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  • NSPredicate problem with fetchedResultsController

    - by RyJ
    Please help! I've been trying to figure this out for way too long. I can't seem to use an NSPredicate in my fetchedResultsController method: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) return fetchedResultsController; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Tweet" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat: @"column == 0"]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; [fetchRequest setReturnsObjectsAsFaults:NO]; [fetchRequest setFetchBatchSize:20]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"created_at" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; return fetchedResultsController; } Yet, in another method, where I simply check to see if an object exists, the predicate works like a charm: - (BOOL)findObjectWithKey:(NSString *)key andValue:(NSString *)value sortBy:(NSString *)sort { NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Tweet" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat: @"%K == %@", key, value]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; [request setReturnsObjectsAsFaults:NO]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:sort ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; NSError *error = nil; NSArray *result = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [request release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; if ((result != nil) && ([result count]) && (error == nil)) { return TRUE; } else { return FALSE; }} What am I doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

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  • iPhone app with tab bar and navigation bar as peers

    - by Mac
    I'm trying to write an application that uses a navigation bar and tab bar in what (I'm gathering) is an unusual manner. Basically, I've got several "pages" ("home", "settings", etc) that each have their own tab. I'd also like to have it so that the "home" page is the root view of the navigation bar, and the other pages are the second-level views of the navigation bar. That is, I should be able to navigate to any page by clicking the appropriate tab bar item, and should be able to navigate to the home page from any other page by clicking the navigation bar's back button. Currently, I have a UINavigationBar (through a UINavigationController) and a UITabBar (through a UITabController) as children of a UIView. The various pages' view controllers are set as the tab controller's viewControllers property, and the home page's controller is also set as the navigation controller's root view. Each page view's tag is set to its index in the tab control. I have the following logic in the tab controller's didSelectViewController delegate method: - (void) tabBarController:(UITabBarController*) tabBarController didSelectViewController:(UIViewController*) viewController { if ([navController.viewControllers count] > 1) [navController popViewControllerAnimated:NO]; [navController pushViewController:viewController animated:YES]; } Also, in the navigation controller's didShowViewController delegate method, I have the following code: - (void) navigationController:(UINavigationController *) navigationController didShowViewController:(UIViewController *)viewController animated:(BOOL)animated { tabController.selectedIndex = viewController.view.tag; } The problem that's occurring is that when I run this, the navigation bar, tab bar and home page all display ok, but the tab bar will not respond to input - I cannot select a different tab. I gather it's more usual to have the tab bar as the child of the navigation control, or vice versa. This doesn't seem to fit my approach, because I don't want to have to individually create the subordinate control each time a change occurs in the parent control - eg: recreate tab bar each time the navigation bar changes. Does anyone have suggestions as to what's wrong and how to fix it? I'm probably missing something obvious, but whatever it is I can't seem to find it. Thanks! EDIT: I'm guessing it has something to do with both controller's trying to have ownership of the page controller, but I can't for the life of me figure out a way around it.

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  • Jquery Cycle Plugin Question - turning off relative links to photos so it goes to a URL

    - by alpdog14
    I am using Jquery Cycle Plugin and it has a side panel that highlights as the photos change and currently when I click on the text the associated photo pulls up then I have to click on the photo to go to the URL but I would like the text itself to link to the URL. I have looked at the fn.cycle.defaults but not sure what to change and I tried a few things but nothing works. If anyone can help me figure this out it would be most helpful. Here are the fn.cycle.defaults: fx: 'fade', // one of: fade, shuffle, zoom, scrollLeft, etc timeout: 4000, // milliseconds between slide transitions (0 to disable auto advance) continuous: 0, // true to start next transition immediately after current one completes speed: 1000, // speed of the transition (any valid fx speed value) speedIn: null, // speed of the 'in' transition speedOut: null, // speed of the 'out' transition next: null, // id of element to use as click trigger for next slide prev: null, // id of element to use as click trigger for previous slide prevNextClick: null, // callback fn for prev/next clicks: function(isNext, zeroBasedSlideIndex, slideElement) pager: null, // id of element to use as pager container pagerClick: null, // callback fn for pager clicks: function(zeroBasedSlideIndex, slideElement) pagerEvent: null, // event which drives the pager navigation pagerAnchorBuilder: null, // callback fn for building anchor links before: null, // transition callback (scope set to element to be shown) after: null, // transition callback (scope set to element that was shown) end: null, // callback invoked when the slideshow terminates (use with autostop or nowrap options) easing: null, // easing method for both in and out transitions easeIn: null, // easing for "in" transition easeOut: null, // easing for "out" transition shuffle: null, // coords for shuffle animation, ex: { top:15, left: 200 } animIn: null, // properties that define how the slide animates in animOut: null, // properties that define how the slide animates out cssBefore: null, // properties that define the initial state of the slide before transitioning in cssAfter: null, // properties that defined the state of the slide after transitioning out fxFn: null, // function used to control the transition height: 'auto', // container height startingSlide: 0, // zero-based index of the first slide to be displayed sync: 1, // true if in/out transitions should occur simultaneously random: 0, // true for random, false for sequence (not applicable to shuffle fx) fit: 0, // force slides to fit container pause: true, // true to enable "pause on hover" autostop: 0, // true to end slideshow after X transitions (where X == slide count) autostopCount: 0, // number of transitions (optionally used with autostop to define X) delay: 0, // additional delay (in ms) for first transition (hint: can be negative) slideExpr: null, // expression for selecting slides (if something other than all children is required) cleartype: 0, // true if clearType corrections should be applied (for IE) nowrap: 0 // true to prevent slideshow from wrapping }; I have tried changing the pageClick and pagerEvent but nothing seems to be working. Please help!!!

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  • UIScrollView ImageView with pins on top

    - by Koppo
    To all, I have a UIScrollView which has a UIImageView. I want to show pins on this imageView. When I add pins as subviews of the ImageView everything is great except for when you zoom the scale transform happens on the pins also. I don't want this behavior and want my pins to stay the same. So I choose to add the Pins to another view which sits on top of the ImageView and is also a subview of the UIScrollView. The idea here if you will imagine is to have a layer which hovers over the map and won't scale yet show pins over where I plot them. The pin when added to the layer view don't cale if the ImageView scales. However the issue then bceomes the position of the pins doesn't match the original origin x/y as the ImageView has had a scale transform. Basically this is a custom map of a place with Pins. I am trying to have the Pins float over and not zoom in and out over my ImageView yet remember where I placed them when the zoom happens. Some code scrollView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:viewRect]; scrollView.delegate = self; scrollView.pagingEnabled = NO; scrollView.scrollsToTop = NO; [scrollView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; scrollView.clipsToBounds = YES; // default is NO, we want to restrict drawing within our scrollview scrollView.bounces = YES; scrollView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight; scrollView.indicatorStyle = UIScrollViewIndicatorStyleWhite; imageViewMap = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image.png"]]; imageViewMap.userInteractionEnabled = YES; viewRect = CGRectMake(0,0,imageViewMap.image.size.width,imageViewMap.image.size.height); //viewRect = CGRectMake(0,0,2976,3928); [scrollView addSubview:imageViewMap]; [scrollView setContentSize:CGSizeMake(viewRect.size.width, viewRect.size.height)]; iconsView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:imageViewMap.frame]; [scrollView addSubview:iconsView]; Code to add Pin later on some event. [iconsView addSubview:pinIcon]; I am stuck in trying tp figure out how to to get my pins to hover on the map without moving when the scale happens. Thanks

