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  • [Java] Send cookie with http request problem

    - by nkr1pt
    I'm trying to get a certain cookie in a java client by creating a series of Http requests. It looks like I'm getting a valid cookie from the server but when I'm sending out a request to the fnal url with the seemingly valid cookie I should get some lines of xml in the response but the response is blank because the cookie isw rong or is invalidated because a session has closed or an other problem which I can't figure out. The cookie handed out by the server expires at the end of the session. It seems to me the cookie is valid because when I do the same calls in firefox, a similar cookie with the same name and starting with the 3 first same letters and of the same length is stored in firefox, also expiring at the end of the session. If I then make a request to the final url with only this particular cookie stored in firefox (removed all other cookies), the xml is nicely rendered on the page. Any ideas about what I am doing wrong in this piece of code? One other thing, when I use the value from the very similar cookie generated and strored in firefox in this piece of code, the last request does give xml feedback in the http response! // Validate url = new URL(URL_VALIDATE); conn = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); conn.setRequestProperty("Cookie", cookie); conn.connect(); String headerName = null; for (int i = 1; (headerName = conn.getHeaderFieldKey(i)) != null; i++) { if (headerName.equals("Set-Cookie")) { if (conn.getHeaderField(i).startsWith("JSESSIONID")) { cookie = conn.getHeaderField(i).substring(0, conn.getHeaderField(i).indexOf(";")).trim(); } } } // Get the XML url = new URL(URL_XML_TOTALS); conn = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); conn.setRequestProperty("Cookie", cookie); conn.connect(); // Get the response StringBuffer answer = new StringBuffer(); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); String line; while ((line = reader.readLine()) != null) { answer.append(line); } reader.close(); //Output the response System.out.println(answer.toString())

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  • How to keep multiple connectionString passwords safe, separate, and easy to deploy?

    - by Funka
    I know there are plenty of questions here already about this topic (I've read through as many as I could find), but I haven't yet been able to figure out how best to satisfy my particular criteria. Here are the goals: The ASP.NET application will run on a few different web servers, including localhost workstations for development. This means encrypting web.config using a machine key is out. The application will decide which connection string to use based on the server name (using a switch statement). For example, "localhost" and "dev.example.com" will use the DevDatabaseConnectionString, "test.example.com" will use the TestDatabaseConnectionString, and "www.example.com" will use the ProdDatabaseConnectionString, for example. Ideally, the exact same executables and web.config should be able to run on any of these environments, without needing to tailor or configure each environment separately every time that we deploy (something that seems like it would be easy to forget/mess up one day during a deployment, which is why we moved away from having just one connectionstring that has to be changed on each target). Deployment is currently accomplished via FTP. We will not have command-line access to the production web server. This means using aspnet_regiis.exe is out. (I could run on localhost, however, if this would still work.) We would prefer to not have to recompile the application whenever a password changes, so using web.config (or db.config or whatever) seems to make the most sense. A developer should not be able to decrypt the production database password. If a developer checks the source code out onto their localhost laptop (which would determine that it should be using the DevDatabaseConnectionString, remember?) and the laptop gets lost or stolen, it should not be possible to get at the other connection strings. Thus, having a single RSA private key to un-encrypt all three passwords cannot be considered. (Contrary to #3 above, it does seem like we'd need to have three separate key files if we went this route; these could be installed once per machine, and should the wrong key file get deployed to the wrong server, the worst that should happen is that the app can't decrypt anything---and not allow the wrong host to access the wrong database!) I know this is probably a subjective question (asking for a "best" way to do something), but given the criteria I've mentioned, I'm hoping that a single best answer will indeed arise. Thank you!

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  • LINQ Query Returning Multiple Copies Of First Result

    - by Mike G
    I'm trying to figure out why a simple query in LINQ is returning odd results. I have a view defined in the database. It basically brings together several other tables and does some data munging. It really isn't anything special except for the fact that it deals with a large data set and can be a bit slow. I want to query this view based on a long. Two sample queries below show different queries to this view. var la = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).ToList(); var deDa = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).Select(p => new { p.AccountNumber, p.SecurityNumber, p.CUSIP }).ToList(); The first one should hand back a List. The second one will be a list of anonymous objects. When I do these queries in entities framework the first one will hand me back a list of results where they're all exactly the same. The second query will hand me back data where the account number is the one that I queried and the other values differ. This seems to do this on a per account number basis, ie if I were to query for one account number or another all the Position objects for one account would have the same value (the first one in the list of Positions for that account) and the second account would have a set of Position objects that all had the same value (again, the first one in it's list of Position objects). I can write SQL that is in effect the same as either of the two EF queries. They both come back with results (say four) that show the correct data, one account number with different securities numbers. Why does this happen??? Is there something that I could be doing wrong so that if I had four results for the first query above that the first record's data also appears in the 2-4th's objects??? I cannot fathom what would/could be causing this. I've searched Google for all kinds of keywords and haven't seen anyone with this issue. We partial class out the Positions class for added functionality (smart object) and some smart properties. There are even some constructors that provide some view model type support. None of this is invoked in the request (I'm 99% sure of this). However, we do this same pattern all over the app. The only thing I can think of is that the mapping in the EDMX is screwy. Is there a way that this would happen if the "primary keys" in the EDMX were not in fact unique given the way the view is constructed? I'm thinking that the dev who imported this model into the EDMX let the designer auto select what would be unique. Any help would give a haggered dev some hope!

