Search Results

Search found 35892 results on 1436 pages for 'a different ben'.

Page 422/1436 | < Previous Page | 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429  | Next Page >

• How to modify/replace option set file when building from command line?

  - by Heinrich Ulbricht

  I build packages from a batch file using commands like: msbuild ..\lib\Package.dproj /target:Build /p:config=%1 The packages' settings are dependent on an option set: <Import Project="..\optionsets\COND_Defined.optset" Condition="'$(Base)'!='' And Exists('..\optionsets\COND_Defined.optset')"/> This option set defines a conditional symbol many of my packages depend on. The file looks like this: <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <PropertyGroup> <DCC_Define>CONDITION;$(DCC_Define)</DCC_Define> </PropertyGroup> <ProjectExtensions> <Borland.Personality>Delphi.Personality.12</Borland.Personality> <Borland.ProjectType>OptionSet</Borland.ProjectType> <BorlandProject> <Delphi.Personality/> </BorlandProject> <ProjectFileVersion>12</ProjectFileVersion> </ProjectExtensions> </Project> Now I need two builds: one with the condition defined and one without. My attack vector would be the option set file. I have some ideas on what to do: write a program which modifies the option set file, run this before batch build fiddle with the project files and modify the option set path to contain an environment variable, then have different option sets in different locations But before starting to reinvent the wheel I'd like to ask how you would tackle this task? Maybe there are already means meant to support such a case (like certain command line switches, things I could configure in Delphi or batch file magic).

  Read the article

• Running a GWT application (including Applets) inside an IFRAME from an ASP.NET 3.5 app?

  - by Jay Stevens

  We are looking at integrating a full-blown GWT (Google Web Toolkit 2.0) application with an existing ASP.NET 3.5 application. My first gut reaction is that this is a horrible frankenstein idea. However, the customer has insisted that we use this application developed by a third-party. I have almost NO CONTROL over the development of the GWT app. My first thought is to actually attempt to embed this in an iFrame. Because GWT is running under Tomcat/Jakarta, it is hosted on a different server from the .NET app so the iFrame src will be to a URL on the other machine. I need to utilize our own ASP.NET authorization scheme to restrict access to the embedded GWT application. The GWT app also uses embedded java applets, which don't seem to be working right now inside the iframe. The GWT app makes calls to a backend server (using GWT-RPC?). Any major problems with this approach that anyone can see? Will GWT work on an iframe while hosted on a different machine? NOTE: SIMPLY ADDING A DIV WITH THE SAME NAME DOES NOT WORK FOR THIS!

  Read the article

• Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

  - by Hamman359

  Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

  Read the article

• is mysql index useful on column 'state' when only doing bit-operations on the column?

  - by Geert-Jan

  I have a lot of domain entities (stored in mysql) which undergo lots of different operations. Each operation is executed from a different program. I need to keep (flow)-state for these entities which I implemented in as a long field 'flowstate' used as a bitset. to query mysql for entities which have undergone a certain operation I do something like: select * from entities where state >> 7 & 1 = 1 Indicating bit 7 (cooresponding to operation 7) has run. (<-- simplified) Anyway, I really didn't pay attention to the performance implications of this setup in the beginning, and I think I'm in a bit of trouble since queries as the above run pretty slow. What I'd like to know: Does an mysql index on 'flowstate' help at all? After all it's not a single value Mysql can quickly find using a binary sort or whatever. If it doesn't, are there any other things I could do to speed things up? . Are there special 'mask-indices' for fields with use-cases as the above? TIA, Geert-jan

  Read the article

• Is there a more efficient way to run enum values through a switch-case statement in C# than this?