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  • jquery and requirejs and knockout; reference requirejs object from within itself

    - by Thomas
    We use jquery and requirejs to create a 'viewmodel' like this: define('vm.inkoopfactuurAanleveren', ['jquery', 'underscore', 'ko', 'datacontext', 'router', 'messenger', 'config', 'store'], function ($, _, ko, datacontext, router, messenger, config, store) { var isBusy = false, isRefreshing = false, inkoopFactuur = { factuurNummer: ko.observable("AAA") }, activate = function (routeData, callback) { messenger.publish.viewModelActivated({ canleaveCallback: canLeave }); getNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren(callback); var restricteduploader = new qq.FineUploader({ element: $('#restricted-fine-uploader')[0], request: { endpoint: 'api/InkoopFactuurAanleveren', forceMultipart: true }, multiple: false, failedUploadTextDisplay: { mode: 'custom', maxChars: 250, responseProperty: 'error', enableTooltip: true }, text: { uploadButton: 'Click or Drop' }, showMessage: function (message) { $('#restricted-fine-uploader').append('<div class="alert alert-error">' + message + '</div>'); }, debug: true, callbacks: { onComplete: function (id, fileName, responseJSON) { var response = responseJSON; }, } }); }, invokeFunctionIfExists = function (callback) { if (_.isFunction(callback)) { callback(); } }, loaded = function (factuur) { inkoopFactuur = factuur; var ids = config.viewIds; ko.applyBindings(this, getView(ids.inkoopfactuurAanleveren)); /*<----- THIS = OUT OF SCOPE!*/ / }, bind = function () { }, saved = function (success) { var s = success; }, saveCmd = ko.asyncCommand({ execute: function (complete) { $.when(datacontext.saveNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren(inkoopFactuur)) .then(saved).always(complete); return; }, canExecute: function (isExecuting) { return true; } }), getView = function (viewName) { return $(viewName).get(0); }, getNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren = function (callback) { if (!isRefreshing) { isRefreshing = true; $.when(datacontext.getNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren(dataOptions(true))).then(loaded).always(invokeFunctionIfExists(callback)); isRefreshing = false; } }, dataOptions = function (force) { return { results: inkoopFactuur, // filter: sessionFilter, //sortFunction: sort.sessionSort, forceRefresh: force }; }, canLeave = function () { return true; }, forceRefreshCmd = ko.asyncCommand({ execute: function (complete) { //$.when(datacontext.sessions.getSessionsAndAttendance(dataOptions(true))) // .always(complete); complete; } }), init = function () { // activate(); // Bind jQuery delegated events //eventDelegates.sessionsListItem(gotoDetails); //eventDelegates.sessionsFavorite(saveFavorite); // Subscribe to specific changes of observables //addFilterSubscriptions(); }; init(); return { activate: activate, canLeave: canLeave, inkoopFactuur: inkoopFactuur, saveCmd: saveCmd, forceRefreshCmd: forceRefreshCmd, bind: bind, invokeFunctionIfExists: invokeFunctionIfExists }; }); On the line ko.applyBindings(this, getView(ids.inkoopfactuurAanleveren)); in the 'loaded' method the 'this' keyword doens't refer to the 'viewmodel' object. the 'self' keyword seems to refer to a combination on methods found over multiple 'viewmodels'. The saveCmd property is bound through knockout, but gives an error since it cannot be found. How can the ko.applyBindings get the right reference to the viewmodel? In other words, with what do we need to replace the 'this' keyword int he applyBindings. I would imagine you can 'ask' requirejs to give us the ealiers instantiated object with identifier 'vm.inkoopfactuurAanleveren' but I cannot figure out how.

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  • Does my fat-client application belong in the MVC pattern?

    - by boatingcow
    The web-based application I’m currently working on is growing arms and legs! It’s basically an administration system which helps users to keep track of bookings, user accounts, invoicing etc. It can also be accessed via a couple of different websites using a fairly crude API. The fat-client design loosely follows the MVC pattern (or perhaps MVP) with a php/MySQL backend, Front Controller, several dissimilar Page Controllers, a liberal smattering of object-oriented and procedural Models, a confusing bunch of Views and templates, some JavaScripts, CSS files and Flash objects. The programmer in me is a big fan of the principle of “Separation of Concerns” and on that note, I’m currently trying to figure out the best way to separate and combine the various concerns as the project grows and more people contribute to it. The problem we’re facing is that although JavaScript (or Flash with ActionScript) is normally written with the template, hence part of the View and decoupled from the Controller and Model, we find that it actually encompasses the entire MVC pattern... Swap an image with an onmouseover event - that’s Behaviour. Render a datagrid - we’re manipulating the View. Send the result of reordering a list via AJAX - now we’re in Control. Check a form field to see if an email address is in a valid format - we’re consulting the Model. Is it wise to let the database people write up the validation Model with jQuery? Can the php programmers write the necessary Control structures in JavaScript? Can the web designers really write a functional AJAX form for their View? Should there be a JavaScript overlord for every project? If the MVC pattern could be applied to the people instead of the code, we would end up with this: Model - the database boffins - “SELECT * FROM mind WHERE interested IS NULL” Control - pesky programmers - “class Something extends NothingAbstractClass{…}” View - traditionally the domain of the graphic/web designer - “” …and a new layer: Behaviour - interaction and feedback designer - “CSS3 is the new black…” So, we’re refactoring and I’d like to stick to best practice design, but I’m not sure how to proceed. I don’t want to reinvent the wheel, so would anyone have any hints or tips as to what pattern I should be looking at or any code samples from someone who’s already done the dirty work? As the programmer guy, how can I rewrite the app for backend and front end whilst keeping the two separate? And before you ask, yes I’ve looked at Zend, CodeIgnitor, Symfony, etc., and no, they don’t seem to cross the boundary between server logic and client logic!

