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  • Monitor programs accessing my keyboard?

    - by Anti Earth
    As of a few days ago, my computer is behaving 'erratically'. When I am typing, my pointer will randomly move to another place in the text and start typing a semi-random string of characters. ("gvyfn" is common; It has typed this about 8 times whilst I composed all the text above) It often highlights part of or all the text and overwrites it. It sometimes goes into loops of pressing Control-alt-delete down, bringing up Windows 7 menu thing. It sometimes even messes with mouseclicks; they have unexpected results, like requesting admin priveledges from applications, instead of switching to their window. I believe this is because it is holding a alt-function key down. This behaviour happens periodically, in waves. It might subside for an hour, then continue to haunt me. I believe it to be a virus or malicious program. My anti-virus (Symantec) and multiply MS rootkit removers could not find anything suspicious. I've noticed that sometimes it re-maps keys, and types gibberish when I press certain keys (though no pattern is evident). I believe a malicious program has installed a keyhook on my computer. I'm wondering... - Is there a way to let me view which programs are emulating keystrokes? - Is there a way to view what keyboard hooks are installed? (I'm also at liberty to try any other techniques to remove this blasted thing. It is easily the most fustrating computer problem I've encountered). Thanks!

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  • One Apache server, multiple clients - best practices for config files?

    - by OttaSean
    First time user; please be gentle. :-) (And if you don't like my question I'd be grateful for a comment as to why...) I am doing a contract at a government server shop that provides web services for multiple client groups in other areas of the government. My employer has asked me to look into how other shops, in similar situations, handle configuration files, and whether there are any best practices on the subject. I'm pretty sure there are lots of installations out there running multiple VirtualHosts out of one Apache installation, but surprisingly I couldn't find anything online about how people handle config file layout, so was hoping some of you wise folks on ServerFault might have some thoughts or pointers for me. The current setup - which seems logical to me - is that each client site has its own directory off the root - so: /client/tps-reports/ /client/silly-walks/ /client/ministry-of-magic/ and so on - and each of those directories has a /htdocs, /cgi-bin, and /conf (among others). The main /etc/apache/httpd.conf only contains Include statements (and lots of comments), the last of which is: Include /etc/apache/vhosts/*.conf The vhosts directory contains symlinks: tpsrept.conf - /client/tps-reports/conf/tpsrept.conf sillywk.conf - /client/silly-walks/conf/sillywk.conf mom.conf - /client/ministry-of-magic/mom.conf Each of those .conf files contains the actual NameVirtualHost definition and a gigantic <VirtualHost 192.168.12.34> stanza - which contains all the stuff about the specific site. The idea is that clients have access to what's in their own /client/xx directory, so they can change stuff in the section of the config that is relevant to them. As I mentioned above, that seems fairly logical to me, but I'm wondering if any of you wise folks are aware of potential gotchas with this sort of layout, or any other thoughts on why it is or isn't a good idea. In particular, how do other places do it? Is there a "best practice" for this sort of thing? Many thanks in advance for your time and any thoughts you all might have.

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  • How to format my external HDD back to as "removable storage"?

    - by user990106
    Recently I formated my Seagate FreeAgent GoFlex external HDD in Mac OS X using GUID partition table since I wanted to install another Mac OS X onto that external HDD. However I changed my mind after my external HDD being formatted. Now I want to format my external HDD back to NTFS so that I can use it with my Windows 7. However, after I connected my external HDD via USB it didn't show up in my "computer" so I used "Disk Management" to check what's wrong with it. In the "Disk Management" I saw that there was one partition of my external HDD called "EFI partition" and I found that I could not delete this partition in the "Disk Management". So I tried to use "diskpart" in cmd and select the external HDD and commanded "clean". Then the EFI partition was gone and I created new volumn on that external HDD. However, after the volumn being created my external HDD did show up in my "computer" but it is in the "Hard Disk Drive" not in the "Devices with Removable Storage" as it used to be. I'm wondering if I can do anything to it to make it recognized as a "Devices with Removable Storage"?