  - by C Patton

  I was wondering if there was a more efficient (efficient as in simpler/cleaner code) way of making a case statement like the one below... I have a dictionary. Its key type is an Enum and its value type is a bool. If the boolean is true, I want to change the color of a label on a form. The variable names were changed for the example. Dictionary<String, CustomType> testDict = new Dictionary<String, CustomType>(); //populate testDict here... Dictionary<MyEnum, bool> enumInfo = testDict[someString].GetEnumInfo(); //GetEnumInfo is a function that iterates through a Dictionary<String, CustomType> //and returns a Dictionary<MyEnum, bool> foreach (KeyValuePair<MyEnum, bool> kvp in enumInfo) { switch (kvp.Key) { case MyEnum.Enum1: if (someDictionary[kvp.Key] == true) { Label1.ForeColor = Color.LimeGreen; } else { Label1.ForeColor = Color.Red; } break; case MyEnum.Enum2: if (someDictionary[kvp.Key] == true) { Label2.ForeColor = Color.LimeGreen; } else { Label2.ForeColor = Color.Red; } break; } } So far, MyEnum has 8 different values.. which means I have 8 different case statements.. I know there must be an easier way to do this, I just can't conceptualize it in my head. If anyone could help, I'd greatly appreciate it. I love C# and I learn new things every day.. I absorb it like a sponge :) -CP

  Read the article

• How to remove a status message added by the seam security module?

  - by Joshua

  I would like to show a different status message, when a suspended user tries to login. If the user is active we return true from the authenticate method, if not we add a custom StatusMessage message mentioning that the "User X has been suspended". The underlying Identity authentication also fails and adds a StatusMessage. I tried removing the seam generated statusMessage with the following methods, but it doesn't seem to work and shows me 2 different status messages (my custom message, seam generated). What would be the issue here? StatusMessages statusMessages; statusMessages.clear() statusMessages.clearGlobalMessages() statusMessages.clearKeyedMessages(id) EDIT1: public boolean authenticate() { log.info("Authenticating {0}", identity.getCredentials().getUsername()); String username = identity.getCredentials().getUsername(); String password = identity.getCredentials().getPassword(); // return true if the authentication was // successful, false otherwise try { Query query = entityManager.createNamedQuery("user.by.login.id"); query.setParameter("loginId", username); // only active users can log in query.setParameter("status", "ACTIVE"); currentUser = (User)query.getSingleResult(); } catch (PersistenceException ignore) { // Provide a status message for the locked account statusMessages.clearGlobalMessages(); statusMessages.addFromResourceBundle( "login.account.locked", new Object[] { username }); return false; } IdentityManager identityManager = IdentityManager.instance(); if (!identityManager.authenticate(username, "password")) { return false; } else { log.info("Authenticated user {0} successfully", username); } }

  Read the article

• Modeling a Generic Relationship (expressed in C#) in a Database

  - by StevenH

  This is most likely one for all you sexy DBAs out there: How would I effieciently model a relational database whereby I have a field in an "Event" table which defines a "SportType"? This "SportsType" field can hold a link to different sports tables E.g. "FootballEvent", "RubgyEvent", "CricketEvent" and "F1 Event". Each of these Sports tables have different fields specific to that sport. My goal is to be able to genericly add sports types in the future as required, yet hold sport specific event data (fields) as part of my Event Entity. Is it possible to use an ORM such as NHibernate / Entity framework / DataObjects.NET which would reflect such a relationship? I have thrown together a quick C# example to express my intent at a higher level: public class Event<T> where T : new() { public T Fields { get; set; } public Event() { EventType = new T(); } } public class FootballEvent { public Team CompetitorA { get; set; } public Team CompetitorB { get; set; } } public class TennisEvent { public Player CompetitorA { get; set; } public Player CompetitorB { get; set; } } public class F1RacingEvent { public List<Player> Drivers { get; set; } public List<Team> Teams { get; set; } } public class Team { public IEnumerable<Player> Squad { get; set; } } public class Player { public string Name { get; set; } public DateTime DOB { get; set;} }

  Read the article

• How do I find Microsoft APIs?