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  • Fleunt NHibernate not working outside of nunit test fixtures

    - by thorkia
    Okay, here is my problem... I created a Data Layer using the RTM Fluent Nhibernate. My create session code looks like this: _session = Fluently.Configure(). Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.UsingFile("Data.s3db")) .Mappings( m => { m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ProductMap>(); m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ProductLogMap>(); }) .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory(); When I reference the module in a test project, then create a test fixture that looks something like this: [Test] public void CanAddProduct() { var product = new Product {Code = "9", Name = "Test 9"}; IProductRepository repository = new ProductRepository(); repository.AddProduct(product); using (ISession session = OrmHelper.OpenSession()) { var fromDb = session.Get<Product>(product.Id); Assert.IsNotNull(fromDb); Assert.AreNotSame(fromDb, product); Assert.AreEqual(fromDb.Id, product.Id); } My tests pass. When I open up the created SQLite DB, the new Product with Code 9 is in it. the tables for Product and ProductLog are there. Now, when I create a new console application, and reference the same library, do something like this: Product product = new Product() {Code = "10", Name = "Hello"}; IProductRepository repository = new ProductRepository(); repository.AddProduct(product); Console.WriteLine(product.Id); Console.ReadLine(); It doesn't work. I actually get pretty nasty exception chain. To save you lots of head aches, here is the summary: Top Level exception: An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail.\r\n\r\n The PotentialReasons collection is empty The Inner exception: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Both the unit test library and the console application reference the exact same version of System.Data.SQLite. Both projects have the exact same DLLs in the debug folder. I even tried copying SQLite DB the unit test library created into the debug directory of the console app, and removed the build schema lines and it still fails If anyone can help me figure out why this won't work outside of my unit tests it would be greatly appreciated. This crazy bug has me at a stand still.

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  • sendmail and MX records when mail server is not on web host

    - by Jim Nelson
    This is a problem I'm sure is easy to fix, but I've been banging my head on it all day. I'm developing a new web site for a client. The web site resides at (this is an example) website.com. I have a PHP form script to email visitors' requests to [email protected]. When I coded this on a staging server on a different domain, all worked fine. When I moved it to website.com, the mail messages never arrived. The web server is on a virtual host with a major ISP. Here's what I've learned since then: My client's mail server is Microsoft Exchange on a box physically in their office. Whenever someone on the outside world emails [email protected], the mail arrives. But if the web server sends to the same email address, it fails every time. This is not a PHP problem. I secure shell in to the web server and have tested this both with sendmail and the UNIX mail application. I've also tested it by emailing various email accounts from the shell. I can email myself, for example, just nobody at the website.com domain. In short, when I'm logged in to website.com, mail to [email protected], [email protected], [email protected] all fail. All other addresses work fine. What I've discovered is those dropped emails are routed to the web server's "catchall" account where they sit in its inbox. I've done an MX lookup on website.com. The MX record points to mailsec.website.com. I can telnet to mailsec.website.com port 25 and see the SMTP server. It appears to me that website.com isn't doing an MX lookup when it's sending mail to [email protected]. My theory is that it recognizes the domain as local, sees that there's no "requests" user account to deliver it to, and drops the mail into the catchall account. What I want is to force sendmail to do the MX lookup and send the message on to the Exchange server. I'm at wit's end here. I can't figure out how to do this. For that matter, I may be way off base here and have misdiagnosed this entirely. Internet mail and MX has always seemed a black art to me, and my ignorance is certainly showing in this question.

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  • SelectList in Asp-mvc and data from the database

    - by George
    Hello guys. I'm having some troubles with SelectList in ASP.MVC. Here is the issue: I have a Create View and begind a ViewModel model. The page load just fine (GET verb). But when posting, something happens, and my model is considered invalid, and it cannot insert. Here's what i've tried so far. public class DefinitionFormViewModel { private Repository<Category> categoryRepository = new Repository<Category>(); public Definition ViewDefinition { get; private set; } public SelectList Categories { get; private set; } public DefinitionFormViewModel(Definition def) { ViewDefinition = def; // here i wanted to place it directly, like shown in NerdDinner Tutorial // new SelectList(categoryRepository.All(),ViewDefinition.Category); Categories = new SelectList(categoryRepository.All(), "CategoryId", "CategoryName", ViewDefinition.CategoryId); } } // pageview which inherits DefinitionFormViewModel <div class=editor-field"> <%= Html.DropDownList("Category",Model.Categories) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => Model.ViewDefinition.Category) %> </div> // controller methods [Authorize] public ActionResult Create() { Definition definition = new Definition(); return View(new DefinitionFormViewModel(definition)); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post), Authorize] public ActionResult Create(int id,Definition definition) { Term term = termRepository.SingleOrDefault(t => t.TermId == id); if (term == null) { return View("NotFound", new NotFoundModel("Termo não encontrado", "Termo não encontrado", "Nos desculpe, mas não conseguimos encontrar o termo solicitado.", "Indíce de Termos", "Index", "Term")); } else { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { definition.TermId = term.TermId; definition.ResponsibleUser = User.Identity.Name; UpdateModel(definition); term.Definitions.Add(definition); termRepository.SaveAll(); return RedirectToAction("Details", "Term", new { id = term.TermId }); } catch (System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException sqlEx) { ModelState.AddModelError("DatabaseError", "Houve um erro na inserção desta nova definição"); } catch { foreach (RuleViolation rv in definition.GetRuleViolations()) { ModelState.AddModelError(rv.PropertyName, rv.ErrorMessage); } } } } return View(new DefinitionFormViewModel(definition)); } I'm sorry about the long post, but I cant figure this out. I got no graphic errors or exceptions. My execution terminates in if (ModelState.IsValid). Thanks for your time George

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  • WPF: Order of stretch sizing