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  • How to turn a DSL wireless modem to a wifi hub

    - by my_question
    I used to use DSL for my home internet and used Qwest Q1000 wireless modem. Now I switched to cable and use wireless router to cover the home. One problem is I just bought a desktop and I like to put it in a place far away from the router. The desktop only has cable interface, it does not receive wifi. The obvious solution is I go buy that little USB dongle which can receive wifi and plug it to the desktop. But before doig that, I am wondering if somehow I can re-use the Q1000 modem. The modem has 4 LAN ports and it has wifi antenna. I tried connecting the desktop to Q1000's LAN port, the system shows wire connection is in place, but I cannot access internet. It seems to me Q1000's wifi function is to broadcast the wifi signal out instead of receiving signal. I went to the Q1000 configuration page by going to web page of "192.168.0.1", it is not clear how to set it up. I also wonder one thing, my home wifi is encrypted, so if I want to let Q1000 to join the wifi, I need to somehow type in the password, I am not sure how to do that either. Anyway, maybe this thing cannot be used in this fashion. If you have any suggestion, please shed some light. Thanks.

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  • where are the default ulimit values set? (linux, centos)

    - by nomercysir
    I have two CentOS (5) servers with nearly identical specs. When I login and do: ulimit -u on one machine, I get unlimited and on the other, 77824 When I run a cron like * * * * * ulimit -u > ulimit.txt I get the same results (unlimited, 77824). I am trying to determine where these are set so that I can alter them. They are not set in any of my profiles (.bashrc, /etc/profile, etc .. these wouldn't affect cron anyway) nor in /etc/security/limits.conf (which is empty). I have scoured google and even gone so far as to do grep -Ir 77824 / but nothing has turned up so far. I don't understand how these machines could have come preset with different limits. I am actually wondering not for these machines, but for a different (CentOS 6) machine which has a limit of 1024, which is far too small. I need to run cron jobs with a higher limit and the only way I know how to set that is in the cron job itself. That's ok, but I'd rather set it system wide so it's not as hacky. Thanks for any help. This seems like it should be easy (NOT) EDIT -- SOLVED Ok, I figured this out. It seems to be an issue either with CentOS 6 or perhaps my machine configuration. On the CentOS 5 configuration, I can set in /etc/security/limits.conf: * - nproc unlimited and that would effectively update the accounts and cron limits. However, this does not work in my CentOS 6 box. Instead, I must do: myname1 - nproc unlimited myname2 - nproc unlimited ... And things work as expected. Maybe the UID specification works to, but the wildcard (*) definitely DOES NOT here. Oddly, wildcards DO work for the 'nofile' limit. I still would love to know where the default values are actually coming from, because by default, this file is empty and I couldn't see why I had different defaults for the two CentOS boxes, which had identical hardware and were from the same provider.

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  • Would a USB hub work in reverse?

    - by Tim
    Imagine for a moment with a 4 port USB hub. Normally how this would work is the hub has one plug that goes to the computer, then 4 ports that you can plug in other things to (thumb drive, keyboard, mouse etc). I am wondering if I can use it in reverse. So I would have 1 keyboard going in to the hub, and then plug in male to male usb cables from the 4 ports to 4 different PCs, my aim is that when a key is pressed on the keyboard all 4 PCs will receive it as if the keyboard were plugged in to them. Does anyone know if this would work? And if not does anyone have any ideas how I could get the same effect? EDIT: So I am looking for more of a KVM switch type device rather than a USB hub. However all of the KVM switches I've found use some sort of mechanism to select which computer you'll be using. (some are physical switches / buttons, others do it via software "automatically" some how) However I need to have 1 keyboard hooked up to 2 computers and when I press a key on the keyboard I want the keypress to be sent to both computers simultaneously, not to one or the other. Does anyone know if KVMs with this feature exist?