  - by Stephen

  I'm a java programmer, and if I see something that: I don't know about or just want to find a method description without opening an ide or am on support I type java [classname] into google, and there it is. If I try this crazy stunt for C# I'll come up with a whole heap of tutorials (how do I use it etc). If I manage to get to MSDN, I have to wade through a page describing every .net technology to see how their syntax references the same object, and then I have to find the appropriate page from there ([class name] Constructor) for example. This is even more pronounced, because I don't have Visual Studio, so I've got nothing to make it easier. There must be something I'm missing or don't know... how does this situation work for Microsoft developers? how can I make my life easier/searches better? are there techniques that work no matter what computer I'm on (e.g. require no computer setup/downloads) Notes It could be thought that java is just "java", but it's just that the java apis are only referenced/defined in the core language. For all the other languages on the JVM, it's assumed that you will just learn the correct syntax to use the java apis. I presume that .Net only lists a whole heap of languages as the api classes are actually different and have different interfaces capabilities (or some approximation of this presumption). Edit While searching msdn works... in the java space I can type 'java [anyclass]' and it will generally be found... whether it's a java core api or a third party library

  Read the article

• javascript scope problem when lambda function refers to a variable in enclosing loop

  - by Stefan Blixt

  First question on stackoverflow :) Hope I won't embarrass myself... I have a javascript function that loads a list of albums and then it creates a list item for each album. The list item should be clickable, so I call jQuery's click() with a function that does stuff. I do this in a loop. My problem is that all items seem to get the same click function, even though I try to make a new one that does different stuff in each iteration. Another possibility is that the iteration variable is global somehow, and the function refers to it. Code below. debug() is just an encapsulation of Firebug's console.debug(). function processAlbumList(data, c) { for (var album in data) { var newAlbum = $('<li class="albumLoader">' + data[album].title + '</li>').clone(); var clickAlbum = function() { debug("contents: " + album); }; debug("Album: " + album + "/" + data[album].title); $('.albumlist').append(newAlbum); $(newAlbum).click(clickAlbum); } } Here is a transcript of what it prints when the above function runs, after that are some debug lines caused by me clicking on different items. It always prints "10", which is the last value that the album variable takes (there are 10 albums). Album: 0/Live on radio.electro-music.com Album: 1/Doodles Album: 2/Misc Stuff Album: 3/Drawer Collection Album: 4/Misc Electronic Stuff Album: 5/Odds & Ends Album: 6/Tumbler Album: 7/Bakelit 32 Album: 8/Film Album: 9/Bakelit Album: 10/Slow Zoom/Atomic Heart contents: 10 contents: 10 contents: 10 contents: 10 contents: 10 Any ideas? Driving me up the wall, this is. :) /Stefan

  Read the article

• Ignoring build number when referencing dll

  - by brickner

  I have one solution with a .NET 4.0 project (C#) that produces a delayed signed dll, that I dotfuscate and sign. EDIT: This is how I version the dll: [assembly: AssemblyVersion("0.7.0.*")] [assembly: AssemblyFileVersion("0.7.0.0")] I have another solution with a .NET 4.0 project (C++/CLI) that references the signed dll and produces a signed dll (actually, delayed signed and signed in a post build because of a flaw in the C++ build system). The problem is that the reference to the dll contains a specific version number, which includes even the build number (I want to have a build number). Every time I build the referenced dll, I have to change the project settings file (.vcxproj) so it reference the new version dll. Since I work with source control, this is very inconvenient (different computers might have different build numbers since each computer build its own referenced dll - the referenced dll is not in the source control). If I don't change the reference, I get a warning: warning MSB3245: Could not resolve this reference. Could not locate the assembly... And many errors like this: error C3083: 'Foo': the symbol to the left of a '::' must be a type These are resolved once I change the reference. How do I make the reference ignore the build number or even the entire version number?