    - by RFBoilers
    I'm creating a modal dialog window which contains three essential parts: a TextBlock containing instructions, a ContentControl for the dialog panel, and a ContentControl for the dialog buttons. Each of these parts are contained in a separate Grid row. I have some specific constraints when it comes to how the dialog should be sized. The issue I'm having is with the instructions TextBlock. I want the instructions to be as wide as the ContentControl for the dialog panel. The instructions should then wrap and grow vertically as needed. Should the instructions not be able to grow vertically, then it should begin to grow horizontally. Getting the instructions to be the width of the ContentControl and grow vertically was simple. The part I can't seem to figure out is how to get it to grow horizontally when out of vertical space. My initial thought was to create a class that extends TextBlock and override MeasureOverride. However, that method is sealed. Currently, I'm playing with the idea of have the dialog Window override MeasureOverride to calculate the available size for the instructions block. Am I missing a much simpler way of accomplishing this? Does anyone have any better ideas than this? Messing with MeasureOverride seems like it will be a lot of work. Here is some sample code to give you a general idea of how the dialog is laid out: <Window x:Class="Dialogs.DialogWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" x:Name="dialogWindow" ShowInTaskbar="False" WindowStyle="None" AllowsTransparency="True" Background="Transparent" ResizeMode="NoResize" SizeToContent="WidthAndHeight" WindowStartupLocation="CenterScreen"> <Border Style="{StaticResource WindowBorderStyle}" Margin="15"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Margin="25,5" VerticalAlignment="Top" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Text="{Binding Instructions}" TextWrapping="Wrap" Width="{Binding ElementName=panelContentControl, Path=ActualWidth, Mode=OneWay}"/> <ContentControl x:Name="panelContentControl" Grid.Row="1" Margin="25,5" Content="{Binding PanelContent}"/> <ContentControl x:Name="buttonsContentControl" Grid.Row="2" HorizontalAlignment="Right" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="25,5" Content="{Binding ButtonsContent}"/> </Grid> </Border> </Window>

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  • Create Duplicate Records on SELECT for Calendar Date Range

    - by peterallcdn
    Hey all, I've built a pretty shnazzy calendar system but there is one tweak that I need to make so that I'm completely happy with it. My calendar has three tables: calevents - The calendared event. caldates - The occurrences and date-range of each occurrence for each event. calcats - The categories that can be applied to an event. The short: For each calevent, there can be many caldates, one for each occurrence of calevent. So a calevent that repeats weekly and spans 3 days might have caldates like this: date_id date_eid date_start date_end 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 7 37 2010-07-05 2010-07-07 9 37 2010-07-12 2010-07-14 What I want to do, is when selecting all the caldates for a specified month such as 2010-06, to return not just the two records above, but instead a record for each date in the range of date_start and date_end for each caldate. So if I searched for 2010-06, I would get: date_id date_eid date_start date_end date_day 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-21 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-22 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-23 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-28 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-29 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-30 The Long: The reason I want to do this, is so when displaying a list of events(calevents) for a specified month, an occurrence(caldates) of that event will be displayed for EACH of the days it spans. I could do this with php by looping through each day of the current month and displaying a copy of each caldate if the month day falls between date_start and date_end. But doing it this way will prevent me from using record pagination if needed. For example, if for a specified month the following caldates were returned: date_id date_eid date_start date_end 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-27 94 53 2010-06-09 2010-07-08 Doing record pagination would see this as only 2 records("rows"). But looping through them with PHP would generate 29 "rows". So, I figure if I use mysql to create each row instead of PHP, I can achieve the same thing AND still be able to use pagination if a month has a lot of events/dates. As far as performance goes, I'm not sure which option is more efficient. Both would send the same amount of info to the browser, so it's really only the work required to generate the info that matters. My current query which fetches all the occurrences for a specified month, and to make things just a little more complicated... joins them with their event and category, looks like this: $sql_to_execute = " SELECT date_id, date_eid, date_start, date_end, event_id, event_title, event_category, event_private, event_location, SUBSTRING_INDEX(event_detailsstripped, ' ', 40) AS event_detailsstripped, event_time, event_starttime, event_endtime, event_active, cat_colour FROM ( caldates LEFT JOIN calevents ON caldates.date_eid = calevents.event_id ) LEFT JOIN calcats ON calevents.event_category = calcats.cat_id WHERE date_start <= '".mysql_real_escape_string($dbi_list_end_date)."' AND date_end >= '".mysql_real_escape_string($dbi_list_start_date)."' ".$dbi_category." ORDER BY date_start ASC "; Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks, Peter

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  • Sockets, Threads and Services in android, how to make them work together ?

    - by Spredzy
    Hi all, I am facing a probleme with threads and sockets I cant figure it out, if someone can help me please i would really appreciate. There are the facts : I have a service class NetworkService, inside this class I have a Socket attribute. I would like it be at the state of connected for the whole lifecycle of the service. To connect the socket I do it in a thread, so if the server has to timeout, it would not block my UI thread. Problem is, into the thread where I connect my socket everything is fine, it is connected and I can talk to my server, once this thread is over and I try to reuse the socket, in another thread, I have the error message Socket is not connected. Questions are : - Is the socket automatically disconnected at the end of the thread? - Is their anyway we can pass back a value from a called thread to the caller ? Thanks a lot, Here is my code public class NetworkService extends Service { private Socket mSocket = new Socket(); private void _connectSocket(String addr, int port) { Runnable connect = new connectSocket(this.mSocket, addr, port); new Thread(connect).start(); } private void _authentification() { Runnable auth = new authentification(); new Thread(auth).start(); } private INetwork.Stub mBinder = new INetwork.Stub() { @Override public int doConnect(String addr, int port) throws RemoteException { _connectSocket(addr, port); _authentification(); return 0; } }; class connectSocket implements Runnable { String addrSocket; int portSocket; int TIMEOUT=5000; public connectSocket(String addr, int port) { addrSocket = addr; portSocket = port; } @Override public void run() { SocketAddress socketAddress = new InetSocketAddress(addrSocket, portSocket); try { mSocket.connect(socketAddress, TIMEOUT); PrintWriter out = new PrintWriter(mSocket.getOutputStream(), true); out.println("test42"); Log.i("connectSocket()", "Connection Succesful"); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e("connectSocket()", e.getMessage()); e.printStackTrace(); } } } class authentification implements Runnable { private String constructFirstConnectQuery() { String query = "toto"; return query; } @Override public void run() { BufferedReader in; PrintWriter out; String line = ""; try { in = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(mSocket.getInputStream())); out = new PrintWriter(mSocket.getOutputStream(), true); out.println(constructFirstConnectQuery()); while (mSocket.isConnected()) { line = in.readLine(); Log.e("LINE", "[Current]- " + line); } } catch (IOException e) {e.printStackTrace();} } }