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  • Haskell: Left-biased/short-circuiting function

    - by user2967411
    Two classes ago, our professor presented to us a Parser module. Here is the code: module Parser (Parser,parser,runParser,satisfy,char,string,many,many1,(+++)) where import Data.Char import Control.Monad import Control.Monad.State type Parser = StateT String [] runParser :: Parser a -> String -> [(a,String)] runParser = runStateT parser :: (String -> [(a,String)]) -> Parser a parser = StateT satisfy :: (Char -> Bool) -> Parser Char satisfy f = parser $ \s -> case s of [] -> [] a:as -> [(a,as) | f a] char :: Char -> Parser Char char = satisfy . (==) alpha,digit :: Parser Char alpha = satisfy isAlpha digit = satisfy isDigit string :: String -> Parser String string = mapM char infixr 5 +++ (+++) :: Parser a -> Parser a -> Parser a (+++) = mplus many, many1 :: Parser a -> Parser [a] many p = return [] +++ many1 p many1 p = liftM2 (:) p (many p) Today he gave us an assignment to introduce "a left-biased, or short-circuiting version of (+++)", called (<++). His hint was for us to consider the original implementation of (+++). When he first introduced +++ to us, this was the code he wrote, which I am going to call the original implementation: infixr 5 +++ (+++) :: Parser a -> Parser a -> Parser a p +++ q = Parser $ \s -> runParser p s ++ runParser q s I have been having tons of trouble since we were introduced to parsing and so it continues. I have tried/am considering two approaches. 1) Use the "original" implementation, as in p +++ q = Parser $ \s - runParser p s ++ runParser q s 2) Use the final implementation, as in (+++) = mplus Here are my questions: 1) The module will not compile if I use the original implementation. The error: Not in scope: data constructor 'Parser'. It compiles fine using (+++) = mplus. What is wrong with using the original implementation that is avoided by using the final implementation? 2) How do I check if the first Parser returns anything? Is something like (not (isNothing (Parser $ \s - runParser p s) on the right track? It seems like it should be easy but I have no idea. 3) Once I figure out how to check if the first Parser returns anything, if I am to base my code on the final implementation, would it be as easy as this?: -- if p returns something then p <++ q = mplus (Parser $ \s -> runParser p s) mzero -- else (<++) = mplus Best, Jeff

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  • ELMAH not logging in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by PsychoCoder
    I cannot figure out what I'm doing wrong here, trying to use ELMAH in my MVC 2 application and it doesnt log anything, ever. Here's what I have in my web.config (relevant parts) <sectionGroup name="elmah"> <section name="security" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.SecuritySectionHandler, Elmah" /> <section name="errorLog" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.ErrorLogSectionHandler, Elmah" /> <section name="errorMail" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.ErrorMailSectionHandler, Elmah" /> <section name="errorFilter" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.ErrorFilterSectionHandler, Elmah" /> </sectionGroup> <elmah> <security allowRemoteAccess="0" /> <errorLog type="Elmah.SqlErrorLog, Elmah" connectionStringName="ELMAH.SqlServer" /> <!-- <errorMail from="[email protected]" to="[email protected]" cc="" subject="Elmah Error" async="true" smtpPort="25" smtpServer="[EmailServerName]" userName="" password="" /> <errorLog type="Elmah.XmlFileErrorLog, Elmah" logPath="~/App_Data" /> --> </elmah> <connectionStrings> ... <add name="ELMAH.SqlServer" connectionString="data source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\ELMAH_Logging.mdf;Integrated Security=SSPI;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True;" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> <system.Web> <httpHandlers> <add verb="POST,GET,HEAD" path="elmah.axd" type="Elmah.ErrorLogPageFactory, Elmah" /> ... </httpHandlers> <httpModules> <add name="ErrorLog" type="Elmah.ErrorLogModule, Elmah" /> <add name="ErrorFilter" type="Elmah.ErrorFilterModule, Elmah" /> <add name="ErrorMail" type="Elmah.ErrorMailModule, Elmah" /> ... </httpModules> </system.Web> <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <add name="ErrorLog" type="Elmah.ErrorLogModule, Elmah" /> <add name="ErrorFilter" type="Elmah.ErrorFilterModule, Elmah" /> <add name="ErrorMail" type="Elmah.ErrorMailModule, Elmah" /> </modules> <handlers> <add name="Elmah" verb="POST,GET,HEAD" path="elmah.axd" type="Elmah.ErrorLogPageFactory, Elmah"/> ... </handlers> </system.webServer> Then using the code from DotNetDarren.com but no matter what I do no exceptions are ever logged?

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  • WPF MVVM Pattern, ViewModel DataContext question

    - by orangecl4now
    I used this side to create my demo application http://windowsclient.net/learn/video.aspx?v=314683 The site was very useful in getting my started and in their example, they created a file called EmployeeRepository.cs which appears to be the source for the data. In their example, the data was hard-wired in code. So I'm trying to learn how to get the data from a data source (like a DB). In my specific case, I want to get the data from a Microsoft Access DB. (READ ONLY, So I'll only use SELECT commands). using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student One", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Two", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); _employees.Add(Employee.CreateEmployee("Student Three", "IT201", "Information Technology", "IT4207", "Building1", "Room650")); } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I found another example where an Access DB is used but it doesn't comply with MVVM. So I was trying to figure out how to add the DB file to the project, how to wire it up and bind it to a listbox (i'm not that far yet). Below is my modified file using System.Collections.Generic; using Telephone_Directory_2010.Model; // integrating new code with working code using Telephone_Directory_2010.telephone2010DataSetTableAdapters; using System.Windows.Data; namespace Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess { public class EmployeeRepository { readonly List<Employee> _employees; // start // integrating new code with working code private telephone2010DataSet.telephone2010DataTable employeeTable; private CollectionView dataView; internal CollectionView DataView { get { if (dataView == null) { dataView = (CollectionView) CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(this.DataContext); } return dataView; } } public EmployeeRepository() { if (_employees == null) { _employees = new List<Employee>(); } telephone2010TableAdapter employeeTableAdapter = new telephone2010TableAdapter(); employeeTable = employeeTableAdapter.GetData(); this.DataContext = employeeTable; } public List<Employee> GetEmployees() { return new List<Employee>(_employees); } } } I get the following error messages when building Error 1 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' does not contain a definition for 'DataContext' and no extension method 'DataContext' accepting a first argument of type 'Telephone_Directory_2010.DataAccess.EmployeeRepository' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) C:\Projects\VS2010\Telephone Directory 2010\Telephone Directory 2010\DataAccess\EmployeeRepository.cs 23 90 Telephone Directory 2010

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  • Global Entity Framework Context in WPF Application