  Read the article

• Asp.Net Login Control very slow initial connection to Non-Trusted AD Domain

  - by Eric Brown - Cal

  ASP.NET Login control is very slow making the initial connection to AD when authenticating to a different domain than the domain the web server is a member of. Problem occurs for the IIS server and when using with the Visual Studio's built in web server. It takes about 30 seconds the first time when attempting to use the control to connect against another domain. There is no trust relationship bewteen the web server's domain and the other domains (attempted connecting to several different domains). Subsequent connections execute quickly until the connection times out. Using Systernals Process Monitor to troubleshoot, there are two OpenQuery operations right before the delay to "C:\WINDOWS\asembly\GAC_MSIL\System.DirectoryServices\2.0.0.0_b03f5f7f11d50a3a\Netapi32.dll with a result NAME NOT FOUND" and right after the 30 second delay the TCP Send and TCP Recieves indicate communication begins with the AD server. Things we have tried: Impersonating an administrator on the web server in the web.config; Granting permissions to the CryptoKeys to the NetworkService and ASPNET; Specifying by IP instead of DNS name; Multiple variations of specifying the name and ldap server with domains and OU's; Local host entries; Looked for ports being blocked (SYN_SENT) with netstat -an. Nslookup resolves all the domains and systems involved correectly. TraceRt shows the Correct routes Any Idea or hints are greately appreicated.

  Read the article

• Payment Processors - What do I need to know if I want to accept credit cards on my website?

  - by Michael Pryor

  This question talks about different payment processors and what they cost, but I'm looking for the answer to what do I need to do if I want to accept credit card payments? Assume I need to store credit card numbers for customers, so that the obvious solution of relying on the credit card processor to do the heavy lifting is not available. PCI Data Security, which is apparently the standard for storing credit card info, has a bunch of general requirements, but how does one implement them? And what about the vendors, like Visa, who have their own best practices? Do I need to have keyfob access to the machine? What about physically protecting it from hackers in the building? Or even what if someone got their hands on the backup files with the sql server data files on it? What about backups? Are there other physical copies of that data around? Tip: If you get a merchant account, you should negotiate that they charge you "interchange-plus" instead of tiered pricing. With tiered pricing, they will charge you different rates based on what type of Visa/MC is used -- ie. they charge you more for cards with big rewards attached to them. Interchange plus billing means you only pay the processor what Visa/MC charges them, plus a flat fee. (Amex and Discover charge their own rates directly to merchants, so this doesn't apply to those cards. You'll find Amex rates to be in the 3% range and Discover could be as low as 1%. Visa/MC is in the 2% range). This service is supposed to do the negotiation for you (I haven't used it, this is not an ad, and I'm not affiliated with the website, but this service is greatly needed.) This blog post gives a complete rundown of handling credit cards (specifically for the UK).

  Read the article

• How do I draw the points in an ESRI Polyline, given the bounding box as lat/long and the "points" as

  - by Aaron

  I'm using OpenMap and I'm reading a ShapeFile using com.bbn.openmap.layer.shape.ShapeFile. The bounding box is read in as lat/long points, for example 39.583642,-104.895486. The bounding box is a lower-left point and an upper-right point which represents where the points are contained. The "points," which are named "radians" in OpenMap, are in a different format, which looks like this: [0.69086486, -1.8307719, 0.6908546, -1.8307716, 0.6908518, -1.8307717, 0.69085056, -1.8307722, 0.69084936, -1.8307728, 0.6908477, -1.8307738, 0.69084626, -1.8307749, 0.69084185, -1.8307792]. How do I convert the points like "0.69086486, -1.8307719" into x,y coordinates that are usable in normal graphics? I believe all that's needed here is some kind of conversion, because bringing the points into Excel and graphing them creates a line whose curve matches the curve of the road at the given location (lat/long). However, the axises need to be adjusted manually and I have no reference as how to adjust the axises, since the given bounding box appears to be in a different format than the given points. The ESRI Shapefile technical description doesn't seem to mention this (http://www.esri.com/library/whitepapers/pdfs/shapefile.pdf).

  Read the article

• Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

  - by Mark Biek

  I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

  Read the article

• Space-saving character encoding for japanese?

  - by Constantin

  In my opinion a common problem: character encoding in combination with a bitmap-font. Most multi-language encodings have an huge space between different character types and even a lot of unused code points there. So if I want to use them I waste a lot of memory (not only for saving multi-byte text - i mean specially for spaces in my bitmap-font) - and VRAM is mostly really valuable... So the only reasonable thing seems to be: Using an custom mapping on my texture for i.e. UTF-8 characters (so that no space is waste). BUT: This effort seems to be same with use an own proprietary character encoding (so also own order of characters in my texture). In my specially case I got texture space for 4096 different characters and need characters to display latin languages as well as japanese (its a mess with utf-8 that only support generall cjk codepages). Had somebody ever a similiar problem (I really wonder, if not)? If theres already any approach? Edit: The same Problem is described here http://www.tonypottier.info/Unicode_And_Japanese_Kanji/ but it doesnt provide an real solution how to save these bitmapfont mappings to utf-8 space efficent. So any further help is welcome!