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  • Complex SQL query with group by and two rows in one

    - by Ricket
    Okay, I need help. I'm usually pretty good at SQL queries but this one baffles me. By the way, this is not a homework assignment, it's a real situation in an Access database and I've written the requirements below myself. Here is my table layout. It's in Access 2007 if that matters; I'm writing the query using SQL. Id (primary key) PersonID (foreign key) EventDate NumberOfCredits SuperCredits (boolean) There are events that people go to. They can earn normal credits, or super credits, or both at one event. The SuperCredits column is true if the row represents a number of super credits earned at the event, or false if it represents normal credits. So for example, if there is an event which person 174 attends, and they earn 3 normal credits and 1 super credit at the event, the following two rows would be added to the table: ID PersonID EventDate NumberOfCredits SuperCredits 1 174 1/1/2010 3 false 2 174 1/1/2010 1 true It is also possible that the person could have done two separate things at the event, so there might be more than two columns for one event, and it might look like this: ID PersonID EventDate NumberOfCredits SuperCredits 1 174 1/1/2010 1 false 2 174 1/1/2010 2 false 3 174 1/1/2010 1 true Now we want to print out a report. Here will be the columns of the report: PersonID LastEventDate NumberOfNormalCredits NumberOfSuperCredits The report will have one row per person. The row will show the latest event that the person attended, and the normal and super credits that the person earned at that event. What I am asking of you is to write, or help me write, the SQL query to SELECT the data and GROUP BY and SUM() and whatnot. Or, let me know if this is for some reason not possible, and how to organize my data to make it possible. This is extremely confusing and I understand if you do not take the time to puzzle through it. I've tried to simplify it as much as possible, but definitely ask any questions if you give it a shot and need clarification. I'll be trying to figure it out but I'm having a real hard time with it, this is grouping beyond my experience...

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  • If statement within If statement's else

    - by maebe
    Still new to Java/android so trying to figure out the best way to code a multilevel if statement. What I'm trying to do is for a combat system that needs to check if player/npc is alive. If they are alive it then will check to see if they scored a critical hit. If they didn't critical hit then will see if they hit or missed. combat = mydbhelper.getCombat(); startManagingCursor(combat); if(playerCurHp == 0){ combat.moveToPosition(11); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(playerCritFlag.equals("Critical")){ combat.moveToPosition(2); playerCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(playerHitFlag.equals("Hit")){ combat.moveToPosition(1); playerCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} if(playerHitFlag.equals("Miss")){ combat.moveToPosition(3); playerCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} }} if (npcCurHp == 0){ combat.moveToPosition(10); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(npcCritFlag.equals("Critical")){ combat.moveToPosition(5); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} else{ if(npcHitFlag.equals("Hit")){ combat.moveToPosition(4); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} if(npcHitFlag.equals("Miss")){ combat.moveToPosition(6); npcCombatStory = combat.getString(combat.getColumnIndex(dbhelper.KEY_COMBATDESC));} }} } Is what I'm using. Was working when I had the if statements all separate. But it would check each one and do actions I don't need (If they hit, pull String, if crit pull another, then if dead pull again). Trying to make it stop when it finds the "Flag" that matches. When doing my rolls if the player hits it sets the flag to "Hit" like below code. Random attackRandom = new Random(); int attackRoll = attackRandom.nextInt(100); totalAtt = attackRoll + bonusAttack + weaponAtt + stanceAtt; Random defensiveRandom = new Random(); int defenseRoll = defensiveRandom.nextInt(100); npcDef = defenseRoll + npcDodge + npcBonusDodge; if (totalAtt > npcDef){ playerHitFlag = "Hit"; playerDamage();} else{playerHitFlag = "Miss"; npcAttack();} At the end it takes these playerCombatStory and npcCombatStory strings and uses them to setText to show the player what happened on that turn of combat.

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  • Why is my Interface Builder wiring so bonkers and what can I do to straighten it out?

