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• Castle Windsor with ASP.NET MVC 2 Areas

  - by Doug Shontz

  Been lurking for a few months and decided to jump in with a question. I am very new to Windsor and IoC in general. I can get Windsor to work with my MVC2 project with no problem. The project I am working on is a "portal" of multiple applications under one MVC2 project using the new Areas concept. In this scenario, each Area will actually be a separate application inside the "portal". We are doing this to effectively share a LOT of common code, views, authentication, and cross-application functionality. Many of our apps link to one another, so it made sense after discussing it to combine them into one project. What I am wondering how to do is actually allow different Areas to inject different concrete classes? In my limited understanding, the Application_Start is governing building the container and assigning it as the controller factory. I don't necessarily want to do all the injection at the application level. We have a config system where we have a config.xml at the root of every Area and those settings override any root settings. I would like to continue that trend by having the injections for each Area be read by the Area's config.xml (an inheritance similar to Webforms web.config where the config in a lower folder overrides settings in a parent folder). Example: I would have an ILogHandler which would need a different concrete implementation depending on which Area of the application I am in. So I would need to inject something different depending on where I am at in the application. I can easily do this using factories since each area could have it's own set of factories, but I am attempting to take this opportunity to learn about IoC and what the benefits/drawbacks are. Any help would be appreciated.

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• iphone bookmarklet cookie persistence

  - by Larry Davis

  I have an iphone (jqtouch based) web app that uses cookies for authentication. The use flow is as follows : user goes to the mobile landing page and is instructed to save the page as a bookmarklet on their home page. they launch the bookmarklet to go to a login page to login and get a cookie. the cookie works and they can navigate throughout the web site. However this session cookie is not persistent. If they leave safari and then restart using the saved bookmarklet, the cookies set during their previous session are gone. Just using safari (ie: launch safari directly rather than through the bookmarklet) to navigate the pages works fine (ie: start safari, go to url, do login, restart safari, go back to url). I find that that the cookies that were active when the bookmarklet was created are persistent but any cookies set during the session when safari is accessed through the bookmarklet are not persistent. I'm wondering if this is a safari/iphone issue and/or if there is any way around this. Many thanks for any insight you can provide.

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• Add Image to Base64 Encoded ImageStream in Resources (resx)

  - by NickAldwin

  I'm working on an older project, updating it. Part of the program has a toolstrip with many buttons on it, each with an image. I found that the images are stored in a Base64 encoded imagestream in the resx for the form and accessed as such: System.ComponentModel.ComponentResourceManager resources = new System.ComponentModel.ComponentResourceManager(typeof(Form1)); ... this.imageList1 = new System.Windows.Forms.ImageList(this.components); ... this.toolStrip1.ImageList = this.imageList1; ... this.imageList1.ImageStream = ((System.Windows.Forms.ImageListStreamer)(resources.GetObject("imageList1.ImageStream"))); ... this.toolStripButton1.ImageIndex = 0; //There are 41 images, so this can be between 0 and 40 I need to add another button with a new image. How can I add an image to this stream? I cannot use the designer, as it crashes as soon as I load the form (I believe because it uses a custom component with unsafe code). I could always just add a new image resource separate from the stream, but that would make that one button different and thus it would create problems with consistency, causing upkeep problems later. So I'm wondering if there is any way for me to edit the imagestream. I can access the raw base64 string, but I have no idea where to go from here.

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• Static factory pattern with EJB3/JBoss

  - by purecharger

  I'm fairly new to EJBs and full blown application servers like JBoss, having written and worked with special purpose standalone Java applications for most of my career, with limited use of JEE. I'm wondering about the best way to adapt a commonly used design pattern to EJB3 and JBoss: the static factory pattern. In fact this is Item #1 in Joshua Bloch's Effective Java book (2nd edition) I'm currently working with the following factory: public class CredentialsProcessorFactory { private static final Log log = LogFactory.getLog(CredentialsProcessorFactory.class); private static Map<CredentialsType, CredentialsProcessor> PROCESSORS = new HashMap<CredentialsType, CredentialsProcessor>(); static { PROCESSORS.put(CredentialsType.CSV, new CSVCredentialsProcessor()); } private CredentialsProcessorFactory() {} public static CredentialsProcessor getProcessor(CredentialsType type) { CredentialsProcessor p = PROCESSORS.get(type); if(p == null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("No CredentialsProcessor registered for type " + type.toString()); return p; } However, in the implementation classes of CredentialsProcessor, I require injected resources such as a PersistenceContext, so I have made the CredentialsProcessor interface a @Local interface, and each of the impl's marked with @Stateless. Now I can look them up in JNDI and use the injected resources. But now I have a disconnect because I am not using the factory anymore. My first thought was to change the getProcessor(CredentialsType) method to do a JNDI lookup and return the SLSB instance that is required, but then I need to configure and pass the proper qualified JNDI name. Before I go down that path, I wanted to do more research on accepted practices. How is this design pattern treated in EJB3 / JEE?