  Read the article

• Solver Foundation Optimization - 1D Bin Packing

  - by Val Nolav

  I want to optimize loading marbles into trucks. I do not know, if I can use Solver Foundation class for that purpose. Before, I start writing code, I wanted to ask it here. 1- Marbles can be in any weight between 1 to 24 Tons. 2 - A truck can hold maximum of 24 Tons. 3- It can be loaded as many marble cubes, as it can take for upto 24 tones, which means there is no Volume limitation. 4- There can be between 200 up to 500 different marbles depending on time. GOAL - The goal is to load marbles in minimum truck shipment. How can I do that without writing a lot of if conditions and for loops? Can I use Microsoft Solver Foundation for that purpose? I read the documentation provided by Microsoft however, I could not find a scenario similar to mine. M1+ M2 + M3 + .... Mn <=24 this is for one truck shipment. Let say there are 200 different Marbles and Marble weights are Float. Thanks

  Read the article

• Emulator restarts after snapshot load

  - by reox

  I've set up a android emulator with a snapshot of a specific state i need to go back every time. the snapshot is created and is listed and i can also start directly with this snapshot with emulator -avd MyAVD -snapshot mystate -no-snapshot-save the problem is now that the emulator restart itselfs after i load the snapshot after i did my changes in the emulator. So if i use echo -e "avd snapshot load mystate\nexit" | nc localhost 5554 the snapshot is loaded correctly but then after some seconds i see the bootloader screen. Whats happening there? this phenomen is repeatable with different emulators and different snapshots. is it possible that i just misuse a feature here? edit: it seems this problem is only occuring when i load a snapshot multiple times. after starting the emulator, everything is working quite well. now i load my snapshot, also everything is working well. but when i now load the same snapshot again, it will correctly load it but then the emulator will restart. so is there any possibility to load a snapshot multiple times? otherwise i always need to restart my emulator, which takes a long time...

  Read the article

• Strange unset cookie problem

  - by neobie

  Hi there, I have a strange problem to clear Cookie via PHP. Lets say if I have a domain neobie.net I store "remember user login" cookie name as "USER_INFO" which contains string to identify user login in the next time of revisit. now using firefox, I saw that I have 2 cookies USER_INFO with domain "www.neobie.net" and ".neobie.net" with expiration date of 1 week later. I wrote a logout.php script, which clear the cookie of different domain (.neobie.net, www.neobie.net, neobie.net) to ensure that USER_INFO cookie is completely cleared for different domain. Now is the problem. The user isn't able to clear the cookie when user visit logout.php I found out that, I have to manually delete the cookie with domain "www.neobie.net", leaving the ".neobie.net " intact, then only the cookie can be cleared. So, I have to make the php script to setcookie USER_INFO on ".neobie.net", and prevent it to set cookie on "www.neobie.net" to make the logout.php script work. But I don't understand why I couldn't clear the cookie for "www.neobie.net" (with leading www. , tested on firefox and chrome)

  Read the article

• Commercial Website architecture question

  - by Maxime ARNSTAMM

  Hello everyone, I have to write an architecture case study but there are some things that i don't know, so i'd like some pointers on the following : The website must handle 5k simultaneous users. The backend is composed by a commercial software, some webservices, some message queues, and a database. I want to recommend to use Spring for the backend, to deal with the different elements, and to expose some Rest services. I also want to recommend wicket for the front (not the point here). What i don't know is : must i install the front and the back on the same tomcat server or two different ? and i am tempted to put two servers for the front, with a load balancer (no need for session replication in this case). But if i have two front servers, must i have two back servers ? i don't want to create some kind of bottleneck. Based on what i read on this blog a really huge charge is handle by one tomcat only for the first website mentionned. But i cannot find any info on this, so i can't tell if it seems plausible. If you can enlight me, so i can go on in my case study, that would be really helpful. Thanks :)

