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• Differences between Assembly Code output of the same program

  - by ultrajohn

  I have been trying to replicate the buffer overflow example3 from this article aleph one I'm doing this as a practice for a project in a computer security course i'm taking so please, I badly need your help. I've been the following the example, performing the tasks as I go along. My problem is the assembly code dumped by gdb in my computer (i'm doing this on a debian linux image running on VM Ware) is different from that of the example in the article. There are some constructs which I find confusing. Here is the one from my computer: here is the one from the article... Dump of assembler code for function main: 0x8000490 <main>: pushl %ebp 0x8000491 <main+1>: movl %esp,%ebp 0x8000493 <main+3>: subl $0x4,%esp 0x8000496 <main+6>: movl $0x0,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x800049d <main+13>: pushl $0x3 0x800049f <main+15>: pushl $0x2 0x80004a1 <main+17>: pushl $0x1 0x80004a3 <main+19>: call 0x8000470 <function> 0x80004a8 <main+24>: addl $0xc,%esp 0x80004ab <main+27>: movl $0x1,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x80004b2 <main+34>: movl 0xfffffffc(%ebp),%eax 0x80004b5 <main+37>: pushl %eax 0x80004b6 <main+38>: pushl $0x80004f8 0x80004bb <main+43>: call 0x8000378 <printf> 0x80004c0 <main+48>: addl $0x8,%esp 0x80004c3 <main+51>: movl %ebp,%esp 0x80004c5 <main+53>: popl %ebp 0x80004c6 <main+54>: ret 0x80004c7 <main+55>: nop As you can see, there are differences between the two. I'm confuse and I can't understand totally the assembly code from my computer. I would like to know the differences between the two. How is pushl different from push, mov vs movl , and so on... what does the expression 0xhexavalue(%register) means? I am sorry If I'm asking a lot, But I badly need your help. Thanks for the help really...

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• Google app engine: Poor Performance with JDO + Datastore

  - by Bosh

  I have a simple data model that includes USERS: store basic information (key, name, phone # etc) RELATIONS: describe, e.g. a friendship between two users (supplying a relationship_type + two user keys) I'm getting very poor performance, for instance, if I try to print the first names of all of a user's friends. Say the user has 500 friends: I can fetch the list of friend user_ids very easily in a single query. But then, to pull out first names, I have to do 500 back-and-forth trips to the Datastore, each of which seems to take on the order of 30 ms. If this were SQL, I'd just do a JOIN and get the answer out fast. I understand there are rudimentary facilities for performing joins across un-owned relations in a relaxed implementation of JDO (as described at http://gae-java-persistence.blogspot.com) but they sound experimental and non-standard (e.g. my code won't work in any other JDO implementation). Is this really my best bet? Otherwise, how do people extract satisfactory performance from JDO/Datastore in this kind of (very common) situation? -Bosh

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• How do I establish table association in JPA / Hibernate with existing database?

  - by Paperino

  Currently I have two tables in my database Encounters and Referrals: There is a one to many relationship between these two tables. Currently they are linked together with foreign keys. Right now I have public class Encounter extends JPASupport implements java.io.Serializable { @Column(name="referralid", unique=false, nullable=true, insertable=true, updatable=true) public Integer referralid; } But what I really want is public class Encounter extends JPASupport implements java.io.Serializable { .......... @OneToMany(cascade=CascadeType.PERSIST) public Set<Referrals> referral; ............ } So that I can eventually do a query like this: List<Encounter> cases = Encounter.find( "select distinct p from Encounter p join p.referrals as t where t.caseid =103" ).fetch(); How do I tell JPA that even though I have non-standard column names for my foreign keys and primary keys that its the object models that I want linked, not simply the integer value for the keys? Does this make sense? I hope so. Thanks in advanced!