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• JVM CMS Garbage Collecting Issues

  - by jlintz

  I'm seeing the following symptoms on an application's GC log file with the Concurrent Mark-Sweep collector: 4031.248: [CMS-concurrent-preclean-start] 4031.250: [CMS-concurrent-preclean: 0.002/0.002 secs] [Times: user=0.00 sys=0.00, real=0.00 secs] 4031.250: [CMS-concurrent-abortable-preclean-start] CMS: abort preclean due to time 4036.346: [CMS-concurrent-abortable-preclean: 0.159/5.096 secs] [Times: user=0.00 sys=0.01, real=5.09 secs] 4036.346: [GC[YG occupancy: 55964 K (118016 K)]4036.347: [Rescan (parallel) , 0.0641200 secs]4036.411: [weak refs processing, 0.0001300 secs]4036.411: [class unloading, 0.0041590 secs]4036.415: [scrub symbol & string tables, 0.0053220 secs] [1 CMS-remark: 16015K(393216K)] 71979K(511232K), 0.0746640 secs] [Times: user=0.08 sys=0.00, real=0.08 secs] The preclean process keeps aborting continously. I've tried adjusting CMSMaxAbortablePrecleanTime to 15 seconds, from the default of 5, but that has not helped. The current JVM options are as follows... Djava.awt.headless=true -Xms512m -Xmx512m -Xmn128m -XX:MaxPermSize=128m -XX:+HeapDumpOnOutOfMemoryError -XX:+UseParNewGC -XX:+UseConcMarkSweepGC -XX:BiasedLockingStartupDelay=0 -XX:+DoEscapeAnalysis -XX:+UseBiasedLocking -XX:+EliminateLocks -XX:+CMSParallelRemarkEnabled -verbose:gc -XX:+PrintGCTimeStamps -XX:+PrintGCDetails -XX:+PrintHeapAtGC -Xloggc:gc.log -XX:+CMSClassUnloadingEnabled -XX:+CMSPermGenPrecleaningEnabled -XX:CMSInitiatingOccupancyFraction=50 -XX:ReservedCodeCacheSize=64m -Dnetworkaddress.cache.ttl=30 -Xss128k It appears the concurrent-abortable-preclean never gets a chance to run. I read through http://blogs.sun.com/jonthecollector/entry/did_you_know which had a suggestion of enabling CMSScavengeBeforeRemark, but the side effects of pausing did not seem ideal. Could anyone offer up any suggestions? Also I was wondering if anyone had a good reference for grokking the CMS GC logs, in particular this line: [1 CMS-remark: 16015K(393216K)] 71979K(511232K), 0.0746640 secs] Not clear on what memory regions those numbers are referring to.

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• Trouble converting an MP3 file to a WAV file using Naudio

  - by WebDevHobo

  Naudio Library: http://naudio.codeplex.com/ I'm trying to convert an MP3 file to a WAV file, but I've run in to a small error. I know what's going wrong, but I don't really know how to go about fixing it. Here's the piece of code I'm running: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using(Mp3FileReader reader = new Mp3FileReader(@"path\to\MP3")) { using(WaveFileWriter writer = new WaveFileWriter(@"C:\test.wav", new WaveFormat())) { int counter = 0; while(reader.Read(test, counter, test.Length + counter) != 0) { writer.WriteData(test, counter, test.Length + counter); counter += 512; } } } } reader.Read() goes into the Mp3FileReader class, and the method looks like this: public override int Read(byte[] sampleBuffer, int offset, int numBytes) { if (numBytes % waveFormat.BlockAlign != 0) //throw new ApplicationException("Must read complete blocks"); numBytes -= (numBytes % waveFormat.BlockAlign); return mp3Stream.Read(sampleBuffer, offset, numBytes); } mp3Stream is an object of the Stream class. The problem is: I'm getting an ArgumentException. MSDN says that this is because the sum of offset and numBytes is greater than the length of sampleBuffer. Documentation: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.io.stream.read.aspx This happens because I increase the counter every time, but the size of the byte array test remains the same. What I've been wondering is: do I need to increase the size of the array dynamically, or do I need to find out the needed size at the beginning and set it right away? And also, instead of 512, the method in Mp3FileReader returns 365 the first time. Which is the size of a whole block. But I'm writing the full 512. I'm basically just using the read to check if I'm not at the end of the file yet. Do I need to catch the return value and do something with that, or am I good here?