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  • WPF / C#: Transforming coordinates from an image control to the image source

    - by Gabriel
    I'm trying to learn WPF, so here's a simple question, I hope: I have a window that contains an Image element bound to a separate data object with user-configurable Stretch property <Image Name="imageCtrl" Source="{Binding MyImage}" Stretch="{Binding ImageStretch}" /> When the user moves the mouse over the image, I would like to determine the coordinates of the mouse with respect to the original image (before stretching/cropping that occurs when it is displayed in the control), and then do something with those coordinates (update the image). I know I can add an event-handler to the MouseMove event over the Image control, but I'm not sure how best to transform the coordinates: void imageCtrl_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { Point locationInControl = e.GetPosition(imageCtrl); Point locationInImage = ??? updateImage(locationInImage); } Now I know I could compare the size of Source to the ActualSize of the control, and then switch on imageCtrl.Stretch to compute the scalars and offsets on X and Y, and do the transform myself. But WPF has all the information already, and this seems like functionality that might be built-in to the WPF libraries somewhere. So I'm wondering: is there a short and sweet solution? Or do I need to write this myself? EDIT I'm appending my current, not-so-short-and-sweet solution. Its not that bad, but I'd be somewhat suprised if WPF didn't provide this functionality automatically: Point ImgControlCoordsToPixelCoords(Point locInCtrl, double imgCtrlActualWidth, double imgCtrlActualHeight) { if (ImageStretch == Stretch.None) return locInCtrl; Size renderSize = new Size(imgCtrlActualWidth, imgCtrlActualHeight); Size sourceSize = bitmap.Size; double xZoom = renderSize.Width / sourceSize.Width; double yZoom = renderSize.Height / sourceSize.Height; if (ImageStretch == Stretch.Fill) return new Point(locInCtrl.X / xZoom, locInCtrl.Y / yZoom); double zoom; if (ImageStretch == Stretch.Uniform) zoom = Math.Min(xZoom, yZoom); else // (imageCtrl.Stretch == Stretch.UniformToFill) zoom = Math.Max(xZoom, yZoom); return new Point(locInCtrl.X / zoom, locInCtrl.Y / zoom); }

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  • faster implementation of sum ( for Codility test )

    - by Oscar Reyes
    How can the following simple implementation of sum be faster? private long sum( int [] a, int begin, int end ) { if( a == null ) { return 0; } long r = 0; for( int i = begin ; i < end ; i++ ) { r+= a[i]; } return r; } EDIT Background is in order. Reading latest entry on coding horror, I came to this site: http://codility.com which has this interesting programming test. Anyway, I got 60 out of 100 in my submission, and basically ( I think ) is because this implementation of sum, because those parts where I failed are the performance parts. I'm getting TIME_OUT_ERROR's So, I was wondering if an optimization in the algorithm is possible. So, no built in functions or assembly would be allowed. This my be done in C, C++, C#, Java or pretty much in any other. EDIT As usual, mmyers was right. I did profile the code and I saw most of the time was spent on that function, but I didn't understand why. So what I did was to throw away my implementation and start with a new one. This time I've got an optimal solution [ according to San Jacinto O(n) -see comments to MSN below - ] This time I've got 81% on Codility which I think is good enough. The problem is that I didn't take the 30 mins. but around 2 hrs. but I guess that leaves me still as a good programmer, for I could work on the problem until I found an optimal solution: Here's my result. I never understood what is those "combinations of..." nor how to test "extreme_first"

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  • Any alternative to hide querystring from Html.actionlink on ASP.NET MVC Page?

    - by Madhavi
    Hi I have a page called SearchDcouments.aspx that displays all the matching documents as Hyperlinks in the table format as below. When the User clicks on any particular document, the sample url will be: http://localhost:52483/Home/ShowDocument?docID=280 So that the DocumentID is passed as Querystring to the ControllerMethod ShowDocument and the ID is visible in the URL. Now for Security purposes, I want to hide this way of passing the Querystring parameters. Wondering what are the alternatives to hide the DocID from the URL? Appreciate your responses. Thanks Code in the View: <tbody> <% foreach (var item in Model){ %> <tr> <% string actionTitle = item.DocumentType.ToLower() == "letter" ? "Request References" : "Request Slides"; %> <td> <%= Html.ActionLink(actionTitle, MVC.Home.ShowDocument(item.DocumentID))%> </td> </tr> <% } %> </tbody> Code in the Controller: [Authorize] [HttpGet] public virtual ActionResult ShowDocument(int docID) { Document document = miEntity.GetDocumentByID(docID); switch (document.DocType.ToLower()) { case "slide": SlideRequestViewModel slide = new SlideRequestViewModel(docID); return View(MVC.Home.Views.ShowSlideRequest, slide); case "letter": RefRequestViewModel rrq = new RefRequestViewModel(docID); return DoShowRefRequest(rrq); default: break; } // Here - let's get back home return RedirectToAction(MVC.Home.Default()); }