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• Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

  - by alku83

  I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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• Preserving order when copying elements using Deliverance / XPath

  - by Jon Hadley

  How would I, using Deliverance & XPath (or CSS) selectors, select and copy list items .one and .three from each list below, but display them in the order of their parent list? <ul id="a-wrapper"> <li class="one"></li> <li class="two"></li> <li class="three"></li> <li class="four"></li> </li> <ul id="b-wrapper"> <li class="one"></li> <li class="two"></li> <li class="three"></li> <li class="four"></li> </ul> c,d,e,f,g etc.... The catch is it needs to use a href rule, eg: <prepend href="/blah/deblah" content="#x" theme="#y" /> Using the following just lists all the .one elements, then all the .three elements. <prepend href="/blah/deblah" content=".one" theme="#y" /> <prepend href="/blah/deblah" content=".three" theme="#y" />

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• Handling user interface in a multi-threaded application (or being forced to have a UI-only main thre

  - by Patrick

  In my application, I have a 'logging' window, which shows all the logging, warnings, errors of the application. Last year my application was still single-threaded so this worked [quite] good. Now I am introducing multithreading. I quickly noticed that it's not a good idea to update the logging window from different threads. Reading some articles on keeping the UI in the main thread, I made a communication buffer, in which the other threads are adding their logging messages, and from which the main thread takes the messages and shows them in the logging window (this is done in the message loop). Now, in a part of my application, the memory usage increases dramatically, because the separate threads are generating lots of logging messages, and the main thread cannot empty the communication buffer quickly enough. After the while the memory decreases again (if the other threads have finished their work and the main thread gradually empties the communication buffer). I solved this problem by having a maximum size on the communication buffer, but then I run into a problem in the following situation: the main thread has to perform a complex action the main thread takes some parts of the action and let's separate threads execute this while the seperate threads are executing their logic, the main thread processes the results from the other threads and continues with its work if the other threads are finished Problem is that in this situation, if the other threads perform logging, there is no UI-message loop, and so the communication buffer is filled, but not emptied. I see two solutions in solving this problem: require the main thread to do regular polling of the communication buffer only performing user interface logic in the main thread (no other logic) I think the second solution seems the best, but this may not that easy to introduce in a big application (in my case it performs mathematical simulations). Are there any other solutions or tips? Or is one of the two proposed the best, easiest, most-pragmatic solution? Thanks, Patrick

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• implementing cryptographic algorithms, specifically the key expansion part

  - by masseyc

  Hey, recently I picked up a copy of Applied Cryptography by Bruce Schneier and it's been a good read. I now understand how several algorithms outlined in the book work, and I'd like to start implementing a few of them in C. One thing that many of the algorithms have in common is dividing an x-bit key, into several smaller y-bit keys. For example, blowfish's key, X, is 64-bits, but you are required to break it up into two 32-bit halves; Xl and Xr. This is where I'm getting stuck. I'm fairly decent with C, but I'm not the strongest when it comes to bitwise operators and the like. After some help on IRC, I managed to come up with these two macros: #define splitup(a, b, c) {b = a >> 32; c = a & 0xffffffff; } #define combine(a, b, c) {a = (c << 32) | a;} Where a is 64 bits and b and c are 32 bits. However, the compiler warns me about the fact that I'm shifting a 32 bit variable by 32 bits. My questions are these: what's bad about shifting a 32-bit variable 32 bits? I'm guessing it's undefined, but these macros do seem to be working. Also, would you suggest I go about this another way? As I said, I'm fairly familiar with C, but bitwise operators and the like still give me a headache.

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• How should I progressively enhance this content with JavaScript?

  - by Sean Dunwoody

  The background to this problem is that I'm doing a computing project which involves Some drop down boxes for input, and a text input where the user can input a date. I've used YUI to enhance the form, so the calendar input uses the YUI calendar widget and the drop down list is converted into a horizontal list of inputs where the user only has to click once to select any input as opposed to two clicks with the drop down box (hope that makes sense, not sure how to explain it clearly) The problem is, that in the design section of my project I stated that I would follow the progressive enhancement principles. I am struggling however to ensure that users without JavaScript are able to view the drop down box / text input on said page. This is not because I do not necessarily know how, but the two methods I've tried seem unsatisfactory. Method 1 - I tried using YUI to hide the text box and drop down list, this seemed like the ideal solution however there was quite a noticeable lag when loading the page (especially for the first time), the text box and drop down list where visibile for at least a second. I included the script for this just before the end of the body tag, is there any way that I can run it onload with YUI? Would that help? Method 2 - Use the noscript tag . . . however I am loathed to do this as while it would be a simple solution, I have read various bad things about the noscript tag. Is there a way of making mehtod one work? Or is there a better way of doing this that I am yet to encounter?