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• Can I autogenerate/compile code on-the-fly, at runtime, based upon values (like key/value pairs) parsed out of a configuration file?

  - by Kumba

  This might be a doozy for some. I'm not sure if it's even 100% implementable, but I wanted to throw the idea out there to see if I'm really off of my rocker yet. I have a set of classes that mimics enums (see my other questions for specific details/examples). For 90% of my project, I can compile everything in at design time. But the remaining 10% is going to need to be editable w/o re-compiling the project in VS 2010. This remaining 10% will be based on a templated version of my Enums class, but will generate code at runtime, based upon data values sourced in from external configuration files. To keep this question small, see this SO question for an idea of what my Enums class looks like. The templated fields, per that question, will be the MaxEnums Int32, Names String() array, and Values array, plus each shared implementation of the Enums sub-class (which themselves, represent the Enums that I use elsewhere in my code). I'd ideally like to parse values from a simple text file (INI-style) of key/value pairs: [Section1] Enum1=enum_one Enum2=enum_two Enum3=enum_three So that the following code would be generated (and compiled) at runtime (comments/supporting code stripped to reduce question size): Friend Shared ReadOnly MaxEnums As Int32 = 3 Private Shared ReadOnly _Names As String() = New String() _ {"enum_one", "enum_two", "enum_three"} Friend Shared ReadOnly Enum1 As New Enums(_Names(0), 1) Friend Shared ReadOnly Enum2 As New Enums(_Names(1), 2) Friend Shared ReadOnly Enum3 As New Enums(_Names(2), 4) Friend Shared ReadOnly Values As Enums() = New Enums() _ {Enum1, Enum2, Enum3} I'm certain this would need to be generated in MSIL code, and I know from reading that the two components to look at are CodeDom and Reflection.Emit, but I was wondering if anyone had working examples (or pointers to working examples) versus really long articles. I'm a hands-on learner, so I have to have example code to play with. Thanks!

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• ASP.NET MVC and ViewState

  - by nickyt

  Now I've seen some questions like this, but it's not exactly what I want to ask, so for all those screaming duplicate, I apologize :). I've barely touched ASP.NET MVC but from what I understand there is no ViewState/ControlState... fine. So my question is what is the alternative to retaining a control's state? Do we go back to old school ASP where we might simulate what ASP.NET ViewState/ControlState does by creating hidden form inputs with the control's state, or with MVC, do we just assume AJAX always and retain all state client-side and make AJAX calls to update? This question has some answers, http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1285547/maintaining-viewstate-in-asp-net-mvc, but not exactly what I'm looking for in an answer. UPDATE: Thanks for all the answers so far. Just to clear up what I'm not looking for and what I'm looking for: Not looking for: Session solution Cookie solution Not looking to mimic WebForms in MVC What I am/was looking for: A method that only retains the state on postback if data is not rebound to a control. Think WebForms with the scenario of only binding a grid on the initial page load, i.e. only rebinding the data when necessary. As I mentioned, I'm not trying to mimic WebForms, just wondering what mechanisms MVC offers.