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  • HttpWebRequest sessionID c# login

    - by warne
    Im trying to login to a website (www.vodafone.ie) with a console app and c# httpWebRequest. Problem is it works ok about 50% of the time. Im using fiddler to find out the GET and POST requests I need to make. Done that and my app is successfully recreating these as best as I can see. The steps are; 1) GET request with cookie container to login uri. server response sets new cookie called jsessionID 2) do POST request with login credentials and same cookie container containing previous jsessionID. Looking at the fiddler logs for successful POST request login (browser or my app) I see it sets a thing in the response header : "Set-cookie: supercookie=-; Expires=Thu, 01-Jan-1970 00:00:10 GMT; Path=". What is this supercookie thing? Its not returned to me in the response cookie collection like the jsessionID. On rare occasions, there is along string of numbers with the supercookie instead of just "-". I made sure to clear all cookies before analyzing the request/response headers. If the super cookie thing is not being set in the reponse my login fails. So just wondering what's going on here? cheers!

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  • Conditionally add htmlAttributes to ASP.NET MVC Html.ActionLink

    - by macca1
    I'm wondering if it's possible to conditionally add a parameter in a call to a method. For example, I am rendering a bunch of links (six total) for navigation in my Site.Master: <%= Html.ActionLink("About", "About", "Pages") %> | <%= Html.ActionLink("Contact", "Contact", "Pages") %> <%-- etc, etc. --%> I'd like to include a CSS class of "selected" for the link if it's on that page. So in my controller I'm returning this: ViewData.Add("CurrentPage", "About"); return View(); And then in the view I have an htmlAttributes dictionary: <% Dictionary<string,object> htmlAttributes = new Dictionary<string,object>(); htmlAttributes.Add("class","selected");%> Now my only question is how do I include the htmlAttributes for the proper ActionLink. I could do it this way for each link: <% htmlAttributes.Clear(); if (ViewData["CurrentPage"] == "Contact") htmlAttributes.Add("class","selected");%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Contact", "Contact", "Pages", htmlAttributes) %> But that seems a little repetitive. Is there some way to do something like this psuedo code: <%= Html.ActionLink("Contact", "Contact", "Pages", if(ViewData["CurrentPage"] == "Contact") { htmlAttributes }) %> That's obviously not valid syntax, but is there a correct way to do that? I'm open to any totally different suggestions for rendering these links. I'd like to stay with something like ActionLink that takes advantage of using my routes though instead of hard coding the tag.

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  • Getting warning about sensitive information that could be disclosed to 3rd parties - Asp.net MVC 2.0

    - by chobo2
    Hi I never gotten this message before I started to use asp.net mvc 2.0 and jquery 1.4. <title>This request has been blocked because sensitive information could be disclosed to third party web sites when this is used in a GET request. To allow GET requests, set JsonRequestBehavior to AllowGet.</title> <span><H1>Server Error in '/' Application.<hr width=100% size=1 color=silver></H1> <h2> <i>This request has been blocked because sensitive information could be disclosed to third party web sites when this is used in a GET request. To allow GET requests, set JsonRequestBehavior to AllowGet.</i> </h2></span> <font face="Arial, Helvetica, Geneva, SunSans-Regular, sans-serif "> <b> Description: </b>An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. <br><br> <b> Exception Details: </b>System.InvalidOperationException: This request has been blocked because sensitive information could be disclosed to third party web sites when this is used in a GET request. To allow GET requests, set JsonRequestBehavior to AllowGet.<br><br> So it makes me wondering what sensitive data could be disclosed and if so how to get around this? What I was trying to send back was a rendered string of a partial view(http://www.klopfenstein.net/lorenz.aspx/render-partial-view-to-string-in-asp-net-mvc) and a success msg.