    - by editor
    I've been working on an iPhone application in XCode and Interface Builder of the Tab Bar project type. After getting a table view of topics (business sectors) working fine I realized that I would need to add a Navigation Control to allow the user to drill into a subtopics (subsectors) table. As a green Objective-C developer, that was confusing, but I managed to get it working by reading various documentation trying out a few different IB options. My current setup is a Tab Bar Controller with Tab 1 as a Navigation Controller and Tab 2 a plain view with a Table View placed into it. The wiring works: I can log when table rows are selected and I'm ready to push a new View Controller onto the stack so that I can display the subtopics Table View. My problem: For some reason the first tab's Table View is a delegate and dataSource of the second ta. It doesn't make sense to me and I can't figure out why that's the only setup that works. Here is the wiring: Navigation Controller (Sectors) is a delegate of Tab Bar Navigation Bar is a delegate of Navigation Controller (Sectors) View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate of First View Controller (Companies) Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a dataSource outlet of First View Controller (Companies) First View Controller (Companies) First View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in First View Controller (Companies)) is not hooked up to a dataSource outlet and is not a delegate When I click the tab buttons and look at the Inspector I see that the first tab is correctly hooked up to my MainWindow.xib and the second tab has selected a nib called SecondView.xib. It's in the File's Owner of MainWindow.xib where I inherit UITableViewDataSource and UITableViewDelegate (and also UITabBarControllerDelegate) in the .h, and in the .m where I implement the delegate methods. Why does this setup only work when the Table View in my first tab (View Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate and dataSource of the second tab? I'm confused: why wouldn't it need to be hooked up to the Navigation Controller-enabled tab in which the Table View is seen (Navigation Controller (Sectors))? The Table View seen on the second tab has neither dataSource and is not a delegate. I'm having trouble getting a pushViewController to fire (self.navigationController is not nil but the new View Controller still doesn't load) and I suspect that I need to work out this IB wiring issue before I can troubleshoot why the Nav Controller won't push a new View Controller onto the stack. if(nil == self.navigationController) { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is nil."); } else { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is not nil."); SectorList *subsectorViewController = [[SectorList alloc] initWithNibName:@"SectorList" bundle:nil]; subsectorViewController.title = @"Subsectors"; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:subsectorViewController animated:YES]; [subsectorViewController release]; }

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  • Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot find the file specified"

    - by Ted
    There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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  • dbms_xmlschema fail to validate with complexType

    - by Andrew
    Preface: This works on one Oracle 11gR1 (Solaris 64) database and not on a second and we can't figure out the difference between the two databases. Somehow the complexType causes the validation to fail with this error: ORA-31154: invalid XML document ORA-19202: Error occurred in XML processing LSX-00200: element "shiporder" not empty ORA-06512: at "SYS.XMLTYPE", line 354 ORA-06512: at line 13 But the schema is valid (passes this online test: http://www.xmlme.com/Validator.aspx) -- Cleanup any existing schema begin dbms_xmlschema.deleteschema('shiporder.xsd',dbms_xmlschema.DELETE_CASCADE); end; -- Define the problem schema (adapted from http://www.w3schools.com/schema/schema_example.asp) begin dbms_xmlschema.registerSchema('shiporder.xsd','<?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?> <xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xs:element name="shiporder"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="orderperson" type="xs:string"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema>',owner=>'SCOTT'); end; -- Attempt to validate declare bbb xmltype; begin bbb := XMLType('<?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <shiporder xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation="shiporder.xsd"> <orderperson>John Smith</orderperson> </shiporder>'); XMLType.schemaValidate(bbb); end; Now if I gut the schema definition and leave only a string in the XML then the validation passes: begin dbms_xmlschema.deleteschema('shiporder.xsd',dbms_xmlschema.DELETE_CASCADE); end; begin dbms_xmlschema.registerSchema('shiporder.xsd','<?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?> <xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xs:element name="shiporder" type="xs:string"/> </xs:schema>',owner=>'SCOTT'); end; DECLARE xml XMLTYPE; BEGIN xml := XMLTYPE('<?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <shiporder xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation="shiporder.xsd"> John Smith </shiporder>'); XMLTYPE.schemaValidate(xml); END;

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  • using php and java script in a form

    - by Gal Miller
    I am a little bit lost. What I want to achieve is: my own custom button change onMouseOver etc' keep it's size post the information to a php server side code What I'm missing is: The post - I couldn't figure out how to combine js & php The Button size - my code sets a size for the original button but after the rollover it changes The code: <html> <head> </head> <body> <script> function form_on_click(frm) { document.buttonMore.src='bottom_more_click.JPG'; frm.submit(); } </script> <div style="position: absolute; left: 120px; top: 90px; background-image: url(myBackgroundPicture.jpg); background-repeat:no-repeat; width: 800px; height: 280px; padding: 15px;"> <form method="post" action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>"> <input type="text" name="whatever" size= "55" height="100" lang="en" dir="ltr" style="margin-top: 188px; margin-left: 95px; height: 20px; background-color: transparent; border:none; color: #FFFFFF; font-family: Verdana; font-weight: none; font-size: 18px;"> <a onmouseover="document.buttonMore.src='bottom_more_hover.JPG'" onmouseout="document.buttonMore.src='bottom_more_reg.JPG'" onmousedown= "form_on_click(this.form) this.form.submit()" onmouseup="document.buttonMore.src='bottom_more_hover.JPG'"> <img src="bottom_more_reg.jpg" name="buttonMore" height="30" width="173" border="0" alt="MORE!" style="margin-bottom:-10px; margin-left: 15px; height: 30px; width: 100px;"> </a> </form> </div> </body>

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  • How to make a composite Zend Form Element that includes a Dojo Field

