 1 rawPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ), out errorMessage ); } public bool method2(SecureString unencryptedPassword, out string errorMessage) { return tryEncryptPassword( (PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt) => encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( // Overload 2 unencryptedPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ), out errorMessage ); } Two parts to the ugliness: I have to explicitly list all the parameter types in the lambda expression because of the single out parameter. The two overloads of EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff take all the same parameters except for the first parameter, which can either be a string or a SecureString. So method1 and method2 are pretty much identical, they just call different overloads of EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff. Any suggestions? Edit: if I apply Jeff's suggestions, I do the following call in method1: return tryEncryptPassword( (encrypter, publicKey, privateKey) => { var result = new EncryptionResult(); string salt; result.EncryptedValue = encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( rawPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ); result.Salt = salt; return result; }, out errorMessage ); Much the same call is made in method2, just with a different first value to EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff. This is an improvement, but it still seems like a lot of duplicated code.

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  • facebook authentication / login trouble

    - by salmane
    I have setup facebook authentication using php and it goes something like this first getting the authorization here : https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?client_id=<?= $facebook_app_id ?>&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&scope=user_about_me,publish_stream then getting the access Token here : $url = "https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id=".$facebook_app_id."&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&client_secret=".$facebook_secret."&code=".$code;" function get_string_between($string, $start, $end){ $string = " ".$string; $ini = strpos($string,$start); if ($ini == 0) return ""; $ini += strlen($start); $len = strpos($string,$end,$ini) - $ini; return substr($string,$ini,$len); } $access_token = get_string_between(file_get_contents($url), "access_token=", "&expires="); then getting user info : $facebook_user = file_get_contents('https://graph.facebook.com/me?access_token='.$access_token); $facebook_id = json_decode($facebook_user)->id; $first_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->first_name; $last_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->last_name; this is pretty ugly ( in my opinion ) but it works....how ever....the user is still not logged in...because i did not create or retrieve any session variables to confirm that the user is logged in to facebook... which means that after getting the authentication done the use still has to login .... first: is there a better way using php to do what i did above ? second: how do i set/ get session variable / cookies that ensure that the user doesnt have to click login thanks for your help

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  • How to Return Variable for all tests to use Unittest

    - by chrissygormley
    Hello, I have a Python script and I am trying to set a variable so that if the first test fail's the rest of then will be set to fail. The script I have so far is: class Tests(): def function: result function.......... def errorHandle(self): return self.error def sudsPass(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals(): self.error = True self.errorHandle() assert True else: self.error = False self.errorHandle() assert False def sudsFail(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals() or self.error == False: assert False else: assert True class GetStreamUri(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.sudsPass() class GetStreamUriProtocolFail(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.stream.Transport.Protocol = "NoValue" self.errorHandle() self.sudsFail() if __name__ == '__main__': unittest.main() I am trying to get self.error to be set to False if the first test fail. I understand that it is being set in another test but I was hoping someone could help me find a solution to this problem using some other means. Thanks PS. Please ignore the strange tests. There is a problem with the error handling at the moment.

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  • not able to run c/cpp execs in eclipse cdt

    - by user1658323
    i installed eclipse and then cdt on an ubuntu system recently and was trying to make the first runnable c/c++ proj.. i installed g++ also, and then created the first executable cpp 'Hello World' project some files are created... then some issues... 1) even though Build Automatically is selected, I have to goto the project n do a Build Project to build it manually, and this i have to do everytime i make a change 2) After Building manually, there are some new folders created with Binaries and Debug files and i can see g++ commands in the console being executed. The project binary is output both to debug n binaries folder. But i am not able to run these through the Green Play Button or any other way in eclipse. Even Run configuration is not showing any option for c/C++ proj.. though i can goto terminal and run the binary myself through ./ But i want to be able to run n debug this through eclipse. plz help in fixing me this problem as i really love eclipse n have some c/cpp assignments coming soon.. Console info on doing a manual project build - Build of configuration Debug for project qwe ** make all Building file: ../src/qwe.cpp Invoking: GCC C++ Compiler g++ -O0 -g3 -Wall -c -fmessage-length=0 -MMD -MP -MF"src/qwe.d" -MT"src/qwe.d" -o "src/qwe.o" "../src/qwe.cpp" Finished building: ../src/qwe.cpp Building target: qwe Invoking: GCC C++ Linker g++ -o "qwe" ./src/qwe.o Finished building target: qwe Build Finished **

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  • iPhone OpenGL ES Texture2D Masking