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  • iPhone: How to Display Text from UIWebView HTML Document in a UITextView

    - by ArgMan
    I have an RSS feed that gets arranged in a UITableView which lets the user select a story that loads in a UIWebView. However, I'd like to stop using the UIWebView and just use a UITextView or UILabel. This png is what I am trying to do (just display the various text aspects of a news story): I have tried using: NSString *myText = [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:@"document.documentElement.textContent"]; and assigning the string to a UILabel but it doesn't work from where I am implementing it in webViewDidFinishLoad (--is that not the proper place?). I get a blank textView and normal webView. If I overlay a UITextView on top of a UIWebView on its own (that is, a webView that just loads one page), the code posted above works displays the text fine. The problem arises when I try to process the RSS feed . I've been stuck wondering why this doesn't work as it should for a few days now. If you have a better, more efficient way of doing it then placing the code in webViewDidFinishLoad, please let me know! Does it go in my didSelectRowAtIndexPath? Thank you very much in advance!

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  • Interpret Objective C scripts at runtime on iPhone?

    - by Brad Parks
    Is there anyway to load an objective c script at runtime, and run it against the classes/methods/objects/functions in the current iPhone app? The reason i ask is that I've been playing around with iPhone wax, a lua interpreter that can be embedded in an iPhone app, and it works very nicely, in the sense that any object/method/function that's publically available in your Objective C code is automatically bridged, and available in lua. This allows you to rapidly prototype applications by simply making the core of your app be lua files that are in the users documents directory. Just reload the app, and you can test out changes to your lua files without needing to rebuild the app in XCode - a big time saver! But, with Apples recent 3.1.3 SDK stuff, it got me thinking that the safest approach for doing this type of rapid prototypeing would be if you could use Objective C as the interpreted code... That way, worst case scenario, you could just compile it into your app before your release, instead. I have heard that the lua source can be compiled to byte code, and linked in at build time, but I think the ultimate safe thing would be if the scripted source was in objective c, not lua. This leads me to wondering (i've searched, but come up with nothing) if there are any examples on how to embed an Objective C Interpreter in an iPhone app? This would allow you to rapidly prototype your app against the current classes that are built into your binary, and, when your about to deploy your app, instead of running the classes through the in app interpreter, you compile them in instead.

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  • Unable to load UIView with initWithNibName in Apple SDK 3.1.3

    - by James Foster
    I am trying to load my UIViewController and corresponding UIView programmatically in the AppDelegate class. I have the following in the applicationDidFinishLaunchingMethod of the AppDelegate class: (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { NSLog(@"--- AppDelegate applicationDidFinishLaunching Start"); // Override point for customization after application launch //MainController *controller = [[MainController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; MainController2 *controller = [[MainController2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView2" bundle:nil]; if (controller.view == nil) { NSLog(@"--- controller view is nil!!!!!!"); } [window addSubview:controller.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; NSLog(@"--- AppDelegate applicationDidFinishLaunching End"); } Basically the view in the viewController doesn't load and when the application launches, it just shows the blank window. What is funny is that it worked before and then just stopped working. I am wondering if this is a bug in iPhone SDK 3.1.3??? This is a really annoying issue, and I was quite a ways along in a new project when I started having this problem and had to start over with a blank project and copy over all of my resources, when it started happening again... I have uninstalled iPhone OS 3.1.3 and reinstalled and the problem prevails... I also created a second UIViewController class and corresponding nib which DOES LOAD just fine... I am not sure why one works and the other doesn't it... You can download a sample project which demonstrates this issue at the following link: http://www.mediafire.com/?nmhnmhbeyki To switch back and forth between the working/nonworking UIViewController and UIView simply comment comment/comment out the initWithNibLine lines in the AppDelegate and the corresponding #import "MainController.h" statements in the appdelegate.h file... Any ideas??? The sample project I have linked to isolates the problem in as few files/lines of code as possible... I appreciate any help you might be able to provide. Thanks, James