    - by OffApps Cory
    Good day, I am in the middle of development of a WPF application that is using Entity Framework (.NET 3.5). It accesses the entities in several places throughout. I am worried about consistency throughout the application in regard to the entities. Should I be instancing separate contexts in my different views, or should I (and is a a good way to do this) instance a single context that can be accessed globally? For instance, my entity model has three sections, Shipments (with child packages and further child contents), Companies/Contacts (with child addresses and telephones), and disk specs. The Shipments and EditShipment views access the DiskSpecs, and the OptionsView manages the DiskSpecs (Create, Edit, Delete). If I edit a DiskSpec, I have to have something in the ShipmentsView to retrieve the latest specs if I have separate contexts right? If it is safe to have one overall context from which the rest of the app retrieves it's objects, then I imagine that is the way to go. If so, where would that instance be put? I am using VB.NET, but I can translate from C# pretty good. Any help would be appreciated. I just don't want one of those applications where the user has to hit reload a dozen times in different parts of the app to get the new data. Update: OK so I have changed my app as follows: All contexts are created in Using Blocks to dispose of them after they are no longer needed. When loaded, all entities are detatched from context before it is disposed. A new property in the MainViewModel (ContextUpdated) raises an event that all of the other ViewModels subscribe to which runs that ViewModels RefreshEntities method. After implementing this, I started getting errors saying that an entity can only be referenced by one ChangeTracker at a time. Since I could not figure out which context was still referencing the entity (shouldn't be any context right?) I cast the object as IEntityWithChangeTracker, and set SetChangeTracker to nothing (Null). This has let to the current problem: When I Null the changeTracker on the Entity, and then attach it to a context, it loses it's changed state and does not get updated to the database. However if I do not null the change tracker, I can't attach. I have my own change tracking code, so that is not a problem. My new question is, how are you supposed to do this. A good example Entity query and entity save code snipped would go a long way, cause I am beating my head in trying to get what I once thought was a simple transaction to work. Any help would elevate you to near god-hood.

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  • HTML Purifier: Removing an element conditionally based on its attributes

    - by pinkgothic
    As per the HTML Purifier smoketest, 'malformed' URIs are occasionally discarded to leave behind an attribute-less anchor tag, e.g. <a href="javascript:document.location='http://www.google.com/'">XSS</a> becomes <a>XSS</a> ...as well as occasionally being stripped down to the protocol, e.g. <a href="http://1113982867/">XSS</a> becomes <a href="http:/">XSS</a> While that's unproblematic, per se, it's a bit ugly. Instead of trying to strip these out with regular expressions, I was hoping to use HTML Purifier's own library capabilities / injectors / plug-ins / whathaveyou. Point of reference: Handling attributes Conditionally removing an attribute in HTMLPurifier is easy. Here the library offers the class HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform with the method confiscateAttr(). While I don't personally use the functionality of confiscateAttr(), I do use an HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform as per this thread to add target="_blank" to all anchors. // more configuration stuff up here $htmlDef = $htmlPurifierConfiguration->getHTMLDefinition(true); $anchor = $htmlDef->addBlankElement('a'); $anchor->attr_transform_post[] = new HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target(); // purify down here HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target is a very simple class, of course. class HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target extends HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform { public function transform($attr, $config, $context) { // I could call $this->confiscateAttr() here to throw away an // undesired attribute $attr['target'] = '_blank'; return $attr; } } That part works like a charm, naturally. Handling elements Perhaps I'm not squinting hard enough at HTMLPurifier_TagTransform, or am looking in the wrong place(s), or generally amn't understanding it, but I can't seem to figure out a way to conditionally remove elements. Say, something to the effect of: // more configuration stuff up here $htmlDef = $htmlPurifierConfiguration->getHTMLDefinition(true); $anchor = $htmlDef->addElementHandler('a'); $anchor->elem_transform_post[] = new HTMLPurifier_ElementTransform_Cull(); // add target as per 'point of reference' here // purify down here With the Cull class extending something that has a confiscateElement() ability, or comparable, wherein I could check for a missing href attribute or a href attribute with the content http:/. HTMLPurifier_Filter I understand I could create a filter, but the examples (Youtube.php and ExtractStyleBlocks.php) suggest I'd be using regular expressions in that, which I'd really rather avoid, if it is at all possible. I'm hoping for an onboard or quasi-onboard solution that makes use of HTML Purifier's excellent parsing capabilities. Returning null in a child-class of HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform unfortunately doesn't cut it. Anyone have any smart ideas, or am I stuck with regexes? :)

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  • Need help manipulating WAV (RIFF) Files at a byte level

    - by Eric
    I'm writing an an application in C# that will record audio files (*.wav) and automatically tag and name them. Wave files are RIFF files (like AVI) which can contain meta data chunks in addition to the waveform data chunks. So now I'm trying to figure out how to read and write the RIFF meta data to and from recorded wave files. I'm using NAudio for recording the files, and asked on their forums as well on SO for way to read and write RIFF tags. While I received a number of good answers, none of the solutions allowed for reading and writing RIFF chunks as easily as I would like. But more importantly I have very little experience dealing with files at a byte level, and think this could be a good opportunity to learn. So now I want to try writing my own class(es) that can read in a RIFF file and allow meta data to be read, and written from the file. I've used streams in C#, but always with the entire stream at once. So now I'm little lost that I have to consider a file byte by byte. Specifically how would I go about removing or inserting bytes to and from the middle of a file? I've tried reading a file through a FileStream into a byte array (byte[]) as shown in the code below. System.IO.FileStream waveFileStream = System.IO.File.OpenRead(@"C:\sound.wav"); byte[] waveBytes = new byte[waveFileStream.Length]; waveFileStream.Read(waveBytes, 0, waveBytes.Length); And I could see through the Visual Studio debugger that the first four byte are the RIFF header of the file. But arrays are a pain to deal with when performing actions that change their size like inserting or removing values. So I was thinking I could then to the byte[] into a List like this. List<byte> list = waveBytes.ToList<byte>(); Which would make any manipulation of the file byte by byte a whole lot easier, but I'm worried I might be missing something like a class in the System.IO name-space that would make all this even easier. Am I on the right track, or is there a better way to do this? I should also mention that I'm not hugely concerned with performance, and would prefer not to deal with pointers or unsafe code blocks like this guy. If it helps at all here is a good article on the RIFF/WAV file format.

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  • .NET MVC Ajax Form - How do you hide it?

    - by Tommy
    Ok, everything is 'functionally' working with what I am attempting to accomplish and once again, I am sure this is something dumb, but I cannot figure out how to do this one thing. I have an edit form for an entity, lets say a car. This 'car' can have 0 - many passengers. So on my edit form, I have all the fields for the car, then a list view showing each passenger (partial). I also have a 'add new passenger' button that will render a new partial view that allows you to enter a passenger. This has a cancel link and an add button to submit an Ajax form. When you add a passenger, the passenger is automatically added to the list, but I need the enter passenger form to go away. I have tried using the onSuccess and onComplete functions to hide the div that the form is in, but both render just the partial view HTML elements (white screen, text) and not the partialView in the context of the entire page. Sources: 1) Main Edit View <script type="text/javascript"> Function hideForm(){ document.getElementById('newPassenger').style.display = 'none'; } </script> <h2>Edit</h2> <%-- The following line works around an ASP.NET compiler warning --%> <%= ""%> <%Html.RenderPartial("EditCar", Model)%> <h2>Passengers for this car</h2> <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Add New Passenger", "AddPassenger", New With {.ID = Model.carID}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "newPassenger", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%> <div id="newPassenger"></div> <div id="passengerList"> <%Html.RenderPartial("passengerList", Model.Passengers)%> </div> <div> <%= Html.ActionLink("Back to List", "Index") %> </div> 2) AddPassenger View. The cancel link below is an action that returns nothing, thus removing the information in the div. <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("AddPassengerToCar", New With {.id = ViewData("carID")}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "passengerList", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%> <%=Html.DropDownList("Passengers")%> <input type="submit" value="Add" /> <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Cancel", "CancelAddControl", _ New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "newPassenger", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%><% end using %>