    - by Joe
    I used the zendcast video to get me this far. The form is properly displayed. However, I need to change the display order box into a number box of zend dojo type. I cannot figure it out. Even help with examples would be great. <?php class My_View_Helper_CategoryDetailElement extends Zend_View_Helper_FormElement { protected $html = ''; public function CategoryDetailElement($name, $value = null, $attribs = null) { $type = $description = $displayOrder = $time = ''; if($value) { $type = $value->type; $description = $value->description; $displayOrder = $value->displayOrder; $time = $value->time; } $helper = new Zend_View_Helper_FormText(); $helper->setView($this->view); $helper_label = new Zend_View_Helper_FormLabel(); $helper_label->setView($this->view); $helper_select = new Zend_View_Helper_FormSelect(); $helper_select->setView($this->view); $helper_textarea = new Zend_View_Helper_FormTextarea(); $helper_textarea->setView($this->view); $this->html .= $helper_label->formLabel($name . '[type]', 'Type: ', array()); $this->html .= $helper_select->formSelect($name . '[type]', $type, array(), array('individual'=>'individual', 'team'=>'team')); $this->html .= "<br />"; $this->html .= $helper_label->formLabel($name . '[description]', 'Description: ', array()); $this->html .= $helper_textarea->formTextarea($name . '[description]', $description, array()); $this->html .= "<br />"; $this->html .= $helper_label->formLabel($name . '[displayOrder]', 'Display Order: ', array()); $this->html .= $helper->formText($name . '[displayOrder]', $displayOrder, array()); $this->html .= "<br />"; $this->html .= $helper_label->formLabel($name . '[time]', 'Time: ', array()); $this->html .= $helper->formText($name . '[time]', $time, array()); return $this->html; } } ?>

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  • Operator== in derived class never gets called.

    - by Robin Welch
    Can someone please put me out of my misery with this? I'm trying to figure out why a derived operator== never gets called in a loop. To simplify the example, here's my Base and Derived class: class Base { // ... snipped bool operator==( const Base& other ) const { return name_ == other.name_; } }; class Derived : public Base { // ... snipped bool operator==( const Derived& other ) const { return ( static_cast<const Base&>( *this ) == static_cast<const Base&>( other ) ? age_ == other.age_ : false ); }; Now when I instantiate and compare like this ... Derived p1("Sarah", 42); Derived p2("Sarah", 42); bool z = ( p1 == p2 ); ... all is fine. Here the operator== from Derived gets called, but when I loop over a list, comparing items in a list of pointers to Base objects ... list<Base*> coll; coll.push_back( new Base("fred") ); coll.push_back( new Derived("sarah", 42) ); // ... snipped // Get two items from the list. Base& obj1 = **itr; Base& obj2 = **itr2; cout << obj1.asString() << " " << ( ( obj1 == obj2 ) ? "==" : "!=" ) << " " << obj2.asString() << endl; Here asString() (which is virtual and not shown here for brevity) works fine, but obj1 == obj2 always calls the Base operator== even if the two objects are Derived. I know I'm going to kick myself when I find out what's wrong, but if someone could let me down gently it would be much appreciated.

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  • Validate an Xml file against a DTD with a proxy. C# 2.0

    - by Chris Dunaway
    I have looked at many examples for validating an XML file against a DTD, but have not found one that allows me to use a proxy. I have a cXml file as follows (abbreviated for display) which I wish to validate: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE cXML SYSTEM "http://xml.cxml.org/schemas/cXML/1.2.018/InvoiceDetail.dtd"> <cXML payloadID="123456" timestamp="2009-12-10T10:05:30-06:00"> <!-- content snipped --> </cXML> I am trying to create a simple C# program to validate the xml against the DTD. I have tried code such as the following but cannot figure out how to get it to use a proxy: private static bool isValid = false; static void Main(string[] args) { try { XmlTextReader r = new XmlTextReader(args[0]); XmlReaderSettings settings = new XmlReaderSettings(); XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); settings.ProhibitDtd = false; settings.ValidationType = ValidationType.DTD; settings.ValidationEventHandler += new ValidationEventHandler(v_ValidationEventHandler); XmlReader validator = XmlReader.Create(r, settings); while (validator.Read()) ; validator.Close(); // Check whether the document is valid or invalid. if (isValid) Console.WriteLine("Document is valid"); else Console.WriteLine("Document is invalid"); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } static void v_ValidationEventHandler(object sender, ValidationEventArgs e) { isValid = false; Console.WriteLine("Validation event\n" + e.Message); } The exception I receive is System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: (407) Proxy Authentication Required. which occurs on the line while (validator.Read()) ; I know I can validate against a DTD locally, but I don't want to change the xml DOCTYPE since that is what the final form needs to be (this app is solely for diagnostic purposes). For more information about the cXML spec, you can go to cxml.org. I appreciate any assistance. Thanks

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  • How to access static members in a Velocity template?

    - by matt b
    I'm not sure if there is a way to do this in Velocity or not: I have a User POJO which a property named Status, which looks like an enum (but it is not, since I am stuck on Java 1.4), the definition looks something like this: public class User { // default status to User private Status status = Status.USER; public void setStatus(Status status) { this.status = status; } public Status getStatus() { return status; } And Status is a static inner class: public static final class Status { private String statusString; private Status(String statusString) { this.statusString = statusString; } public final static Status USER = new Status("user"); public final static Status ADMIN = new Status("admin"); public final static Status STATUS_X = new Status("blah"); //.equals() and .hashCode() implemented as well } With this pattern, a user status can easily be tested in a conditional such as if(User.Status.ADMIN.equals(user.getStatus())) ... ... without having to reference any constants for the status ID, any magic numbers, etc. However, I can't figure out how to test these conditionals in my Velocity template with VTL. I'd like to just print a simple string based upon the user's status, such as: Welcome <b>${user.name}</b>! <br/> <br/> #if($user.status == com.company.blah.User.Status.USER) You are a regular user #elseif($user.status == com.company.blah.User.Status.ADMIN) You are an administrator #etc... #end But this throws an Exception that looks like org.apache.velocity.exception.ParseErrorException: Encountered "User" at webpages/include/dashboard.inc[line 10, column 21] Was expecting one of: "[" ... From the VTL User Guide, there is no mention of accessing a Java class/static member directly in VTL, it appears that the right hand side (RHS) of a conditional can only be a number literal, string literal, property reference, or method reference. So is there any way that I can access static Java properties/references in a Velocity template? I'm aware that as a workaround, I could embed the status ID or some other identifier as a reference in my controller (this is a web MVC application using Velocity as the View technology), but I strongly do not want to embed any magic numbers or constants in the view layer.