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  • Testing movie with Flash IDE fails to load file from localhost

    - by davgothic
    Hi, I'm just wondering if anybody can help me with my simple but frustrating problem. I have created an SWF that loads an XML file from http://localhost/flash/Projects/MEL/Quiz/Quiz/bin/xml/quiz.xml, but I get this error when running the movie using Test Movie in the Flash IDE. Error #2044: Unhandled ioError:. text=Error #2032: Stream Error. URL: http://localhost/flash/Projects/MEL/Quiz/Quiz/bin/xml/quiz.xml at Main/loadConfig()[D:\www\webroot\flash\Projects\MEL\Quiz\Quiz\src\Main.as:126] at Main/configLoadError()[D:\www\webroot\flash\Projects\MEL\Quiz\Quiz\src\Main.as:143] at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at flash.net::URLLoader/onComplete() The error I get if I handle the exception is: [IOErrorEvent type="ioError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2 text="Error #2032: Stream Error. URL: http://localhost/flash/Projects/MEL/Quiz/Quiz/bin/xml/quiz.xml"] Trouble is running the SWF in a browser locally does work, it only throws these errors in the Flash IDE. I have tried a adding wildcard crossdomain.xml file in my root web directory and setting the SWF publish properties for local playback security to Allow network only, but neither of these have solved my problem. I know Windows 7 handles localhost name resolution differently compared to previous versions of Windows but I have even added 127.0.0.1 localhost to my hosts file to no avail. Can anyone shed any light on this issue?

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  • How to get only one rounded corner with border-radius htc hack and MSIE v:roundrect?

    - by aarreoskari
    I have a problem with partially rounded corners. See the first working example for most browsers: .box { display: block; width: 100px; height: 100px; border: 1px solid black; background-color: yellow; -moz-border-radius-bottomright: 10px; -webkit-border-bottom-right-radius: 10px; } You can see that only bottom right corner should be rounded. Natural choice would be adding a border-radius.htc hack inside a conditional IE statement: .box { border-bottom-right-radius: 20px; behavior:url(border-radius.htc); } This is not working because border-radius.htc file is only accessing normal border-radius value (this.currentStyle['border-radius']). VML used by the hack is roundrect which only supports one percentage value for arcsize. So I was wondering if there is any other way around the problem by using some other VML elements? Another problem is that htc-file doesnt's support borders but that can be fixed with VML's stroked attribute. Nifty corners for example doesn't work well with corners at all.

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  • How to change theme for AlertDialog.

    - by Min Soo Kim
    Hello everyone, I was wondering if someone could help me out. I am trying to create a custom AlertDialog. In order to do this, I added the following line of code in styles.xml @drawable/color_panel_background color_panel_background.9.png is located in drawable folder. This is also available in Android SDK res folder. The following is the main activity. package com.customdialog; import android.app.Activity; import android.app.AlertDialog; import android.app.Dialog; import android.content.DialogInterface; import android.os.Bundle; public class CustomDialog extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); this.setTheme(R.style.CustomAlertDialog); AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setMessage("HELLO!"); builder .setCancelable(false) .setPositiveButton("Yes", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { //MyActivity.this.finish(); } }) .setNegativeButton("No", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { //dialog.cancel(); } }); AlertDialog alertdialog = builder.create(); alertdialog.show(); } } In order to apply the theme to an AlertDialog, I had to set the theme to the current context. However, I just can't seem to get the app to show customized AlertDialog. Can anyone help me out with this, and thank you very much in advance!