  Read the article

• Can't send an email using a google apps account with PHPMailer

  - by Chris

  I'm trying to simply send an email using my google apps account with php. I am able to send an email in a .net application using the port 587 host smtp.googlemail.com and SSL enabled. The username is my full email address. require_once('PHPMailer_v5.1\class.phpmailer.php'); try { $mail = new PHPMailer(); $mail->Mailer = 'smtp'; $mail->SMTPSecure = 'tls'; $mail->Host = $host; $mail->Port = 587; $mail->SMTPAuth = true; $mail->Username = $from; $mail->Password = $password; $mail->AddAddress($to, $to_name); $mail->From = $from; $mail->FromName = $from_name; $mail->Subject = $subject; $mail->MsgHTML($body); $mail->IsHTML(true); $mail->Send(); } catch (phpmailerException $e) { echo $e->errorMessage(); } catch (Exception $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } Haven't been able to get this to work, but I've tried several different variations of this. $mail->SMTPSecure = 'ssl'; // Error: Could not connect to SMTP host. $mail->SMTPSecure = 'tls'; // Takes forever, then I get "this stream does not support SSL/crypto PHPMailer_v5.1\class.smtp.php" I don't care how, but I need to send an email using gmail here. It can be with this library or a different one.

  Read the article

• ODBC and NLS_LANG

  - by Michael S.

  Let's say that I've created two different program executables, e.g. in C++. For some reason, the two programs internals representation of text are different from each other. Let's say the first program is using text representation A and the other text representation B. It could be a specific 8-bit ANSI codepage, Unicode/UTF-8 or Unicode/UTF-16 or whatever. Now each program want to communicate text (add/retrieve data) to/from the same database table on a (database) server. Each program communicates with the database through ODBC. So the programs do not know what database system they they are communicating with. In this specific case through the database is actually a Oracle RDMS database and the database server administrator has setup the database to use UTF-8. On the system on which the programs are running an appropriate ODBC driver is available, so that the programs can connect through ODBC. Each program will treat and convert from the ODBC data type SQL_C_CHAR to its internal text representation appropriately. I assume that the programs cannot do no other than to assume a specific encoding returned for SQL_C_CHAR text. If not the programs has to be told which encoding that is. For Oracle, I know that the NLS_LANG environment variable can be used on the client. I assume it affects the ODBC driver (related to SQL_C_CHAR) to convert from a specific encoding (as given by NLS_LANG) to the internal encoding of the database (in this example UTF-8) and vice-versa. If the machine running my programs are having a NLS_LANG this setting will affect the byte sequences returned for SQL_C_CHAR so my programs cannot suddenly assume a specific encoding for the text returned via SQL_C_CHAR. Is it possible to setup the ODBC connection (preferably programmatically at runtime), so that it takes care of text conversions appropriately for the two programs, i.e. from/to representation to/from UTF-8 and from/to representation B to/from UTF-8? Regards, /Michael PS. As the programs are connecting through ODBC I don't think it would be nice that they should now anything about NLS_LANG as this is a Orcacle specific environment variable.

  Read the article

• PDO Database Connections Problem

  - by Metropolis

  Hey Everyone, Over a year ago I created my own database classes which use PDO, and handle all preparing, executing, and closing connections. These classes have been working great up until now. There are two different database severs I am grabbing from, MySQL, and MS SQL Express. I am retrieving an employee id from the MySQL server and using it to get that employees information from the MS SQL server. There are about 11k records coming from the MySQL server and my program is only making it through 1200 before crashing with an error like the following. Connection failed (odbc:Driver=FreeTDS;Servername=MSSQLExpress;Database=SMDINC) Class (PDOException) SQLSTATE[08001] SQLDriverConnect: 0 [unixODBC][FreeTDS][SQL Server]Unable to connect to data source It seems like the program is not able to connect to the data source, but it is running the exact same query about 30 times before this and having no problem. Also, I have thoroughly checked all of the data coming into the query and it all looks fine. I believe the issue may be that there are to many connections being created, but I have tried to close all connections in many different places, and nothing seems to be fixing the problem. Any debugging help, or suggestions would be appreciated! Craig Metrolis

  Read the article

• Partial Classes - are they bad design?