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• SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

  - by TheBlueSky

  Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

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• XSLT how to merge some lists of parameters

  - by buggy1985

  Hi, I have an URL Structure like this: http://my.domain.com/generated.xml?param1=foo&param2=bar&xsl=path/to/my.xsl The generated XML will be transformed using the given XSL Stylesheet. The two other parameters are integrated too like this: <root> <params> <param name="param1">foo</param> <param name="param2">bar</param> </param> ... </root> Now I want to create with XSLT a link with a new URI that keeps the existing parameters and adds one or multiple new parameters like page=3 or sort=DESC. If the given parameter already exists, it should be replaced. I'm not sure how to do this. How to pass multiple (optional) parameters to a template. How to merge two lists of parameters. Any ideas? Thanks ;)

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• Javascript code works only when the page loads

  - by victor

  I have a page with a dropdown and two textboxes. The javascript code checks to make sure that if the dropdown says Appointment Made or Patient Scheduled, the appropriate text boxes will have dates in them. When the page loads and the drop down shows either of the two above, all works fine but when I change the drop down the script does not work. I have put an alert statament after the third line and do see that when I make a change to patient_status, the variable a gets updated but for some reason the script fails and does not prompt. For example if the page loads and Appointment Made is selected, the script will prompt, but if I change the drop down to Patient Scheduled, it will not prompt. Thank You. function calculate() { a= document.getElementById("EditRecordpatient_status").value; b= document.getElementById("EditRecordSurgery_Date").value; c= document.getElementById("EditRecordConsult_Date").value; alert(a); alert(b); alert(c); if (a=="Appointment Made" && c=="") { alert('You have scheduled a patient for consultation but the consult date is missing!'); return false; } else if (a=="Patient Scheduled" && b=="") { alert('You have scheduled a patient for surgery but the surgery date is missing!'); return false; } else { return true; } } document.getElementById("Mod0EditRecord").onclick=calculate;

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• Pairs from single list

  - by Apalala

  Often enough, I've found the need to process a list by pairs. I was wondering which would be the pythonic and efficient way to do it, and found this on Google: pairs = zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) I thought that was pythonic enough, but after a recent discussion involving idioms versus efficiency, I decided to do some tests: import time from itertools import islice, izip def pairs_1(t): return zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_2(t): return izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_3(t): return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) A = range(10000) B = xrange(len(A)) def pairs_4(t): # ignore value of t! t = B return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) for f in pairs_1, pairs_2, pairs_3, pairs_4: # time the pairing s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) t1 = time.time() - s # time using the pairs s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) for a, b in p: pass t2 = time.time() - s print t1, t2, t2-t1 These were the results on my computer: 1.48668909073 2.63187503815 1.14518594742 0.105381965637 1.35109519958 1.24571323395 0.00257992744446 1.46182489395 1.45924496651 0.00251388549805 1.70076990128 1.69825601578 If I'm interpreting them correctly, that should mean that the implementation of lists, list indexing, and list slicing in Python is very efficient. It's a result both comforting and unexpected. Is there another, "better" way of traversing a list in pairs? Note that if the list has an odd number of elements then the last one will not be in any of the pairs. Which would be the right way to ensure that all elements are included? I added these two suggestions from the answers to the tests: def pairwise(t): it = iter(t) return izip(it, it) def chunkwise(t, size=2): it = iter(t) return izip(*[it]*size) These are the results: 0.00159502029419 1.25745987892 1.25586485863 0.00222492218018 1.23795199394 1.23572707176 Results so far Most pythonic and very efficient: pairs = izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) Most efficient and very pythonic: pairs = izip(*[iter(t)]*2) It took me a moment to grok that the first answer uses two iterators while the second uses a single one. To deal with sequences with an odd number of elements, the suggestion has been to augment the original sequence adding one element (None) that gets paired with the previous last element, something that can be achieved with itertools.izip_longest().