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  • NSFetchRequest returns correct number of objects, but each object contains nil attributes

    - by BU
    Hi, I can't figure out why this is happening. I can add to the context. But when I retrieve the objects, it returns the correct number of objects but the attributes of the objects are null. I am adding 3 instances with this code: +(BOOL)addStoreWithID:(NSNumber *)ID Latitude:(NSNumber *)latitude Longitude:(NSNumber *)longitude Name:(NSString *)name { Stores *store = (Stores *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Stores" inManagedObjectContext:[[SharedResources instance] managedObjectContext]]; store.ID = ID; store.Latitude = latitude; store.Longitude = longitude; store.Name = name; NSError *error; if(![[[SharedResources instance] managedObjectContext] save:&error]) { //Handle the error return NO; } return YES; } I get the result: 2010-03-07 19:19:37.060 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] Store name is Starbucks (gdb) continue 2010-03-07 19:19:37.933 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] Store name is Dunkin Donuts (gdb) continue 2010-03-07 19:19:38.717 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] Store name is Krispy Kreme I have confirmed that this code is visited three times and none of the attributes are nil. Then when I try to retrieve it, I use the following code: +(NSMutableArray *)fetchAllObjects { NSFetchRequest *request; request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Stores" inManagedObjectContext:[[SharedResources instance] managedObjectContext]]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"ID" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSError *error; NSMutableArray *array = [[[SharedResources instance] managedObjectContext] executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; [request release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; for(int i=0;i<3;i++) { Stores *tempStore = (Stores *)[array objectAtIndex:i]; NSLog(@"store name is %@",[tempStore Name]); } return array; } I get the result: 2010-03-07 19:21:00.504 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] store name is (null) (gdb) continue 2010-03-07 19:21:01.541 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] store name is (null) (gdb) continue 2010-03-07 19:21:02.503 GamePouch_iPhone[11337:207] store name is (null) Thanks a lot for reading. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks Bakhtiyar uddin

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  • Accurately display upload progress in Silverilght upload

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to debug a file upload / download issue I'm having. I've got a Silverlight file uploader, and to transmit the files I make use of the HttpWebRequest class. So I create a connection to my file upload handler on the server and begin transmitting. While a file uploads I keep track of total bytes written to the RequestStream so I can figure out a percentage. Now working at home I've got a rather slow connection, and I think Silverlight, or the browser, is lying to me. It seems that my upload progress logic is inaccurate. When I do multiple file uploads (24 images of 3-6mb big in my testing), the logic reports the files finish uploading but I believe that it only reflects the progress of written bytes to the RequestStream, not the actual amount of bytes uploaded. What is the most accurate way to measure upload progress. Here's the logic I'm using. public void Upload() { if( _TargetFile != null ) { Status = FileUploadStatus.Uploading; Abort = false; long diff = _TargetFile.Length - BytesUploaded; UriBuilder ub = new UriBuilder( App.siteUrl + "upload.ashx" ); bool complete = diff <= ChunkSize; ub.Query = string.Format( "{3}name={0}&StartByte={1}&Complete={2}", fileName, BytesUploaded, complete, string.IsNullOrEmpty( ub.Query ) ? "" : ub.Query.Remove( 0, 1 ) + "&" ); HttpWebRequest webrequest = ( HttpWebRequest ) WebRequest.Create( ub.Uri ); webrequest.Method = "POST"; webrequest.BeginGetRequestStream( WriteCallback, webrequest ); } } private void WriteCallback( IAsyncResult asynchronousResult ) { HttpWebRequest webrequest = ( HttpWebRequest ) asynchronousResult.AsyncState; // End the operation. Stream requestStream = webrequest.EndGetRequestStream( asynchronousResult ); byte[] buffer = new Byte[ 4096 ]; int bytesRead = 0; int tempTotal = 0; Stream fileStream = _TargetFile.OpenRead(); fileStream.Position = BytesUploaded; while( ( bytesRead = fileStream.Read( buffer, 0, buffer.Length ) ) != 0 && tempTotal + bytesRead < ChunkSize && !Abort ) { requestStream.Write( buffer, 0, bytesRead ); requestStream.Flush(); BytesUploaded += bytesRead; tempTotal += bytesRead; int percent = ( int ) ( ( BytesUploaded / ( double ) _TargetFile.Length ) * 100 ); UploadPercent = percent; if( UploadProgressChanged != null ) { UploadProgressChangedEventArgs args = new UploadProgressChangedEventArgs( percent, bytesRead, BytesUploaded, _TargetFile.Length, _TargetFile.Name ); SmartDispatcher.BeginInvoke( () => UploadProgressChanged( this, args ) ); } } //} // only close the stream if it came from the file, don't close resizestream so we don't have to resize it over again. fileStream.Close(); requestStream.Close(); webrequest.BeginGetResponse( ReadCallback, webrequest ); }

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  • ISQLQuery using AddJoin not loading related instance

    - by Remi Despres-Smyth
    I've got a problem using an ISQLQuery with an AddJoin. The entity I'm trying to return is RegionalFees, which has a composite-id which includes a Province instance. (This is the the instance being improperly loaded.) Here's the mapping: <class name="Project.RegionalFees, Project" table="tblRegionalFees"> <composite-id name="Id" class="Project.RegionalFeesId, project" unsaved-value="any" access="property"> <key-many-to-one class="Project.Province, Project" name="Region" access="property" column="provinceId" not-found="exception" /> <key-property name="StartDate" access="property" column="startDate" type="DateTime" /> </composite-id> <property name="SomeFee" column="someFee" type="Decimal" /> <property name="SomeOtherFee" column="someOtherFee" type="Decimal" /> <!-- Other unrelated stuff --> </class> <class name="Project.Province, Project" table="trefProvince" mutable="false"> <id name="Id" column="provinceId" type="Int64" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Code" column="code" access="nosetter.pascalcase-m-underscore" /> <property name="Label" column="label" access="nosetter.pascalcase-m-underscore" /> </class> Here's my query method: public IEnumerable<RegionalFees> GetRegionalFees() { // Using an ISQLQuery cause there doesn't appear to be an equivalent of // the SQL HAVING clause, which would be optimal for loading this set const String qryStr = "SELECT * " + "FROM tblRegionalFees INNER JOIN trefProvince " + "ON tblRegionalFees.provinceId=trefProvince.provinceId " + "WHERE EXISTS ( " + "SELECT provinceId, MAX(startDate) AS MostRecentFeesDate " + "FROM tblRegionalFees InnerRF " + "WHERE tblRegionalFees.provinceId=InnerRF.provinceId " + "AND startDate <= ? " + "GROUP BY provinceId " + "HAVING tblRegionalFees.startDate=MAX(startDate))"; var qry = NHibernateSessionManager.Instance.GetSession().CreateSQLQuery(qryStr); qry.SetDateTime(0, DateTime.Now); qry.AddEntity("RegFees", typeof(RegionalFees)); qry.AddJoin("Region", "RegFees.Id.Region"); return qry.List<RegionalFees>(); } The odd behavior here is that when I call GetRegionalFees (whose goal is to load just the most recent fee instances per region), it all loads fine if the Province instance is a proxy. If, however, Province is not loaded as a transparent proxy, the Province instance which is part of RegionalFees' RegionalFeesId property has null Code and Region values, although the Id value is set correctly. It looks to me like I have a problem in how I'm joining the Province class - since if it's lazy loaded the id is set from tblRegionalFees, and it gets loaded independently afterwards - but I haven't been able to figure out the solution.