    - by Robert Neagu
    What's the best choice when trying to mask a texture like ColorSplash or other apps like iSteam, etc? I started learning OPENGL ES like... 4 days ago (I'm a total rookie) and tried the following approach: 1) I created a colored texture2D, a grayscale version of the first texture and a third texture2D called mask 2) I also created a texture2D for the brush... which is grayscale and it's opaque (brush = black = 0,0,0,1 and surroundings = white = 1,1,1,1). My intention was to create an antialiased brush with smooth edges but i'm fine with a normal one right now 3) I searched for masking techniques on the internet and found this tutorial ZeusCMD - Design and Development Tutorials : OpenGL ES Programming Tutorials - Masking about masking. The tutorial tells me to use blending to achieve masking... first draw colored, then mask with glBlendFunc(GL_DST_COLOR, GL_ZERO) and then grayscale with glBlendFunc(GL_ONE, GL_ONE) ... and this gives me something close to what i want... but not exactly what i want. The result is masked but it's somehow overbright-ed 4) For drawing to the mask texture i used an extra frame buffer object (FBO) I'm not really happy with the resulting image (overbright-ed picture) nor with the speed achieved with this method. I think the normal way was to draw directly to the grayscale (overlay) texture2D affecting only it's alpha channel in the places where the brush hits. Is there a fast way to achieve this? I have searched a lot and never got an answer that's clear and understandable. Then, in the main draw loop I could only draw the colored texture and then blend the grayscale ontop with glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA). I just want to learn to use OPENGL ES and it's driving me nuts because i can't get it to work properly. An advice, a link to a tutorial would be much appreciated.

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  • While loop problems

    - by Luke
    I have put together the following code, the problem is that each while loop is only returning one set of data. $result = mysql_query("SELECT date FROM ".TBL_FIXTURES." WHERE compname = '$comp_name' GROUP BY date"); $i = 1; echo "<table cellspacing=\"10\" style='border: 1px dotted' width=\"300\" bgcolor=\"#eeeeee\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $date=date("F j Y", $row['date']); echo $date; echo " <tr> <td>Fixture $i - Deadline on $date</td> </tr> "; $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM ".TBL_FIXTURES." WHERE compname = '$comp_name' AND date = '$row[date]' ORDER BY date"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { extract ($row); echo " <tr> <td>$home_user - $home_team V $away_user - $away_team</td> </tr> "; } $i++; } echo "</table>"; I should get many dates, and then each set of fixture below. At the moment, the first row from the first while loop is present, along with the data from the second while loop. However, it doesn't continue? Any ideas where I can correct this? Thanks

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  • Inconsistent behavior working with "Flex on Rails" example.

    - by kmontgom
    I'm experimenting with Flex and Rails right now (Rails is cool). I'm following the examples in the book "Flex on Rails", and I'm getting some puzzling and inconsistent behavior. Heres the Flex MXML: <mx:HTTPService id="index" url="http://localhost:3000/people.xml" resultFormat="e4x" /> <mx:DataGrid dataProvider="{index.lastResult.person}" width="100%" height="100%"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="First Name" dataField="first-name"/> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="Last Name" dataField="last-name"/> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; private function main():void { Alert.show( "In main()" ); } ]]> </mx:Script> When I run the app from my IDE (Amythyst beta, also cool), the DataGrid appears, but is not populated. The Alert.show() also triggers. When I go out to a web browser and manually enter the url (http://localhost:3000/people.xml), the Mongrel console shows the request coming through and the browser shows the web response. No exceptions or other error messages occur. Whats the difference? Do I need to alter some OS setting? I'm using Win7 on an x64 machine.

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  • No Hibernate Exception on the same insert of data

    - by Mark Estrada
    Hi All, Hibernate Newbie here. I am quite unsure why I am not getting any exception when I am executing below code. On first attempt, this code creates the Book Entry on my Book Table. But my concern is that when I execute below code again, no error was pop out by Hibernate. I was in fact expecting some sort of Violation of Primary Key Constraints as what I have bee doing in JDBC code. public class BookDao { public void createBook(Book bookObj) { Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory() .getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); session.saveOrUpdate(bookObj); session.getTransaction().commit(); } } public class HibernateUtil { private static final SessionFactory sessionFactory = buildSessionFactory(); private static SessionFactory buildSessionFactory() { try { // Create the SessionFactory from hibernate.cfg.xml return new AnnotationConfiguration().configure() .buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Throwable ex) { // Make sure you log the exception, as it might be swallowed ex.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(ex); } } public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory() { return sessionFactory; } } public class BookDBStarter { public static void main(String[] args) { Book bookHF = new Book(); bookHF.setIsbn("HF-12345"); bookHF.setName("Head First HTML"); bookHF.setPublishDate(new Date()); BookDao daoBook = new BookDao(); daoBook.createBook(bookHF); } } Is this normal hibernate way? And how will I know if my insert is successful? Any thoughts?