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• How can I make NSUndoManager's undo/redo action names work properly?

  - by Gabe

  I'm learning Cocoa, and I've gotten undo to work without much trouble. But the setActionName: method is puzzling me. Here's a simple example: a toy app whose windows contain a single text label and two buttons. Press the On button and the label reads 'On'. Press the Off button and the label changes to read 'Off'. Here are the two relevant methods (the only code I wrote for the app): -(IBAction) turnOnLabel:(id)sender { [[self undoManager] registerUndoWithTarget:self selector:@selector(turnOffLabel:) object:self]; [[self undoManager] setActionName:@"Turn On Label"]; [theLabel setStringValue:@"On"]; } -(IBAction) turnOffLabel:(id)sender { [[self undoManager] registerUndoWithTarget:self selector:@selector(turnOnLabel:) object:self]; [[self undoManager] setActionName:@"Turn Off Label"]; [theLabel setStringValue:@"Off"]; } Here's what I expect: I click the On button The label changes to say 'On' In the Edit menu is the item 'Undo Turn On Label' I click that menu item The label changes to say 'Off' In the Edit menu is the item 'Redo Turn On Label' In fact, all these things work as I expect apart from the last one. The item in the Edit menu reads 'Redo Turn Off Label', not 'Redo Turn On Label'. (When I click that menu item, the label does turn to On, as I'd expect, but this makes the menu item's name even more of a mystery. What am i misunderstanding, and how can I get these menu items to display the way I want them to?

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• Moving information between databases

  - by williamjones

  I'm on Postgres, and have two databases on the same machine, and I'd like to move some data from database Source to database Dest. Database Source: Table User has a primary key Table Comments has a primary key Table UserComments is a join table with two foreign keys for User and Comments Dest looks just like Source in structure, but already has information in User and Comments tables that needs to be retained. I'm thinking I'll probably have to do this in a few steps. Step 1, I would dump Source using the Postgres Copy command. Step 2, In Dest I would add a temporary second_key column to both User and Comments, and a new SecondUserComments join table. Step 3, I would import the dumped file into Dest using Copy again, with the keys input into the second_key columns. Step 4, I would add rows to UserComments in Dest based on the contents of SecondUserComments, only using the real primary keys this time. Could this be done with a SQL command or would I need a script? Step 5, delete the SecondUserComments table and remove the second_key columns. Does this sound like the best way to do this, or is there a better way I'm overlooking?

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• Including partial views when applying the Mode-View-ViewModel design pattern

  - by Filip Ekberg

  Consider that I have an application that just handles Messages and Users I want my Window to have a common Menu and an area where the current View is displayed. I can only work with either Messages or Users so I cannot work simultaniously with both Views. Therefore I have the following Controls MessageView.xaml UserView.xaml Just to make it a bit easier, both the Message Model and the User Model looks like this: Name Description Now, I have the following three ViewModels: MainWindowViewModel UsersViewModel MessagesViewModel The UsersViewModel and the MessagesViewModel both just fetch an ObserverableCollection<T> of its regarding Model which is bound in the corresponding View like this: <DataGrid ItemSource="{Binding ModelCollection}" /> The MainWindowViewModel hooks up two different Commands that have implemented ICommand that looks something like the following: public class ShowMessagesCommand : ICommand { private ViewModelBase ViewModel { get; set; } public ShowMessagesCommand (ViewModelBase viewModel) { ViewModel = viewModel; } public void Execute(object parameter) { var viewModel = new ProductsViewModel(); ViewModel.PartialViewModel = new MessageView { DataContext = viewModel }; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return true; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; } And there is another one a like it that will show Users. Now this introduced ViewModelBase which only holds the following: public UIElement PartialViewModel { get { return (UIElement)GetValue(PartialViewModelProperty); } set { SetValue(PartialViewModelProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty PartialViewModelProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("PartialViewModel", typeof(UIElement), typeof(ViewModelBase), new UIPropertyMetadata(null)); This dependency property is used in the MainWindow.xaml to display the User Control dynamicly like this: <UserControl Content="{Binding PartialViewModel}" /> There are also two buttons on this Window that fires the Commands: ShowMessagesCommand ShowUsersCommand And when these are fired, the UserControl changes because PartialViewModel is a dependency property. I want to know if this is bad practice? Should I not inject the User Control like this? Is there another "better" alternative that corresponds better with the design pattern? Or is this a nice way of including partial views?