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  • SQLCMD Restore works in Management Studio but not from DOS prompt

    - by Gautam
    Any idea why my Restore command works fine when run in Management Studio 2008 but not when run from the dos prompt? Shown below is the error when running from the dos prompt. C:\>SQLCMD -s local\SQL2008 -d master -Q "RESTORE DATABASE [Sample.Db] FROM DISK = N'C:\Sample.Db.bak' WITH FILE = 1, MOVE N'Sample.Db' TO N'C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.SQL2008\MSSQL\DATA\Sample.Db.mdf', MOVE N'Sample.Db_log' TO N'C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.SQL2008\MSSQL\DATA\Sample.Db_log.ldf', NOUNLOAD, REPLACE, STATS = 10" Msg 3634, Level 16, State 1, Server GAUTAM, Line 1 The operating system returned the error '32(The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process.)' while attempting 'RestoreContainer::ValidateTargetForCreation' on 'C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.SQL2008\MSSQL\DATA\Sample.Db.mdf'. Msg 3156, Level 16, State 8, Server GAUTAM, Line 1 File 'Sample.Db' cannot be restored to 'C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.SQL2008\MSSQL\DATA\Sample.Db.mdf'. Use WITH MOVE to identify a valid location for the file. Msg 3634, Level 16, State 1, Server GAUTAM, Line 1 The operating system returned the error '32(The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process.)' while attempting 'RestoreContainer::ValidateTargetForCreation' on 'C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.SQL2008\MSSQL\DATA\Sample.Db_log.ldf'. Msg 3156, Level 16, State 8, Server GAUTAM, Line 1 File 'Sample.Db_log' cannot be restored to 'C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.SQL2008\MSSQL\DATA\Sample.Db_log.ldf'. Use WITH MOVE to identify a valid location for the file. Msg 3119, Level 16, State 1, Server GAUTAM, Line 1 Problems were identified while planning for the RESTORE statement. Previous messages provide details. Msg 3013, Level 16, State 1, Server GAUTAM, Line 1 RESTORE DATABASE is terminating abnormally. However if I execute this directly in Management Studio 2008, it works fine: RESTORE DATABASE [Sample.Db] FROM DISK = N'C:\Sample.Db.bak' WITH FILE = 1, MOVE N'Sample.Db' TO N'C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.SQL2008\MSSQL\DATA\Sample.Db.mdf', MOVE N'Sample.Db_log' TO N'C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.SQL2008\MSSQL\DATA\Sample.Db_log.ldf', NOUNLOAD, REPLACE, STATS = 10 There is no lock or security issues, the data base doesn't exist on the server. I can't figure it out. Any ideas?

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  • Django & google openid authentication with socialauth

    - by Zayatzz
    Hello I am trying to use django-socialauth (http://github.com/uswaretech/Django-Socialauth) for authenticating users for my django project. This is firs time working with openid and i've had to figure out how exactly this open id works. I have more or less understood it, by now, but there are few things that elude me. The authentication process starts when the request is put together in in django-socialauth.openid_consumer.views.begin. I can see that the outgoing authentication request is more or less something like this: https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud?openid.assoc_handle=AOQobUckRThPUj3K1byG280Aze-dnfc9Iu6AEYaBwvHE11G0zy8kY8GZ& openid.ax.if_available=fname& openid.ax.mode=fetch_request& openid.ax.required=email& openid.ax.type.email=http://axschema.org/contact/email& openid.ax.type.fname=http://example.com/schema/fullname& openid.claimed_id=http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0/identifier_select& openid.identity=http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0/identifier_select& openid.mode=checkid_setup&openid.ns=http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0& openid.ns.ax=http://openid.net/srv/ax/1.0& openid.ns.sreg=http://openid.net/extensions/sreg/1.1& openid.realm=http://localhost/& openid.return_to=http://localhost/social/gmail_login/complete/?janrain_nonce=2010-03-20T11%3A19%3A44ZPZCjNc&openid.sreg.optional=postcode,country,nickname,email This is lot like 2nd example here: http://code.google.com/apis/accounts/docs/OpenID.html#Samples The problem is, that the request, i get back, is nothing like the corresponding example from code.google.com (look at the 3rd example in example responses. Response dict i get is like this: { 'openid.op_endpoint': 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud', 'openid.sig': 'QWMa4x4ruMUvSCfLwKV6CZRuo0E=', 'openid.ext1.type.email': 'http://axschema.org/contact/email', 'openid.return_to': 'http://localhost/social/gmail_login/complete/?janrain_nonce=2010-03-20T17%3A54%3A06ZHV4cqh', 'janrain_nonce': '2010-03-20T17:54:06ZHV4cqh', 'openid.response_nonce': '2010-03-20T17:54:06ZdC5mMu9M_6O4pw', 'openid.claimed_id': 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOghawkFz0aNzk91vaQWhD-DxRJo6sS09RwM3SE', 'openid.mode': 'id_res', 'openid.ns.ext1': 'http://openid.net/srv/ax/1.0', 'openid.signed': 'op_endpoint,claimed_id,identity,return_to,response_nonce,assoc_handle,ns.ext1,ext1.mode,ext1.type.email,ext1.value.email', 'openid.ext1.value.email': '[email protected]', 'openid.assoc_handle': 'AOQobUfssTJ2IxRlxrIvU4Xg8HHQKKTEuqwGxvwwuPR5rNvag0elGlYL', 'openid.ns': 'http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0', 'openid.identity': 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawkghgfhf1FkvaQWhD-DxRJo6sS09RwMKjASE', 'openid.ext1.mode': 'fetch_response'} The socialauth itself has been built to accept my email address this way: elif request.openid and request.openid.ax: email = request.openid.ax.get('email') And obviously this fails. Why i am asking all this is, that perhaps i am doing something wrong and my outgoing request is wrong? Or am i doing all correctly and should change the socialaouth module to accept info in a new way and then commit the change? Alan

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  • jQuery tools modal overlay display problem in IE6-8