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• Accurate least-squares fit algorithm needed

  - by ggkmath

  I've experimented with the two ways of implementing a least-squares fit (LSF) algorithm shown here. The first code is simply the textbook approach, as described by Wolfram's page on LSF. The second code re-arranges the equation to minimize machine errors. Both codes produce similar results for my data. I compared these results with Matlab's p=polyfit(x,y,1) function, using correlation coefficients to measure the "goodness" of fit and compare each of the 3 routines. I observed that while all 3 methods produced good results, at least for my data, Matlab's routine had the best fit (the other 2 routines had similar results to each other). Matlab's p=polyfit(x,y,1) function uses a Vandermonde matrix, V (n x 2 matrix) and QR factorization to solve the least-squares problem. In Matlab code, it looks like: V = [x1,1; x2,1; x3,1; ... xn,1] % this line is pseudo-code [Q,R] = qr(V,0); p = R\(Q'*y); % performs same as p = V\y I'm not a mathematician, so I don't understand why it would be more accurate. Although the difference is slight, in my case I need to obtain the slope from the LSF and multiply it by a large number, so any improvement in accuracy shows up in my results. For reasons I can't get into, I cannot use Matlab's routine in my work. So, I'm wondering if anyone has a more accurate equation-based approach recommendation I could use that is an improvement over the above two approaches, in terms of rounding errors/machine accuracy/etc. Any comments appreciated! thanks in advance.

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• Still about SSD potentials...write and read speed

  - by Macroideal

  HI Gurus, I have been working on SSD(solid state disk) for several months..Problems and Questions hit my head unexpectedly..Coz i am a virgin in ssd... Esp these days i was testing the write-read speed of ssd, which I was always caring.... however result turned out not good as I expected, or even worse Three kinds of read-write were implemented in my test 1. read and write directly from and into ssd, with openning ssd as a whole device. in windows: _open("\\:g", ***).. It can be very tricky and hairy that you'd write a data with size of folds of 512, at the disk position of folds of 512bytes... So, If you wanto write just a byte or 4 bytes, you'v to write at least a whole sector one time. 2. Read and write data from and into files located in SSD... 3. Read and Write data from and into files in mechanical Disk I compared the pratices below...I found ssd sucks...the ssd performs worse than mechanical disk... so i am wondering where i can get the potential performance of ssd, since ssd is said to a substitute for mechanical disk in the future.. Nevertheless, I test ssd with a pro-hard-disk tools..ssd is like twice speedier than mechanical disk. So, why? Thanx very much...If you know tips of ssd...follow me

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• Linq - how does it work??

  - by clarkeyboy

  Hey, I have just been looking into Linq with ASP.Net. It is very neat indeed. I was just wondering - how do all the classes get populated? I mean in ASP.Net, suppose you have a Linq file called Catalogue, and you then use a For loop to loop through Catalogue.Products and print each Product name. How do the details get stored? Does it just go through the Products table on page load and create another instance of class Product for each row, effectively copying an entire table into an array of class Product? If so, I think I have created a system very much like this, in the sense that there is a SiteContent module with an instance of each Manager class - for example there is UserManager, ProductManager, SettingManager and alike. UserManager contains an instance of the User class for each row in the Users table. They also contain methods such as Create, Update and Remove. These Managers and their "Items" are created on every page load. This just makes it nice and easy to access users, products, settings etc in every page as far as I, the developer, am concerned. Any any subsequent pages I need to create, I just need to reference SiteContent.UserManager to access a list of users, rather than executing a query from within that page (ie this method separates out data access from the workings of the page, in the same way as using code behind separates out the workings of the page from how the page is layed out). However the problem is that this technique seems rather slow. I mean it is effectively creating a database on every page load, taking data from another database. I have taken measures such as preventing, for example, the ProductManager from being created if it is not referenced on page load. Therefore it does not load data into storage when it is not needed. My question is basically whether my technique does the exact same thing as Linq, in the sense of duplicating data from tables into properties of classes.. Thanks in advance for any advice or answers about this. Regards, Richard Clarke

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• Automatically calling OnDetaching() for Silverlight Behaviors

  - by Dan Auclair

  I am using several Blend behaviors and triggers on a silverlight control. I am wondering if there is any mechanism for automatically detaching or ensuring that OnDetaching() is called for a behavior or trigger when the control is no longer being used (i.e. removed from the visual tree). My problem is that there is a managed memory leak with the control because of one of the behaviors. The behavior subscribes to an event on some long-lived object in the OnAttached() override and should be unsubscribing to that event in the OnDetaching() override so that it can become a candidate for garbage collection. However, OnDetaching() never seems to be getting called when I remove the control from the visual tree... the only way I can get it to happen is by explicit detaching the behavior BEFORE removing the control and then it is properly garbage collected. Right now my only solution was to create a public method in the code-behind for the control that can go through and detach any known behaviors that would cause garbage collection problems. It would be up to the client code to know to call this before removing the control from the panel. I don't really like this approach, so I am looking for some automatic way of doing this that I am overlooking or a better suggestion. public void DetachBehaviors() { foreach (var behavior in Interaction.GetBehaviors(this.LayoutRoot)) { behavior.Detach(); } //... //continue detaching all known problematic behaviors.... }

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• CSS: Horizontally scrolling image inside variable width div?