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• Sticky/static variable references in for loops

  - by pthulin

  In this example I create three buttons 'one' 'two' 'three'. When clicked I want them to alert their number: <html> <head> <script type="application/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="application/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var numbers = ['one', 'two', 'three']; for (i in numbers) { var nr = numbers[i]; var li = $('<li>' + nr + '</li>'); li.click(function() { var newVariable = String(nr); alert(i); // 2 alert(nr); // three alert(newVariable); // three alert(li.html()); // three }); $('ul').append(li); } }); </script> </head> <body> <ul> </ul> </body> </html> The problem is, when any of these are clicked, the last value of the loop's variables is used, i.e. alert box always says 'three'. In JavaScript, variables inside for-loops seem to be 'static' in the C language sense. Is there some way to create separate variables for each click function, i.e. not using the same reference? Thanks!

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• There was no endpoint listening at net.pipe://localhost/...

  - by virsum

  I have two WCF services hosted in a single Windows Service on a Windows Server 2003 machine. If the Windows service needs to access either of the WCF services (like when a timed event occurs), it uses one of the five named pipe endpoints exposed (different service contracts). The service also exposes HTTP MetadataExchange endpoints for each of the two services, and net.tcp endpoints for consumers external to the server. Usually things work great, but every once in a while I get an error message that looks something like this: System.ServiceModel.EndpointNotFoundException: There was no endpoint listening at net.pipe://localhost/IPDailyProcessing that could accept the message. This is often caused by an incorrect address or SOAP action. See InnerException, if present, for more details. --- System.IO.PipeException: The pipe endpoint 'net.pipe://localhost/IPDailyProcessing' could not be found on your local machine. --- End of inner exception stack trace --- Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.PipeConnectionInitiator.GetPipeName(Uri uri) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.NamedPipeConnectionPoolRegistry.NamedPipeConnectionPool.GetPoolKey(EndpointAddress address, Uri via) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ConnectionPoolHelper.EstablishConnection(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientFramingDuplexSessionChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOpenOnce.System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.ICallOnce.Call(ServiceChannel channel, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOnceManager.CallOnce(TimeSpan timeout, CallOnceManager cascade) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.EnsureOpened(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) It doesn't happen reliably, which is maddening because I can't repeat it when I want to. In my windows service I also have some timed events and some file listeners, but these are fairly infrequent events. Does anyone have any ideas why I might be encountering an issue? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Re-order list in Python to ensure it starts with check values.

  - by S_Swede

  Dear all, I'm reading in serial data using Pyserial, to populate a list of 17 values (1byte each) at a sampling rate of 256Hz. The bytes I ultimately want to use are the 5th to 8th in the list. Providing no bytes are dropped, the first two values of the stream are always the same ('165','90'). I'm getting quite a few dropped values though, and my list values are shifting, so when I read the 5th-8th bytes, they aren't the correct values. I've partially combatted this by ensuring that before the wanted segement is captured, the first few values are checked against what they should be (i.e. if mylist[0]==165 &....). This is crude but ok since the chances of these two values appearing adjacent to each other in the list elsewhere is small. The problem is that this means as soon as the bytes shift, I'm losing a load of values, until it eventually realigns. My question is: what code can I use to either: a) Force the list to realign once it has been detected that it no longer starts with 165,90. (elif....). b) Detect where '165' & '90' are (next to each other) in the list and extract the values I want in relation to their position (next but one, onwards). Thanks in advance S_S Just noticed from the related Qs that I could use mylist.append(mylist.pop(0)) multiple times until they are in the right place. Is there a better way that anyone can suggest?