    - by Michael Stone
    I'm trying to enable the overlay to be modal. It works perfectly fine in FireFox, but the window object is behind the mask when it becomes modal. This prevents any interaction with it and the page is actually useless. I've tried debugging this for a while and can't figure it out. Here is a link to the example on their site: http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/modal-dialog.html $.fn.cfwindow = function(btnEvent,modal,draggable){ //error checking if(btnEvent == ""){ alert('Error in window :\n Please provide an id that instantiates the window. '); } if(!modal && !draggable){ $('#'+btnEvent+'[rel]').overlay(); $('#content_overlay').css('cursor','default'); } if(!modal && draggable){ $('#'+btnEvent+'[rel]').overlay(); $('#content_overlay').css('cursor','move'); $('#custom').draggable(); } if(modal){ $('#'+btnEvent+'[rel]').overlay({ // some mask tweaks suitable for modal dialogs mask: { color: '#646464', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.6 }, closeOnClick: false }); $('#content_overlay').css('cursor','default'); //$('#custom').addClass('modal'); } }; That's what I'm referencing when I call through: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $(document).pngFix(); var modal = <cfoutput>#attributes.modal#; var drag = #attributes.draggable#; var btn = '#attributes.selector#'; var src = '#attributes.source#'; var wid = '#attributes.width#'; $('##custom').width(parseInt(wid)); $('div##load_content').load(src); $('##custom').cfwindow(btn,modal,drag,wid); }); </script> CSS for the modal: <style type="text/css"> .modal { display:none; text-align:left; background-color:#FFFFFF; -moz-border-radius:6px; -webkit-border-radius:6px; } </style> Exclude the and the additional pound signs, IE. "##". Screen shot of the problem: http://twitpic.com/1tak06 Note: IE6 and IE8 have the same problem. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Flex: Create custom stroke on LineSeries?

    - by John Isaacks
    You can easily set a stroke on a line series like this: <mx:LineSeries yField="apple"> <mx:lineStroke> <mx:Stroke color="0x6699FF" weight="4" alpha=".8" /> </mx:lineStroke> </mx:LineSeries> This will set alpha for the entire stroke to .8 But I want to be able to set a different alpha on the stoke for each plot based on something in the dataProvider. For example the yField in the lineSeries is "Apple" which is how it knows where to plot for the lineSeries. I want to be able to add something like alphaField which tells it what to set the stroke alpha for each plot. so if my dataProvider was: <result month="Jan-04"> <apple>81768</apple> <alpha>1</alpha> </result> <result month="Feb-04"> <apple>51156</apple> <alpha>1</alpha> </result> <result month="Mar-04"> <apple>51156</apple> <alpha>.5</alpha> </result> And I set alphaField="alpha" then I would have a solid stroke from plot 0 to plot 1 and then a 50% alpha stroke from plot 1 to plot 2. How can I do this??? I am looking in the commitProperties() and updateDisplayList() methods of LineSeries and have no idea what would need to be added/changed to make this? I am pretty sure, this class has to use Graphics.lineTo() to draw each plot, so basically it would need to "get" the current alphaField value somehow, and apply a Graphics.lineStyle() with the correct alpha before drawing each line. Thanks!! UPDATE I have gotten much closer to my answer. When I extend LineRenderer I override updateDisplayList() which calls GraphicsUtilities.drawPolyLine() I extend GraphicsUtilities and override the method drawPolyLine() as this is where the line is actually drawn. I can call lineStyle() in here and change the alpha of the line... I still have 1 thing I cannot figure out, from within the drawPolyLine() method how can I access that data that dictates what the alpha should be? Thanks!!!!

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  • CSS: series of floated elements without wrapping but rather scrolling horizontally

    - by tybro0103
    I'm working on a album viewer. At the top I want a horizontal container of all the image thumbnails. Right now all the thumbnails are wrapped in a div with float:left. I'm trying to figure out how to keep these thumbnails from wrapping to the next line when there are too many, but rather stay all in one horizontal row and use the scrollbar. Here's my code: (I don't want to use tables) <style type="text/css"> div { overflow:hidden; } #frame { width:600px; padding:8px; border:1px solid black; } #thumbnails_container { height:75px; border:1px solid black; padding:4px; overflow-x:scroll; } .thumbnail { border:1px solid black; margin-right:4px; width:100px; height:75px; float:left; } .thumbnail img { width:100px; height:75px; } #current_image_container img { width:600px; } </style> <div id="frame"> <div id="thumbnails_container"> <div class="thumbnail"><img src="http://www.blueridgexotics.com/images/glry-pixie-bob-kittens.jpg" alt="foo" /></div> <div class="thumbnail"><img src="http://www.blueridgexotics.com/images/PB-KitJan08-1.jpg" alt="foo" /></div> <div class="thumbnail"><img src="http://www.blueridgexotics.com/images/PB-KitJan08-3.jpg" alt="foo" /></div> <div class="thumbnail"><img src="http://www.blueridgexotics.com/images/PB-Jan08.jpg" alt="foo" /></div> <div class="thumbnail"><img src="http://www.blueridgexotics.com/images/gallery3.jpg" alt="foo" /></div> <div class="thumbnail"><img src="http://www.blueridgexotics.com/images/gallery4.jpg" alt="foo" /></div> <div class="thumbnail"><img src="http://www.blueridgexotics.com/Gallery-Pics/kitten3.jpg" alt="foo" /></div> <div class="thumbnail"><img src="http://www.blueridgexotics.com/Gallery-Pics/kitten1.jpg" alt="foo" /></div> </div> <div id="current_image_container"> <img src="http://www.whitetailrun.com/Pixiebobs/PBkittenpics/shani-kits/Cats0031a.jpg" alt="foo" /> </div> </div>

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  • Contract developer trying to get outsourcing contract with current client.

    - by Mike
    I work for a major bank as a contract software developer. I've been there a few months, and without exception this place has the worst software practices I've ever seen. The software my team makes has no formal testing, terrible code (not reusable, hard to read, etc), minimal documentation, no defined development process and an absolutely sickening amount of waste due to bureaucratic overhead. Part of my contract is to maintain a group of thousands of very poorly written batch jobs. When one of the jobs fails (read: crashes), it's a developers job to look at the source, figure out what's wrong, fix it, and check it in. There is no quality assurance process or auditing of the results whatsoever. Once the developer says "it works" a manager signs off and it goes into production. What's disturbing is that these jobs essentially grab market data and put it into a third-party risk management system, which provides the bank with critical intelligence. I've discovered the disturbing truth that this has been happening since the 90s and nobody really has evidence the system is getting the correct data! Without going into details, an issue arose on Friday that was so horrible I actually stormed out of the place. I was ready to quit, but I decided to just get out to calm my nerves and possibly go back Monday. I've been reflecting today on how to handle this. I have realized that, in probably less than 6 months, I could (with 2 other developers) remake a large component of this system. The new system would provide them with, as primary benefits, a maintainable codebase less prone to error and a solid QA framework. To do it properly I would have to be outside the bank, the internal bureaucracy is just too much. And moreover, I think a bank is fundamentally not a place that can make good software. This is my plan. Write a report explaining in depth all the problems with their current system Explain why their software practices fail and generate a tremendous amount of error and waste. Use this as the basis for claiming the project must be developed externally. Write a high level development plan, including what resources I will require Hand 1,2,3 to my manager, hopefully he passes it up the chain. Worst case he fires me, but this isn't so bad. Convinced Executive decides to award my company a contract for the new system I have 8 years experience as a software contractor and have delivered my share of successful software products, but all working in-house for small/medium sized companies. When I read this over, I think I have a dynamite plan. But since this is the first time doing something this bold so I have my doubts. My question is, is this a good idea? If you think not, please spare no detail.