  - by neezer

  I have... <div id="tabs"> <!-- ... --> <div id="interior-photo"> <img src="..."> </div> <!-- ... --> </div> ... and ... #interior-photo { overflow-x: auto; } Basically, I have a page broken down into a main section and a fixed-width right sidebar. Within the main section, I have my tabbed div. The entire page grows with the width of the window, so when the window is resized, the tabbed div grows horizontally in size too. My problem is that the image that I'm loading inside one of the tabbed divs is generally much, much wider than the window usually is (they're panorama pictures; very lengthy horizontally, but not much vertically). I know that I can force the contents of #interior-photo to scroll horizontally using the CSS rule above, but that only seems to work when that same div has a fixed width. Since I want that div to have a variable width, it always seems to display the full width of the image, pushing my layout way out of whack. I know how to fix this using Javascript, but I was wondering if anyone has a CSS-only solution. If you need more information about my layout to solve this issue, please let me know. Thanks!

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• Transforming coordinates from an image control to the image source in WPF

  - by Gabriel

  I'm trying to learn WPF, so here's a simple question, I hope: I have a window that contains an Image element bound to a separate data object with user-configurable Stretch property <Image Name="imageCtrl" Source="{Binding MyImage}" Stretch="{Binding ImageStretch}" /> When the user moves the mouse over the image, I would like to determine the coordinates of the mouse with respect to the original image (before stretching/cropping that occurs when it is displayed in the control), and then do something with those coordinates (update the image). I know I can add an event-handler to the MouseMove event over the Image control, but I'm not sure how best to transform the coordinates: void imageCtrl_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { Point locationInControl = e.GetPosition(imageCtrl); Point locationInImage = ??? updateImage(locationInImage); } Now I know I could compare the size of Source to the ActualSize of the control, and then switch on imageCtrl.Stretch to compute the scalars and offsets on X and Y, and do the transform myself. But WPF has all the information already, and this seems like functionality that might be built-in to the WPF libraries somewhere. So I'm wondering: is there a short and sweet solution? Or do I need to write this myself? EDIT I'm appending my current, not-so-short-and-sweet solution. Its not that bad, but I'd be somewhat suprised if WPF didn't provide this functionality automatically: Point ImgControlCoordsToPixelCoords(Point locInCtrl, double imgCtrlActualWidth, double imgCtrlActualHeight) { if (ImageStretch == Stretch.None) return locInCtrl; Size renderSize = new Size(imgCtrlActualWidth, imgCtrlActualHeight); Size sourceSize = bitmap.Size; double xZoom = renderSize.Width / sourceSize.Width; double yZoom = renderSize.Height / sourceSize.Height; if (ImageStretch == Stretch.Fill) return new Point(locInCtrl.X / xZoom, locInCtrl.Y / yZoom); double zoom; if (ImageStretch == Stretch.Uniform) zoom = Math.Min(xZoom, yZoom); else // (imageCtrl.Stretch == Stretch.UniformToFill) zoom = Math.Max(xZoom, yZoom); return new Point(locInCtrl.X / zoom, locInCtrl.Y / zoom); }

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• trouble accessing non-static functions from static functions in AS3

  - by Dogmatixed

  I have a class containing, among other things, a drop down menu. With the aim of saving space, and since the contents of the menu will never change, I've made a static DataProvider for the whole class that populates each instances menu. I was hoping to populate the list with actual functions like so: tmpArr.push({label:"Details...", funct:openDetailsMenu, args:""}); and then assign tmpArr to the DataProvider. Because the DataProvider is static the function that contains that code also needs to be static, but the functions in the array are non-static. At first it didn't seem like a problem, because when the user clicks on a menu item the drop down menu can call a non-static "executeFunction(funct, args)" on its parent. However, when I try to compile, the static function setting up the DataProvider it can't find the non-static functions being passed. If the compiler would just trust me the code would work fine! The simple solution is to just pass strings and use a switch statement to call functions based on that, but that's big, ugly, inelegant, and difficult to maintain, especially if something inherits from this class. The simpler solution is to just make the DataProvider non-static, but I'm wondering if anyone else has a good way of dealing with this? Making the static function able to see its non-static brethren? Thanks.