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  • Flash Buttons Don't Work: TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null objec

    - by goldenfeelings
    I've read through several threads about this error, but haven't been able to apply it to figure out my situation... My flash file is an approx 5 second animation. Then, the last keyframe of each layer (frame #133) has a button in it. My flash file should stop on this last key frame, and you should be able to click on any of the 6 buttons to navigate to another html page in my website. Here is the Action Script that I have applied to the frame in which the buttons exist (on a separate layer, see screenshot at: http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/wp-content/themes/Footprints/images/flash_buttonissue.jpg stop (); function babieschildren(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("babies children method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/babies-children"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } bc_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, babieschildren); bc_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, babieschildren); function fams(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("families method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } f_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, fams); f_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, fams); function couplesweddings(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("couples weddings method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/couples-weddings"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } cw_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, couplesweddings); cw_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, couplesweddings); When I test the movie, I get this error in the output box: "TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference." The test movie does stop on the appropriate frame, but the buttons don't do anything (no URL is opened, and the trace statements don't show up in the output box when the buttons are clicked on the test movie). You can view the .swf file here: www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio I'm confident that all 6 buttons do exist in the appropriate frame (frame 133), so I don't think that's what's causing the 1009 error. I also tried deleting each of the three function/addEventListener sections one at a time and testing, and I still got the 1009 error every time. If I delete ALL of the action script except for the "stop ()" line, then I do NOT get the 1009 error. Any ideas?? I'm very new to Flash, so if I haven't clarified something that I need to, let me know!

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  • Importing a large delimited file to a MySQL table

    - by Tom
    I have this large (and oddly formatted txt file) from the USDA's website. It is the NUT_DATA.txt file. But the problem is that it is almost 27mb! I was successful in importing the a few other smaller files, but my method was using file_get_contents which it makes sense why an error would be thrown if I try to snag 27+ mb of RAM. So how can I import this massive file to my MySQL DB without running into a timeout and RAM issue? I've tried just getting one line at a time from the file, but this ran into timeout issue. Using PHP 5.2.0. Here is the old script (the fields in the DB are just numbers because I could not figure out what number represented what nutrient, I found this data very poorly document. Sorry about the ugliness of the code): <? $file = "NUT_DATA.txt"; $data = split("\n", file_get_contents($file)); // split each line $link = mysql_connect("localhost", "username", "password"); mysql_select_db("database", $link); for($i = 0, $e = sizeof($data); $i < $e; $i++) { $sql = "INSERT INTO `USDA` (1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17) VALUES("; $row = split("\^", trim($data[$i])); // split each line by carrot for ($j = 0, $k = sizeof($row); $j < $k; $j++) { $val = trim($row[$j], '~'); $val = (empty($val)) ? 0 : $val; $sql .= ((empty($val)) ? 0 : $val) . ','; // this gets rid of those tildas and replaces empty strings with 0s } $sql = rtrim($sql, ',') . ");"; mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error()); // query the db } echo "Finished inserting data into database.\n"; mysql_close($link); ?>

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  • jquery refresh php loop?

    - by Elliott
    Hi, I have a page in which users can make "posts" its similar to facebook, I am trying to figure out how I can get it to run the php loop say every 10mins, in order for the person to see new posts. Everytime a post is made it is added into the db and then the page is refreshed, I want to do it more "facebook like". Using jquery slide down etc. Below is what I have up2 now. function postdata() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", dataType: "text", url: "makepost.php", data: "post_text=" + $("#post_text").val(), cache: false, success: function(reply_text) { if (reply_text.indexOf("Successful") >= 0) { alert("Post Made"); window.location = "index.php" } else { alert(reply_text); } } }); } </script> <div id="content"> <?php if (loggedin()) { $ID = getID(); $query = "SELECT * FROM `posts`"; $result=mysql_query($query); $count=mysql_num_rows($result); $users = "SELECT `userID` FROM `users`"; $resultID=mysql_query($users); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<div class="posts">'; echo $row['2']."<br /><br />"; echo '<div class="posts_bottom">'; echo '<p class="name">'; echo showuser($row['1'])."</p>"; echo '<p class="rate">'; echo '<input type="submit" value="+1"/></p>'; echo '<p class="points">'; echo showpoints($row['1'])."</p>"; echo "</div>"; echo '</div>'; } echo '<div id="makepost"> <br /><textarea rows="3" cols="25" id="post_text" ></textarea><br /> <input type="submit" id="post_bttn" value="Post" onclick="postdata(); return false;"> </div>'; As they are put into a new div everytime I don't know what to refresh? Such as if it was one div I could jus refresh that, but these are being created and I don't know how many would need to be loaded. Any adivce? Thanks alot :D

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  • javascript simple object creation test: opera leaks?