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  • How can I take the first 100 characters of html content ( without stripping the TAGS! )

    - by Atomiton
    There are lots of questions on how to strip html tags, but not many on functions/methods to close them. Here's the situation. I have a 500 character Message summary ( which includes html tags ), but I only want the first 100 characters. Problem is if I truncate the message, it could be in the middle of an html tag... which messes up stuff. Assuming the html is something like this: <div class="bd">"Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. <br/> <br/>Some Dates: April 30 - May 2, 2010 <br/> <p>Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. <em>Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit</em> in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. <br/> </p> For more information about Lorem Ipsum doemdloe, visit: <br/> <a href="http://www.somesite.com" title="Some Conference">Some text link</a><br/> </div> How would I take the first ~100 characters or so? ( Although, ideally that would be the first approximately 100 characters of "CONTENT" ( in between the html tags ) I'm assuming the best way to do this would be a recursive algorithm that keeps track of the html tags and appends any tags that would be truncated, but that may not be the best approach. My first thoughts are using recursion to count nested tags, and when we reach 100 characters, look for the next "<" and then use recursion to write the closing html tags needed from there. The reason for doing this is to make a short summary of existing articles without requiring the user to go back and provide summaries for all the articles. I want to keep the html formatting, if possible. NOTE: Please ignore that the html isn't totally semantic. This is what I have to deal with from my WYSIWYG. EDIT: I added a potential solution ( that seems to work ) I figure others will run into this problem as well. I'm not sure it's the best... and it's probably not totally robust ( in fact, I know it isn't ), but I'd appreciate any feedback

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  • place and show pixel in the Cartesian plane graph in JavaFX

    - by user3671803
    I have this method to draw the Cartesian plane in JavaFX, using canvas and would like to know if it is possible to place or show the pixel: public class Grafics extends StackPane { private Canvas canvas; public void Grafics(){ GridPane grid = new GridPane(); grid.setPadding(new Insets(5)); grid.setHgap(10); grid.setVgap(10); canvas = new Canvas(); canvas.setHeight(500); canvas.setWidth(700); GridPane.setHalignment(canvas, HPos.CENTER); grid.add(canvas, 0, 2); GraphicsContext gc = canvas.getGraphicsContext2D(); gc.setFill(Color.BLACK); gc.fillRect(0, 0, canvas.getWidth(), canvas.getHeight()); gc.setFill(Color.WHITE); gc.fillRect(1, 1, canvas.getWidth() - 2, canvas.getHeight() - 2); drawAxesXY(gc); //call the method drawAxes getChildren().addAll(grid);// add an gridpane in stackpane } private void drawAxesXY(GraphicsContext gc1) { PixelWriter pixelWriter = canvas.getGraphicsContext2D().getPixelWriter(); gc1.setFill(Color.WHITE); gc1.setStroke(Color.BLACK); gc1.setLineWidth(1.5); gc1.strokeText("Y", 350, 30); gc1.scale(1, 1); gc1.translate((canvas.getHeight() / 50) - (canvas.getWidth() / 10), canvas.getHeight() / 50); gc1.strokeLine(canvas.getWidth() - 300, canvas.getWidth() - 300, canvas.getHeight() - 100, canvas.getHeight() / 30); pixelWriter.setColor(300, 300, Color.RED); gc1.strokeText("X", 620, 220); gc1.translate(canvas.getWidth() - (canvas.getHeight() / 10), -220); gc1.rotate(90.0); gc1.setFill(Color.WHITE); gc1.setStroke(Color.RED); gc1.setLineWidth(1.5); gc1.strokeLine(canvas.getWidth() - 250, canvas.getWidth() - 250, canvas.getHeight() - 50, canvas.getHeight() / 30); pixelWriter.setColor(620, 220, Color.RED); } } I put a line black and the other red http://postimg.org/image/tewjhco4z/ and I wanna know if is possible to place or show the pixel in Figure like this http://postimg.org/image/98k9mvnb3/

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  • Minimum permission required to access Site Columns page and edit site columns

    - by ParanoidMike
    We've started to adopt SharePoint 2010, and are starting to manually migrate content from SharePoint 2007 sites to new sites we're rebuilding from scratch in SP2010. One of the things we previously had supported was to delegate responsibility for managing some of our site columns to a member of the team. The team member is not familiar with SharePoint internals, and doesn't want the responsibility of full permissions to the site and all its objects. We're now trying to figure out what the minimum permission is that we need to grant our team member, so they can continue to edit (& propagate) the content of the site columns we've defined. Permissions he currently has (which are obviously insufficient): Site permissions (according to _layouts/user.aspx): Read, Contribute, Manage Lists Permissions for specific objects in the site (according to _layouts/people.aspxMembershipGroupId=xxx, then choosing Settings, View Group Permissions): server/sites/[sitename]: Contribute server/sites/[sitename]/Lists/[a list with columns that inherit from site columns]: "Contribute No Delete" Note: the "Contribute No Delete" permission is a custom permission I designed by copying the SharePoint-native "Contribute" permission set and deselecting the Delete permission. The "Manage Lists" permission is a custom permission I designed that includes the following specific permissions: (List Permissions) Manage Lists, View Items; (Site Permissions) View Pages, Open. Operations that are throwing access denied errors: _layouts/mngfield.aspx: SharePoint returns the "Error: Access Denied" dialog, and provides three clickable options: "Sign in as a different user", "Request access", and "Go back to site" _layouts/fldedit.aspx?field=Level%5Fx0020%5F3 [one of the site columns we've defined]: can load the page and type in changes to the textboxes "...but when I press OK (save changes) I get the same message above." When our team member clicks the "Request access" link, the email I receive sends me to a page that recommends that I grant the user membership in the "[sitename] Users" group - of which he's already a member. So while SP2010 tries to request access, it doesn't actually direct me to either (a) a valid group that has the correct permissions or (b) the specific object to which I need to grant our team member access. Also note: on the SP2007 (MOSS) site (where our team member was successful in managing Site Column edits), they had dozens of additional permissions throughout the site that we do not wish to blindly re-allocate in SP2010 until we know they're necessary. Any help anyone can provide would be greatly appreciated.

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