Search Results

Search found 36541 results on 1462 pages for 'twitter id'.

Page 42/1462 | < Previous Page | 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49  | Next Page >

  • Enter ID instead of name on submit (form)

    - by Derek
    In my activities table, I have a user ID and a project ID. When a user (of admin level) creates an activity they select from a drop down menu a project. Here is the select query to draw up appropriate values: $sql = "SELECT usersprojects_tb.projectid, projects.projectname FROM projects INNER JOIN usersprojects on projects.projectid = usersprojects.projectid WHERE usersprojects.userid = '".$_SESSION['SESS_USERID']."'"; And for the tag with the dropdown menu, I have this: <?php echo $row['projectname']?> I have tried submitting the form with 'projectid' here instead and the project ID is stored successfully in my activies table. However, the user needs to see the project names (IDs arent exactly user-friendly!) And with 'projectname' as displayed, they can select the names of the available projects (to associate an activity with) but the project ID is not stored, how I link this up, so that when the project name is sent, the ID for this project is stored properly in my activities table. I'm also having the exact same problem with the users drop down. As the admin user selects a user from the drop down to assign the task to. I exactly what I want, but I think I may be using the wrong syntax! Any help is much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • PHP javascript link id

    - by Jordan Pagaduan
    <?php //connect to database .... //select query .... if(isset($_GET["link"])==false){ echo "sample 1"; }else{ echo "sample 2" ; } ?> <script type="javascript"> function Link(id) { location.href='linktest.php&link='+id; } </script> <html> <input type="button" value="link test" onclick="javascript: Link<?php $row['id']; ?>"> </html> (assumed question) How do I force the onclick event to contain the value of $row['id']?

    Read the article

  • Sharepoint List redirect with new id

    - by TheRealQuagmire
    I have a list within Sharepoint, using a custom new form i have added a custom list form control ("New item form" for the list) and changed the SaveButton to a standard input HTML button, and added an 'onclick' event that is as follows: onclick="javascript: {ddwrt:GenFireServerEvent('__commit;__redirect={NewFormWizard2.aspx?id=}')}" this works as in saves the data and redirects to the NewFormWizard2.aspx?id= page. the question is how do i get the ID of the created item to be passed to the redirected page? thus once the form is completed it would redirect to NewFormWizard2.aspx?id=23 Thanks in advanced.

    Read the article

  • Reuse classes in an id based css

    - by C. Ross
    I have a id based CSS file where I noticed I'm mostly repeating myself. What I'd like to do is specify that an item with an id follows a certain class + some other rules. For example: I'd like id id1 to have all the properties of class LinkButton applied as well as the value back-color: green. Is there a way to do this in the css file? Is there a better way to do what I'm looking at?

    Read the article

  • Need a SQL statement focus on combination of tables but entries always with uinque ID

    - by Registered User KC
    Hi All, I need SQL code to solve the tables combination problem, described on below: Table old data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/8/2010 1 B 0.1 on 6/8/2010 2 C 0.1 on 6/8/2010 3 D 0.1 on 6/8/2010 4 E 0.1 on 6/8/2010 5 F 0.1 on 6/8/2010 6 G 0.1 on 6/8/2010 7 Table new data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #B entry deleted C 0.3 on 6/18/2010 #version_updated C1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 D 0.1 on 6/18/2010 E 0.1 off 6/18/2010 #status_updated F 0.1 on 6/18/2010 G 0.1 on 6/18/2010 H 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added H1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added the difference of new data and old date: B entry deleted C entry version updated E entry status updated C1/H/H1 entry new added What I want is always keeping the ID - name mapping relationship in old data table no matter how data changed later, a.k.a the name always has a unique ID number bind with it. If entry has update, then update the data, if entry is new added, insert to the table then give a new assigned unique ID. However, I can only use SQL with simple select or update statement then it may too hard for me to write such code, then I hope someone with expertise can give direction, no details needed on the different of SQL variant, a standard sql code as sample is enough. Thanks in advance! Rgs KC

    Read the article

  • SQL Reset Identity ID in already populated table

    - by rockinthesixstring
    hey all. I have a table in my DB that has about a thousand records in it. I would like to reset the identity column so that all of the ID's are sequential again. I was looking at this but I'm ASSuming that it only works on an empty table Current Table ID | Name 1 Joe 2 Phil 5 Jan 88 Rob Desired Table ID | Name 1 Joe 2 Phil 3 Jan 4 Rob Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to query AD to get name email from lan id