    - by joe
    Hi, I am trying to figure out certain memory leak conditions in javascript on a few browsers. Currently I'm only testing FF 3.6, Opera 10.10, and Safari 4.0.3. I've started with a fairly simple test, and can confirm no memory leaks in Firefox and Safari. But Opera just takes memory and never gives it back. What gives? Here's the test: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = init; //window.onunload = cleanup; var a=[]; function init() { var d = document.createElement('div'); d.innerHTML = "page loading..."; document.body.appendChild(d); for (var i=0; i<400000; i++) { a[i] = new Obj("xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"); } d.innerHTML = "PAGE LOADED"; } function cleanup() { for (var i=0; i<400000; i++) { a[i] = null; } } function Obj(msg) { this.msg=msg; } </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I shouldn't need the cleanup() call on window.unload, but tried that also. No luck. As you can see this is simple JS, no circular DOM links, no closures. I monitor the memory usage using 'top' on Mac 10.4.11. Memory usage spikes up on page load, as expected. In FF and Safari reloading the page does not use any further memory, and all memory is returned when the window (tab) is closed. In Opera, memory spikes on load, and seems to also spike further on each reload (but not always...). But regardless of reload, memory never goes back down below the initial load spike. I had hoped this was a no-brainer test that all browsers would pass, so I could move on to more "interesting" conditions. Am I doing something wrong here? Or is this a known Opera issue? Thanks! -joe

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  • NonUniqueObjectException during DAO integration test?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Hibernate application and am trying to get it to run against H2 and MySQL. Currently I am using Atomikos for transactions and C3P0 for connection pooling. Despite my best efforts my DAO integration tests are failing with org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException. I do tend to re-use the same object (same ID even) over and over for all the different tests and I am sure that is the cause, but I can see in the logs that Spring Test and Atomikos are clearly rolling back the transaction associated with each test method. I would have thought the rollback would have also cleared the persistence context too. On a hunch, I added an a call to dao.clear() at the beginning of the faulty test methods and the problem went away!! Rollback doesn't clear the persistence context...hmmm.... Not sure if this is relevant, but I see a possible autocommit setting problem in the log file: [20100613 23:06:34] DEBUG [main] SessionFactoryImpl.(242) | instantiating session factory with properties: .....edited for brevity.... hibernate.connection.autocommit=true, ....more stuff follows Because I am using connection pooling, I figure that Hibernate is where I'll have to indicate I want autocommit off. I found the autocommit property documented here and I put it in my EntityManagerFactory config as follows: <bean id="myappTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.AtomikosJTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> <prop key="hibernate.connection.autocommit">false</prop> <prop key="hibernate.format_sql">true"</prop> <prop key="hibernate.use_sql_comments">true</prop> </property> </bean>

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  • How to troubleshoot a Highcharts script that's not rendering data when date is added and hanging the JS engine with large datasets?

    - by ylluminate
    I have a Highchart JS graph that I'm building in Rails (although I don't think Ruby has real bearing on this problem unless it's the Date output format) to which I'm adding the timestamp of each datapoint. Presently the array of floats is rendering fine without timestamps, however when I add the timestamp to the series it fails to rend. What's worse is that when the series has hundreds of entries all sorts of problems arise, not the least of which is the browser entirely hanging and requiring a force quit / kill. I'm using the following to build the array of arrays data series: series1 = readings.map{|row| [(row.date.to_i * 1000), (row.data1.to_f if BigDecimal(row.data1) != BigDecimal("-1000.0"))] } This yields a result like this: series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-09],[1326262920000,1.29e-09],[1326262860000,1.22e-09],[1326262800000,1.42e-09],[1326262740000,1.29e-09],[1326262680000,1.34e-09],[1326262620000,1.31e-09],[1326262560000,1.51e-09],[1326262500000,1.24e-09],[1326262440000,1.7e-09],[1326262380000,1.24e-09],[1326262320000,1.29e-09],[1326262260000,1.53e-09],[1326262200000,1.23e-09],[1326262140000,1.21e-09]],"color":"blue"}] Yet nothing appears on the graph as noted. Notwithstanding, when I compare the data series in one of their very similar examples here: http://www.highcharts.com/demo/spline-irregular-time It appears that really the data series are formatted identically (except in mine I use the timestamp vs date method). This leads me to think I've got a problem with the timestamp output, but I'm just not able to figure out where / how as I'm converting the date output to an integer multipled by 1000 to convert it to milliseconds as per explained in a similar Railscasts tutorial. I would very much appreciate it if someone could point me in the right direction here as to what I may be doing wrong. What could cause no data to appear on the graph in smaller sized sets (<100 points) and when into the hundreds causes an apparent hang in the javascript engine in this case? Perhaps ultimately the key lies here as this is the entire js that's being generated and not rendering: jQuery(function() { // 1. Define JSON options var options = { chart: {"defaultSeriesType":"spline","renderTo":"chart_name"}, title: {"text":"Title"}, legend: {"layout":"vertical","style":{}}, xAxis: {"title":{"text":"UTC Time"},"type":"datetime"}, yAxis: [{"title":{"text":"Left Title","margin":10}},{"title":{"text":"Right Groups Title"},"opposite":true}], tooltip: {"enabled":true}, credits: {"enabled":false}, plotOptions: {"areaspline":{}}, series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-08],[1326262920000,1.69e-08],[1326262860000,1.62e-08],[1326262800000,1.42e-08],[1326262740000,1.29e-08],[1326262680000,1.34e-08],[1326262620000,1.31e-08],[1326262560000,1.51e-08],[1326262500000,1.64e-08],[1326262440000,1.7e-08],[1326262380000,1.64e-08],[1326262320000,1.69e-08],[1326262260000,1.53e-08],[1326262200000,1.23e-08],[1326262140000,1.21e-08]],"color":"blue"},{"name":"Data 2","data":[[1326262980000,9.79e-09],[1326262920000,9.78e-09],[1326262860000,9.8e-09],[1326262800000,9.82e-09],[1326262740000,9.88e-09],[1326262680000,9.89e-09],[1326262620000,1.3e-06],[1326262560000,1.32e-06],[1326262500000,1.33e-06],[1326262440000,1.33e-06],[1326262380000,1.34e-06],[1326262320000,1.33e-06],[1326262260000,1.32e-06],[1326262200000,1.32e-06],[1326262140000,1.32e-06]],"color":"red"}], subtitle: {} }; // 2. Add callbacks (non-JSON compliant) // 3. Build the chart var chart = new Highcharts.StockChart(options); });

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