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• iPhone User Interface Design

  - by Blaenk

  Hey guys, I've just had a nagging question for a while regarding iPhone app user interfaces. For example, consider WeightBot's User Interface. I am wondering, how are most of these user interfaces created? In general, of course. Is there a way to simply design controls (that is, the images) in a program like Photoshop, then use that 'skin' for controls in UIKit? I realize that there are some controls that are probably created by the programmer (custom controls), but I'm referring to the ready-made ones that come in UIKit. In other words, is the concept similar to 'splicing' web site designs? Where a designer draws out the design of the website in something like Photoshop, and then it is cut up into pieces which can be applied to form the actual website? I know this can be done for UIButtons, can this also be done for other controls, and is this how it is usually done? Or perhaps this is done with Core Animation? I've heard this from time to time, so does this mean that the User Interfaces are 'hard-coded'? Or is Core Animation only use for the 'effects', such as applying the glowing effect to the numbers in WeightBot? If there are any resources you can point me to I would really appreciate it. Thanks!

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• Mimic CALayer shadow properties found in iPhone OS 3.2 for OS 3.1

  - by niblha

  The CALayer shadow properties like shadowOffset, shadowRadius, shadowColor are not available in iPhone OS versions below 3.2 and I'm wondering how I could mimic that functionality for use with 3.1 and below. I want to use this to be able to add drop shadows to UIViews in a clean way so that the shadows are drawn at layer level somehow, and not by drawing it in a view's -(void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect method which requires to shrink the actual views frame to accomodate for the shadow. (This shrinking approach have been proposed in the other UIView drop shadow related questions I found here on SO). I was thinking a layered approach would be cleaner. For example I tried creating subclassing CALayer to which I added a separate shadow layer as a sublayer, but then that would be drawn on top of whatever was draw in the drawRect: method of the UIView that had the main layer as backing layer. I've also tried implementing the subclass CALayer's drawInContext: something like this, - (void)drawInContext:(CGContextRef)ctx { // code to draw shadow for a frame the size of the layer's frame [super drawInContext:ctx]; } But then the shadow is still clipped to the current clipping bounding box of the context, which seems to be the layers own frame. I also had some idea of redirecting the drawing of the main layer to a sublayer, which would be placed above another sublayer which had the shadow drawn onto it. Then I would probably get rid of the clipping and the shadow would be farthest away. But I couldn't really wrap my head around how I would do that, and it doesn't really feel like a clean approach. Any ideas on how to go about this? Just to make clear how my UIView drop shadow related question is different from the other ones I found here on SO; I do not want to shrink the actual drawing frame of a UIView to accomodate for a shadow. I want it to somehow be on a separate layer in the background, whithout beeing clipped.

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• Autocomplete or Select box? (design problem)

  - by Craig Whitley

  I'm working on a comparison website, so needless to say the search function is the primary feature of the site. I have two input text boxes and a search button. At the moment, the input text boxes use Ajax to query the database and show a drop-down box, but I'm wondering if it would be more intuitive to use a select box instead? The second box is dependant on the first, as when the first is selected theres another ajax query so only the available options for the first selection appear in the autocomplete box. Autocomplete Pros: - "Feels" right? - Looks more appealing than a select box (css design)? Cons: - the user has to be instructed on how to use the search (made to think?) - Only really works off the bat with javascript enabled. - The user may get confused if they type in what they want and no box appears (i.e., no results) Select Box Pros: - Can bring up the list of options / know whats there from the outset. - We use select boxes every day (locations etc.) so we're used to how they work. (more intuitive?) Cons: - Can look a little unaesthetic when theres too many options to choose from. I'm thinking maybe at most around 100 options for my site over time. Any thoughts on how I could go about this would be appreciated!

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• jquery jeditable pass multiple values...