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  • MVC2 client/server validation of DateTime/Date using DataAnnotations

    - by Thomas
    The following are true: One of my columns (BirthDate) is of type Date in SQL Server. This very same column (BirthDate) is of type DateTime when EF generates the model. I am using JQuery UI Datepicker on the client side to be able to select the BirthDate. I have the following validation logic in my buddy class: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(Project.Web.ValidationMessages), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Required")] [RegularExpression(@"\b(0?[1-9]|1[012])[/](0?[1-9]|[12][0-9]|3[01])[/](19|20)?[0-9]{2}\b", ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(Project.Web.ValidationMessages), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Invalid")] public virtual DateTime? BirthDate { get; set; } There are two issues with this: This will not pass server side validation (if I enable client side validation it works just fine). I am assuming that this is because the regular expression doesn't take into account hours, minutes, seconds as the value in the text box has already been cast as a DateTime on the server by the time validation occurs. If data already exists in the database and is read into the model and displayed on the page the BirthDate field shows hours, minutes, seconds in my text box (which I don't want). I can always use ToShortDateString() but I am wondering if there is some cleaner approach that I might be missing. Thanks

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  • What is best practice as far as using perl-isms (idiomatic expressions) in Perl?

    - by DVK
    A couple of years back I participated in writing the best practices/coding style for our (fairly large and often Perl-using) company. It was done by a committee of "senior" Perl developers. As anything done by consensus, it had parts which everyone disagreed with. Duh. The part that rubbed wrong the most was a strong recommendation to NOT use many Perlisms (loosely defined as code idioms not present in, say C++ or Java), such as "Avoid using '... unless X;' constructs". The main rationale posited for such rules as this one was that non-Perl developers would have much harder time with the Perl code base otherwise. The assumption here I guess is that Perl code jockeys are rarer breed overall - and among new hires to the company - than non-Perlers. I was wondering whether SO has any good arguments to support or reject this logic... it is mostly academic curiosity at this point as the company's Perl coding standard is ossified and will never be revised again as far as I'm aware. P.S. Just to be clear, the question is in the context I noted - the answer for an all-Perl smaller development shop is obviously a resounding "use Perl to its maximum capability".

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  • DynamicObject and WCF support

    - by rboarman
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone has had any luck getting a DynamicObject to serialize and work with WCF? Here’s my little test: [DataContract] class MyDynamicObject : DynamicObject { [DataMember] private Dictionary<string, object> _attributes = new Dictionary<string, object>(); public override bool TryGetMember(GetMemberBinder binder, out object result) { string key = binder.Name; result = null; if (_attributes.ContainsKey(key)) result = _attributes[key]; return true; } public override bool TrySetMember(SetMemberBinder binder, object value) { _attributes.Add(binder.Name, value); return true; } } var dy = new MyDynamicObject(); var ser = new DataContractSerializer(typeof(MyDynamicObject)); var mem = new MemoryStream(); ser.WriteObject(mem, dy); The error I get is: System.Runtime.Serialization.InvalidDataContractException was unhandled Message=Type 'ElasticTest1.MyDynamicObject' cannot inherit from a type that is not marked with DataContractAttribute or SerializableAttribute. Consider marking the base type 'System.Dynamic.DynamicObject' with DataContractAttribute or SerializableAttribute, or removing them from the derived type. Any suggestions? Thanks, Rick

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Html.DropDownList - Value not set via ViewData.Model

    - by chrisb
    Have just started playing with ASP.NET MVC and have stumbled over the following situation. It feels a lot like a bug but if its not, an explanation would be appreciated :) The View contains pretty basic stuff <%=Html.DropDownList("MyList", ViewData["MyListItems"] as SelectList)%> <%=Html.TextBox("MyTextBox")%> When not using a model, the value and selected item are set as expected: //works fine public ActionResult MyAction(){ ViewData["MyListItems"] = new SelectList(items, "Value", "Text"); //items is an ienumerable of {Value="XXX", Text="YYY"} ViewData["MyList"] = "XXX"; //set the selected item to be the one with value 'XXX' ViewData["MyTextBox"] = "ABC"; //sets textbox value to 'ABC' return View(); } But when trying to load via a model, the textbox has the value set as expected, but the dropdown doesnt get a selected item set. //doesnt work public ActionResult MyAction(){ ViewData["MyListItems"] = new SelectList(items, "Value", "Text"); //items is an ienumerable of {Value="XXX", Text="YYY"} var model = new { MyList = "XXX", //set the selected item to be the one with value 'XXX' MyTextBox = "ABC" //sets textbox value to 'ABC' } return View(model); } Any ideas? My current thoughts on it are that perhaps when using a model, we're restricted to setting the selected item on the SelectList constructor instead of using the viewdata (which works fine) and passing the selectlist in with the model - which would have the benefit of cleaning the code up a little - I'm just wondering why this method doesnt work.... Many thanks for any suggestions