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  • PHP curl timing mismatch

    - by JonoB
    I am running a php script that: queries a local database to retrieve an amount executes a curl statement to update an external database with the above amount + x queries the local database again to insert a new row reflecting that the curl statement has been executed. One of the problems that I am having is that the curl statement takes 2-4 seconds to execute, so I have two different users from the same company running the same script at the same time, the execution time of the curl command can cause a mismatch in what should be updated in the external database. This is the because the curl statement has not yet returned from the first user...so the second user is working off incorrect figures. I am not sure of the best options here, but basically I need to prevent two or more curl statements being run at the same time. I thought of storing a value in the database that indicates that the curl statement is being executed at that time, and prevent any other curl statements being run until its completed. Once the first curl statement has been executed, then the database flag is updated and the next one can run. If this field is 'locked', then I could loop through the code and sleep for (5) seconds, and then check again if the flag has been reset. If after (3) loops, then reset the flag automatically (i've never seen the curl take longer than 5 seconds) and continue processing. Are there any other (more elegant) ways of approaching this?

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  • Division by zero: Undefined Behavior or Implementation Defined in C and/or C++ ?

    - by SiegeX
    Regarding division by zero, the standards say: C99 6.5.5p5 - The result of the / operator is the quotient from the division of the first operand by the second; the result of the % operator is the remainder. In both operations, if the value of the second operand is zero, the behavior is undefined. C++03 5.6.4 - The binary / operator yields the quotient, and the binary % operator yields the remainder from the division of the first expression by the second. If the second operand of / or % is zero the behavior is undefined. If we were to take the above paragraphs at face value, the answer is clearly Undefined Behavior for both languages. However, if we look further down in the C99 standard we see the following paragraph which appears to be contradictory(1): C99 7.12p4 - The macro INFINITY expands to a constant expression of type float representing positive or unsigned infinity, if available; Do the standards have some sort of golden rule where Undefined Behavior cannot be superseded by a (potentially) contradictory statement? Barring that, I don't think it's unreasonable to conclude that if your implementation defines the INFINITY macro, division by zero is defined to be such. However, if your implementation does not define such a macro, the behavior is Undefined. I'm curious what the consensus on this matter for each of the two languages. Would the answer change if we are talking about integer division int i = 1 / 0 versus floating point division float i = 1.0 / 0.0 ? Note (1) The C++03 standard talks about the library which includes the INFINITY macro.

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  • SQL n:m Inheritance join

    - by Nightmares
    I want to join a table which contains n:m relationship between groups. (Groups are defined in a separate table). This table only has entries listing a member_group_id and a parent_group_id. Given this structure: id(int) | member_group_id(int) | parent_group_id(int) The "base" query looks like this: select p1.group_id, p2.group_id, p1.member_group_id, p2.member_group_id from group_member_group as p1 join group_member_group as p2 on p2.member_group_id = p1.member_group_id The "base" query correctly shows all relationships (I checked by doing it manually.) The problem is when I try to apply a where clause to this query to filter for a specific group as "point of origin" (the first group for which I want all parent groups) it returns only the closest parents. For example like this: select p1.group_id, p2.group_id, p1.member_group_id, p2.member_group_id from group_member_group as p1 join group_member_group as p2 on p2.member_group_id = p1.member_group_id where p1.group_id = 1 Can anyone give a clue how I can fix this? Or a different approach to realize this. (I suppose I could always do this in my C++ source code on the server side but I would have to transfer a entire table which has a high growth potential to the application server.) UPDATE: select p1.group_id, p2.group_id, p1.member_group_id, p2.member_group_id from group_member_group as p1 join group_member_group as p2 on p2.group_id = p1.member_group_id Typing mistake confirmed. Now I don't get past first level of inheritance period. Thanks at denied for pointing that out.

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  • Jquery click event propagation

    - by ozsenegal
    I've a table with click events bind to it rows (tr). Also,there're A elements with it owns click events assigned inside those rows. Problem is when i click on A element,it also fires click event from TD.And Im dont want this behavior,i just want to fire A click's event. Code: //Event row TR $("tr:not(:first)").click(function(){ $(".window,.backFundo,.close").remove(); var position = $(this).offset().top; position = position < 0 ? 20 : position; $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("backFundo")); $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("window").html("<span class=close><img src=Images/close.png id=fechar /></span>").append("<span class=titulo>O que deseja fazer?</span><span class=crud><a href=# id=edit>Editar</a></span><span class=crud><a href=# id=delete codigo=" + $(this).children("td:first").html() + ">Excluir</a></span>").css({top:"20px"}).fadeIn("slow")); $(document).scrollTop(0); }); //Element event $("a").live("click",function(){alert("clicked!");}); Whenever you click the anchor it fires event from it parent row.Any ideas?

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