    - by Kumar
    I have some code in asp.net ( kindly given by someone else ) to query AD to get user name and email etc. using System.DirectoryServices; using System.DirectoryServices.ActiveDirectory; using ActiveDs; DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(new DirectoryEntry(), string.Format("(samaccountname={0})", id)); if (search == null) return id; if (search.FindOne() == null) return id; DirectoryEntry usr = search.FindOne().GetDirectoryEntry(); IADsUser oUsr = (IADsUser)usr.NativeObject; return string.Format("{0} {1}", usr.Properties["givenname"].Value, usr.Properties["sn"].Value); However this requires impersonation with an id that's required to be changed every 2 weeks and then updated in the web.config which is often forgotten Is there any non impersonation code to achieve the same result ? UPDATE - it's a config tool and it looks up name, email id etc. I like the service a/c idea Q - How is it possible to run ( impersonate ) just the AD code with a "service" a/c ? any samples/code ? how do you impersona

    Read the article

  • Referring to an object's ID in a jQuery append statement

    - by Summer
    I have this element: <div class="isthisyou" id="unique_identifier"></div> I want to use jQuery to insert a link into the div: $('isthisyou').append('<a href="auth/create_account/'+this.id+'">Is this you?</a>'); Right now this.id is returning undefined instead of unique_identifier. What am I doing wrong? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Which will be the best query OR there is an another one?

    - by serhan
    SELECT k.id,k.adsoyad, COUNT(DISTINCT(e.id)) as iletisimbilgisisay, COUNT(DISTINCT(f.id)) AS ilangonderensay, COUNT(DISTINCT(g.id)) AS emlaksahibisay, isNULL(MAX(eb.yonetici_kisi),0) AS yoneticiid FROM dbo.kisiler k LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.emlaklar e ON e.iletisimbilgisi=k.id LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.emlaklar f ON f.ilangonderen=k.id LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.emlaklar g ON g.emlaksahibi=k.id LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.emlakcibilgileri eb ON eb.yonetici_kisi=k.id GROUP BY k.id,k.adsoyad ORDER BY yoneticiid DESC, iletisimbilgisisay DESC, ilangonderensay DESC total execution time (above) 28 SELECT id,adsoyad, (select COUNT(id) FROM dbo.emlaklar WHERE iletisimbilgisi=k.id) AS iletisimbilgisisay, (select COUNT(id) FROM dbo.emlaklar WHERE emlaksahibi=k.id) AS emlaksahibisay, (select COUNT(id) FROM dbo.emlaklar WHERE ilangonderen=k.id) AS ilangonderensay, (Select isNULL(MAX(id),0) FROM dbo.emlakcibilgileri WHERE yonetici_kisi=k.id) AS yoneticiid FROM dbo.kisiler k total execution time 4 my tables are emlaklar: id int, ilangonderen int,iletisimbilgisi int,emlaksahibi int kisiler: id int,kisiadi emlakcibilgileri: id int,yonetici_kisi int,firma and ilangonderen,iletisimbilgisi,emlaksahibi,yonetici_kisi => kisiler.id

    Read the article

  • Assigning ID to a Row in an Android ListView

    - by Chris
    I have a ListView. When an item on the ListView is tapped, it loads a SubView. I want to assign an ID to each row of the ListView, so I can pass that ID along to the SubView. How do I assign a specific ID to each row in the ListView? Here is how I am currently loading the ListView: setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.list_item, mArrayList));

    Read the article

  • TSQL ID generation

    - by Markus
    Hi. I have a question regarding locking in TSQL. Suppose I have a the following table: A(int id, varchar name), where id is the primary key, but is NOT an identity column. I want to use the following pseudocode to insert a value into this table: lock (A) uniqueID = GenerateUniqueID() insert into A values (uniqueID, somename) unlock(A) How can this be accomplished in terms of TSQL? The computation of the next id should be done with the table A locked in order to avoid other sessions to do the same operation at the same time and get the same id.

    Read the article

  • Android: R$id class not loaded?

    - by llappall
    Hi, I have a Android class extending Application to generate some global classes, etc. It works, in that I can, for example, get the context, etc. BUT, when I try this: row = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.list_row_text); I get R.id.list_row_text = Class not loaded : <mypackage>.R$id Any ideas why this is happening? Thanks Gerardo

    Read the article

  • cakephp find with ID inArray

    - by user331321
    Hi! i have this tables: Clients (id, name, addrees, group,...) Services_Clients (id, client_id, login,passwd) documents (id,client_id,date,path) clients must be in a group or not, and i can not change the database structure. 1) In a login form, by user/passwd i get an client group 2) after that a get all the clients id from that group like this $jur = $this-Client-find('all', array('conditions' = array('Client.group'=$group['Client']['group']))); ok, now, i need to get all documents from the clients of that group, so... how can i achive that? i need to find in my model but getting only with IDs on $jur variable sorry about my english...

    Read the article

  • Why does $('#id') return true if id doesn't exist?