  - by Scott

  Alright totally new to jeditable, Say I have some <div>'s and <input type='hidden' /> items that are generated dynamically with PHP like this: <?php while($row = $db->fetch_assoc($query)) : ?> <input name="hiddenID" type="hidden" value="<?php echo $row['id'] ?>" <div class="items"><?php echo $row['item']; ?></div> <?php endwhile; ?> Which gives me say...this: 1 //hidden value item1 2 //hidden value item2 3 //hidden value item3 And a jeditable inline-edit script to go along with it: hidden = $(".items").siblings("[name=hiddenID]").val(); //using a global var..don't know how to pass it into the editable function. $(".items").editable('save.php', { type : 'text', tooltip : 'Double-Click to edit...', onblur : 'submit', event : 'dblclick', submitdata : function() { return {id : hidden }; //how do I pass mutiple hiddenID values?? } }); I am wondering how to pass multiple values into the editable function. The way I've shown here only passes one value...the first row.

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• Nested Routes and Parameters for Rails URLs (Best Practice)

  - by viatropos

  Hey there, I have a decent understanding of RESTful urls and all the theory behind not nesting urls, but I'm still not quite sure how this looks in an enterprise application, like something like Amazon, StackOverflow, or Google... Google has urls like this: http://code.google.com/apis/ajax/ http://code.google.com/apis/maps/documentation/staticmaps/ https://www.google.com/calendar/render?tab=mc Amazon like this: http://www.amazon.com/books-used-books-textbooks/b/ref=sa_menu_bo0?ie=UTF8&node=283155&pf_rd_p=328655101&pf_rd_s=left-nav-1&pf_rd_t=101&pf_rd_i=507846&pf_rd_m=ATVPDKIKX0DER&pf_rd_r=1PK4ZKN4YWJJ9B86ANC9 http://www.amazon.com/Ruby-Programming-Language-David-Flanagan/dp/0596516177/ref=sr_1_1?ie=UTF8&s=books&qid=1258755625&sr=1-1 And StackOverflow like this: http://stackoverflow.com/users/169992/viatropos http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/html http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged?tagnames=html&sort=newest&pagesize=15 So my question is, what is best practice in terms of creating urls for systems like these? When do you start storing parameters in the url, when don't you? These big companies don't seem to be following the rules so hotly debated in the ruby community (that you should almost never nest URLs for example), so I'm wondering how you go about implementing your own urls in larger scale projects because it seems like the idea of not nesting urls breaks down at anything larger than a blog. Any tips?

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• Change namespace Prefix WCF Envelope

  - by activebiz

  I was wondering is there anyway to change the namespace prefix for the WCF SOAP request? As you can see in the example below, The Envelope has namespace "http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing" with prefix 'a'. I want to change this to 'foo'. How can I do that. Note I dont have control over service code I can only create proxy class from the WSDL . <s:Envelope xmlns:a="http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing" xmlns:s="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <s:Header> <a:Action s:mustUnderstand="1">http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport/operations/MyAction</a:Action> <h:payloadManifest xmlns="http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:h="http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport"> <manifest contentID="Content0" namespaceURI="http://www.starstandard.org/STAR/5" element="TESTMETHOD" version="5.2.4"></manifest> </h:payloadManifest> <h:Identity xmlns="urn:xxx/xxx/" xmlns:h="urn:xxx/xxx"> <SiteCode>XXXXXX</SiteCode> </h:Identity> <a:To>urn:xxx/xxx/Method1</a:To> <MessageID xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing">XXXXX</MessageID> <a:ReplyTo> <a:Address>http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing/anonymous</a:Address> </a:ReplyTo> </s:Header> Many thanks

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• Call to undefined function query() - using PDO in PHP

  - by webworm

  I have a written a script in PHP that reads from data from a MySQL database. I am new to PHP and I have been using the PDO library. I have been developing on a Windows machine using the WAMP Server 2 and all has been working well. However, when I uploaded my script to the LINUX server where it will be used I get the following error when I run my script. Fatal error: Call to undefined function query() This is the line where the error is occuring ... foreach($dbconn->query($sql) as $row) The variable $dbconn is first defined in my dblogin.php include file which I am listing below. <?php // Login info for the database $db_hostname = 'localhost'; $db_database = 'MY_DATABASE_NAME'; $db_username = 'MY_DATABASE_USER'; $db_password = 'MY_DATABASE_PASSWORD'; $dsn = 'mysql:host=' . $db_hostname . ';dbname=' . $db_database . ';'; try { $dbconn = new PDO($dsn, $db_username, $db_password); $dbconn->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); } catch (PDOException $e) { echo 'Error connecting to database: ' . $e->getMessage(); } ?> Inside the function where the error occurs I have the database connection defined as a superglobal as such ... global $dbconn; I am a bit confused as to what is happening since all worked well on my development machine. I was wondering if the PDO library was installed but from what I thought it was installed by default as part of PHP v5. The script is running on an Ubuntu (5.0.51a-3ubuntu5.4) machine and the PHP version is 5.2.4. Thank you for any suggestions. I am really lost on this.