  - by dferraro

  Hello, I'm wondering why the 'partial class' concept even exists in .NET. I'm working on an application and we are reading a (actually very good) book relavant to the development platform we are implementing at work. In the book he provides a large code base /wrapper around the platform API and explains how he developed it as he teaches different topics about the platform development. Anyway, long story short - he uses partial classes, all over the place, as a way to fake multiple inheritence in C# (IMO). Why he didnt just split the classes up into multiple ones and use composition is beyond me. He will have 3 'partial class' files to make up his base class, each w/ 3-500 lines of code... And does this several times in his API. Do you find this justifiable? If it were me, I'd have followed the S.R.P. and created multiple classes to handle different required behaviors, then create a base class that has instances of these classes as members (e.g. composition). Why did MS even put partial class into the framework?? They removed the ability to expand/collapse all code at each scope level in C# (this was allowed in C++) because it was obviously just allowing bad habits - partial class is IMO the same thing. I guess my quetion is: Can you explain to me when there would be a legitimate reason to ever use a partial class? I do not mean this to be a rant / war thread. I'm honeslty looking to learn something here. Thanks

  Read the article

• Question about using adaptive layout + print style sheet

  - by Michael

  Hey everyone, In my web design class, we looked at creating different style sheets for different window sizes and using a javascript that detects the window size and loads the right style sheet. In the head, I'm linking to three external style sheets, as well as a link to the javascript file. So the adaptive layout works fine. However... I also need to be able to use a print style sheet with this particular webpage (it's the requirement for this project). The problem is this that the way the javascript was written makes it so that it ignores the print style sheet. When I go to print preview, it ignores the print style sheet and the preview shows me all of my webpage unstyled. It looks like just the html when opened in a browser. I am using the javascript by Kevin Hale at ParticleTree, and I'm sure there are those familiar with this :] http://particletree.com/examples/dynamiclayouts/ I would like to know what needs to be changed so that the print style sheet isn't ignored. I've shown this to my professor. However, her email wasn't clear enough, but I understand that somehow the script is ignoring the print.css and that's why the print preview shows a css-less preview. Since it's the weekend, I won't be able to get an answer until Monday, and I was hoping someone can help me out. Thank you very much! Michael

  Read the article

• Maximizing the number of true concurrent / parrallel http requests in Silverlight

  - by Clems

  Hi all. I'm using SL 4 beta and my app needs to do a lot of small http requests to the server. I believe that when exceeding the number of allowed concurrent requests, the subsequent requests are put in a queue. I am also aware that SL 4 has both a http browser stack and a http client stack, with both different limit in terms of the number of concurrent requests. Let's say call those limits MAX_BROWSER and MAX_CLIENT. Also I think I read somewhere that the number of concurrent requests is limited per domain, not overall. But I'm sure if this applies to both the http client stack. That means that you CAN have MAX_BROWSER requests to domain1.com AND MAX_BROWSER requests to domain2.com at the same time. And I even believe that sub domains are considered different so you can also have MAX_BROWSER requests to domain1.com AND MAX_BROWSER requests to sub.domain1.com at the same time. I have ownership of the services and domain names so I could easily setup sub domains for my services. Given those considerations I'm trying to optimize the number of concurrent http requests to my server. Here are few questions ? Is is possible to use both stack at the same time ? Is the subdomain/domain story true for both stacks ? None ? If so that would mean that I could potentially have a number of concurrent requests equal to : (MAX_BROWSER + MAX_CLIENT) * NUMBER_OF_DOMAINS which would be fairly good. Is this correct ? I'm kind of sharing my morning thoughts here, hoping somebody has experimented with those things. Thank you.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429  | Next Page >