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  • VSTO Development - Key Improvements In VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

    - by dferraro
    Hi all, I am trying to make a case to my bosses on why we should use VS2010 for an upcoming Excel Workbook VSTO application. I haven't used VSTO before but have used VBA. With 2010 just around the corner, I wanted to read about the improvements made to see if it was worth using 2010 to develop this application. So far I have read 2 major improvements are ease of deployments and also debugging / com interop improvements ... I was just wondering if there was anything else I wasn't aware of, or if anyone here is actually developing in VSTO and has used 2010 and both 2008 and could help make a case / arm me with information. The main concern of my bosses is deploying .NET 4.0 runtime on the Citrix servers here... however it seems that with 3.5, we would have to deploy the VSTO runtime and PIA's, etc... So really wouldn't deployments be easier with 2010 because installing just the 4.0 runtime is better than having to install the 'VSTO Runtime' as well as PIA's, etc? Or is there something I'm missing here? Anyone here deploy VSTO app in an enterprise and can speak to this? Also - I'm trying to also fight to use C# over VB.NET for this app. Does anyone know any key reasons why (except for my bias on preference of syntax) it would be better to use C# over VB for this? Any key features lacking in VB VSTO development? I've read about the VSTO Power Tools, and one of them describes LINQ enalbment of the Excel Object Model classes - however it says 'a set of C# classes'... Does anyone know if they literally mean C# - so this would not work with VB.NET, or do they just mean the code is written in C#? Anyone ever used these power tools with VB? I am going to download & play with it now, but any help again is greatly appreciated Thanks very much for any information.

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  • Add file using SharpSVN

    - by jan
    Hi, I would like to add all unversioned files under a directory to SVN using SharpSVN. I tried regular svn commands on the command line first: C:\temp\CheckoutDir> svn status -v I see all subdirs, all the files that are already checked in, a few new files labeled "?", nothing with the "L" lock indication C:\temp\CheckoutDir> svn add . --force This results in all new files in the subdirs ,that are already under version control themselves, to be added. I'd like to do the same using SharpSVN. I copy a few extra files into the same directory and run this code: ... using ( SharpSvn.SvnClient svn = new SvnClient() ) { SvnAddArgs saa = new SvnAddArgs(); saa.Force = true; saa.Depth = SvnDepth.Infinity; try { svn.Add(@"C:\temp\CheckoutDir\." , saa); } catch (SvnException exc) { Log(@"SVN Exception: " + exc.Message + " - " + exc.File); } } But an SvnException is raised: SvnException.Message: Working copy 'C:\temp\CheckoutDir' locked SvnException.File: ..\..\..\subversion\libsvn_wc\lock.c" No other svnclient instance is running in my code, I also tried calling svn.cleanup() right before the Add, but to no avail. Since the documentation is rather vague ;), I was wondering if anyone here knew the answer. Thanks in advance! Jan

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  • Socket error 10052 on UDP socket

    - by Jesper
    We have a .NET 2.0 desktop application which sends and receives network packets over UDP. Several users have reported an occasional socket error 10052 which happens when the code calls socket.BeginReceiveFrom on a the UDP socket. What does this mean? The official MS documentation for socket error 10052 says - quote: "WSAENETRESET (10052) Network dropped connection on reset . The connection has been broken due to keep-alive activity detecting a failure while the operation was in progress. It can also be returned by setsockopt if an attempt is made to set SO_KEEPALIVE on a connection that has already failed." This just doesn't make much sense for a UDP socket since UDP is a connectionless protocol. I know that another close error code 10054 in connection with UDP sockets means that an ICMP message "Port Unreachable" was received, and I am wondering if 10052 might map to another ICMP message? I have googled this for months, read network books, etc. but can't find anything. Please help - what does socket error 10052 on a UDP socket mean? Thanks in advance

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