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• dumping the source code for an anonymous function

  - by intuited

  I'm working with a lot of anonymous functions, ie functions declared as part of a dictionary, aka "methods". It's getting pretty painful to debug, because I can't tell what function the errors are happening in. Vim's backtraces look like this: Error detected while processing function NamedFunction..2111..2105: line 1: E730: using List as a String This trace shows that the error occurred in the third level down the stack, on the first line of anonymous function #2105. IE NamedFunction called anonymous function #2111, which called anonymous function #2105. NamedFunction is one declared through the normal function NamedFunction() ... endfunction syntax; the others were declared using code like function dict.func() ... endfunction. So obviously I'd like to find out which function has number 2105. Assuming that it's still in scope, it's possible to find out what Dictionary entry references it by dumping all of the dictionary variables that might contain that reference. This is sort of awkward and it's difficult to be systematic about it, though I guess I could code up a function to search through all of the loaded dictionaries for a reference to that function, watching out for circular references. Although to be really thorough, it would have to search not only script-local and global dictionaries, but buffer-local dictionaries as well; is there a way to access another buffer's local variables? Anyway I'm wondering if it's possible to dump the source code for the anonymous function instead. This would be a lot easier and probably more reliable.

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• UIWebView not loading URL

  - by jerincbus

  I'm having trouble getting a UIWebView to load a URL that I'm sending to it. Before I get into my code I was wondering if URL has to start with "http://" or can it start with "www."? I'm using an IBAction to push a UIView on to the stack: (IBAction)goToWebView { WebViewController *webController = [[WebViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"WebViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; //set the strings webController.webTitle = [self Title]; webController.webURL = [self website]; //Push the new view on the stack [[self navigationController] pushViewController:webController animated:YES]; [webController release]; webController = nil; } Then here is my WebViewController.h file: @interface WebViewController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UIWebView *webView; NSString *webTitle; NSString *webURL; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWebView *webView; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *webTitle; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *webURL; here And my WebViewController.m file: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSString *urlAddress = webURL; //Create a URL object. NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlAddress]; //URL Requst Object NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; //Load the request in the UIWebView. [webView loadRequest:requestObj]; }

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• OJB Reference Descriptor 1:0 relationship? Should I set auto-retrieve to false?

  - by godzillasdm

  Hi, I am having an issue while using Apache OJB with Spring 2 inside my web app. I'm using OJB reference-descriptor with 2 foreign key properties. I have an object A (parent) and object B (referenced object). The thing is, for an object A, there may or may not be an object B. In the case where there is no object B to go with Object A, the object B seems to be instantiated (through Spring?) anyways. However, I am unable to access object B's members. Whenever I test if Object B == null, it always returns false even though there is no matching value in the database. Since this Object is never null, I figured I can test the object's member like so: if( objectb.getDocumentNumber == null) { return false; } However, I get an exception in the jsp: javax.servlet.jsp.el.ELException: An error occurred while getting property "documentNumber" from an instance class org.sample.pojo.Objectb$$EnhancerByCGLIB$$78022a2 and this exception in the debugger when it's creating the objectB: com.sun.jdi.InvocationException occurred invoking method. I am guessing that the reference-descriptor must be a 1:1+ relationship, instead of a 1:0+ relationship. I was wondering if I should set the property 'auto-retrieve' to false, and then use the PersistenceBroker.retrieveAllReferences(Object obj); method as directed. However, this method's return value is 'void', so I am guessing that Spring somehow creates, and sets the reference class for me. (Returning me back to the same issue I'm having.) I will need a way to test whether the reference object exists first. If not, don't call this retrieveAllReferences method, but I don't see how. Am I going about this all wrong? Does reference-descriptor not allow 1:0 relations? Any work around to my problem? Your suggestions are greatly appreciated!

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