    - by David
    I always wondered why jQuery returns true if I'm trying to find elements by id selector that doesnt exist in the DOM structure. Like this: <div id="one">one</div> <script> console.log( !!$('#one') ) // prints true console.log( !!$('#two') ) // is also true! (empty jQuery object) console.log( !!document.getElementById('two') ) // prints false </script> I know I can use !!$('#two').length since length === 0 if the object is empty, but it seems logical to me that a selector would return the element if found, otherwise null (like the native document.getElementById does). F.ex, this logic can't be done in jQuery: var div = $('#two') || $('<div id="two"></div>'); Wouldnt it be more logical if the ID selector returned null if not found? anyone?

    Read the article

  • Java Hibernate id auto increment

    - by vinise
    Hy I'v a little problem with hibernate on netbeans. I've a table with an Auto increment id : CREATE TABLE "DVD" ( "DVD_ID" INT not null primary key GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY (START WITH 1, INCREMENT BY 1), "TITLE" VARCHAR(150), "COM" LONG VARCHAR, "COVER" VARCHAR(150) ); But this auto increment is not properly detected with Reverse Engineering. I get a map file with this : <id name="dvdId" type="int"> <column name="DVD_ID" /> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> i've looked on google and on this site ... foud some stuf but i'm still stuck.. i've tried to add insert="false" update="false" on the map file but i get back : Caused by: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: Attribute "insert" must be declared for element type "id". Anny help will be pleased Vincent

    Read the article

  • change a value xml in php but false with a node name id-7

    - by Nataly Nguyen
    I want to change a xml, but fails with this code. I think mistake with name of variable (ID-1) in php. chang.php <?php include 'example.php'; $xml = new SimpleXMLElement($xmlstr); $xml->ID-1 = '8'; $xml->name = 'Big Cliff'; $xml->asXML('test2.xml'); echo $xml->asXML(); ?> example.php <?php $xmlstr = <<<XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <film> <ID-1>29</ID-1> <name>adf</name> </film> XML; ?>

    Read the article

  • How to get the id of Updatepanel which initiated a postback

    - by Voice
    Hi I need to intercept server callback after udate panel async post back and determine which panel initiated the request. The code is pretty simple: Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().add_pageLoaded(InterceptUpdateCallback); function InterceptUpdateCallback(sender, args) { var updatedPanels = args.get_panelsUpdated(); for (idx = 0; idx < updatedPanels.length; idx++) { if (updatedPanels[idx].id == "myUpdatePanel") { StartSmth(); break; } } } And it works when UpdatePanel is not inside another UpdatePanel. But when it is inside another UpdatePanel updatedPanels[idx].id has parent Updatepanel id. So how can I get the id of UpdatePanel which initiated the request (the inner UpdatePanel)? Thanx

    Read the article

  • MySQL : incrementing text id in DB

    - by BarsMonster
    I need to have text IDs in my application. For example, we have acceptable charset azAZ09, and allowed range of IDs [aaa] - [cZ9]. First generated id would be aaa, then aab, aac, aad e.t.c. How one can return ID & increment lower bound in transaction-fashion? (provided that there are hundreds of concurrent requests and all should have correct result) To lower the load I guess it's possible to define say 20 separate ranges, and return id from random range - this should reduce contention, but it's not clear how to do single operation in the first place. Also, please note that number of IDs in range might exceed 2^32. Another idea is having ranges of 64-bit integers, and converting integer-char id in software code, where it could be done asyncroniously. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • sql jdbc getgeneratedkeys with mysql returns column "id" not found

    - by iamrohitbanga
    I want to retrieve the most recently updated value in the table using an insert query. these are the datatypes in my sql table. int(11) // primary key auto increment, not being assigned by sqlQuery varchar(30) timestamp // has a default value. but i am explicit assigning it using CURRENT_TIMESTAMP varchar(300) varchar(300) varchar(300) int(11) varchar(300) // java code statement.executeUpdate(sqlQuery, Statement.RETURN_GENERATED_KEYS); ResultSet rs = statement.getGeneratedKeys(); System.out.println("here: " + rs.getMetaData().getColumnCount()); System.out.println("here1: " + rs.getMetaData().getColumnName(1)); // none of the following 3 works System.out.println("id: " + rs.getInt(1)); System.out.println("id: " + rs.getInt("GENERATED_KEY")); System.out.println("id: " + rs.getInt("id")); for a bit of background see this

    Read the article

  • How and why is ap defined as liftM2 id in Haskell

    - by luke_randall
    Whilst trying to better understand Applicative, I looked at the definition of <*, which tends to be defined as ap, which in turn is defined as: ap :: (Monad m) => m (a -> b) -> m a -> m b ap = liftM2 id Looking at the type signatures for liftM2 and id, namely: liftM2 :: (Monad m) => (a1 -> a2 -> r) -> m a1 -> m a2 -> m r id :: a -> a I fail to understand how just by passing in id, the relevant part of the type signature seems to transform from (a1 -> a2 -> r) -> m a1 to m (a -> b). What am I missing here?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49  | Next Page >