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• Texture2D.Bounds.Intersect, but the Bounds never move? - XNA, .Net 4.0

  - by Gineer

  Hi all, I am still shiny new to XNA, so please forgive any stupid question and statements in this post (The added issue is that I am using Visual Studio 2010 with .Net 4.0 which also means very few examples exist out on the web - well, none that I could find easily): I have two 2D objects in a "game" that I am using to learn more about XNA. I need to figure out when these two objects intersect. I noticed that the Texture2D objects has a property named "Bounds" which in turn has a method named "Intersects" which takes a Rectangle (the other Texture2D.Bounds) as an argument. However when you run the code, the objects always intersect even if they are on separate sides of the screen. When I step into the code, I noticed that for the Texture2D Bounds I get 4 parameters back when you mouse over the Bounds and the X, and Y coordinates always read "X = 0, Y = 0" for both objects (hence they always intersect). The thing that confuses me is the fact that the Bounds property is on the Texture rather than on the Position (or Vector2) of the objects. I eventually created a little helper method that takes in the objects and there positions and then calculate whether they intersect, but I'm sure there must be a better way. any suggestions, pointers would be much appreciated. Gineer

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• Entity Framework: Auto-updating foreign key when setting a new object reference

  - by Adrian Grigore

  Hi, I am porting an existing application from Linq to SQL to Entity Framework 4 (default code generation). One difference I noticed between the two is that a foreign key property are not updated when resetting the object reference. Now I need to decide how to deal with this. For example supposing you have two entity types, Company and Employee. One Company has many Employees. In Linq To SQL, setting the company also sets the company id: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Works fine! In Entity Framework (and without using any code template customization) this does not work: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Throws, since CompanyID was not updated! How can I make EF behave the same way as LinqToSQL? I had a look at the default code generation T4 template, but I could not figure out how to make the necessary changes.

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• Lack of security in many PHP applications?

  - by John

  Over the past year of freelancing, I inherited two web projects, both of them built in PHP, both of them with sensitive information like credit card info, bank info, etc... In one application, when I typed http://thecompany.com/admin/, and without being asked for a username and password, I saw every user's sensitive information, including credit card numbers, bank account numbers etc... In another application, I was able to bypass the login screen by simply typing http://the2ndcompany.com/customer.php?user_id=777, and again, without any prompts for username and password, i was able to see user 777's credit card info. I cycled through a few more user_ids (any integer) and saw each person's credit card info. Is something wrong here? Or is this the quality of work that the "average" programmer produces? Because if this is what the average programmer produces, does that means I'm an...gasp...elite programmer?? No..that can't be right....something doesn't make sense. So my question is, is it just coincidence that I inherited two applications both of which are dangerously lacking in security? Or are there are a lot of bad PHP programmers out there?

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• Is it possible to send OSC commands to an iPad via the Camera Connection Kit?

  - by HELVETICADE

  I'm building a small controller device that I'd like to partner with a computer. I've settled on using OSC out from my custom built hardware and am pretty satisfied with what I can get from WOscLib. Two goals I'd like to achieve are portability and a very nice ratio between battery:computing power, and this has lured me towards using iPhoneOS to accomplish my goals. I think the iPad would suit my needs perfectly, except that using wifi to broadcast OSC out from my device requires that device to be connected to a third device with a wifi chip, and this would destroy the goal of portability, whilst also introducing potential latency and stability headaches. My question is pretty simple: Can I push OSC commands FROM my controller TO an iPad via USB and the Camera Connection Kit? If I could accomplish this, the two major goals of my project would be fulfilled very nicely. This seems like it should be a simple little question, but researching this obsessively over the past few weeks has left me more almost more uncertain than if I had done no research at all. I'd really like some more confidence before I go down this route, and it seems like it should be possible. Any insight would be very, very appreciated.

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• Using javascript and php together

  - by EmmyS

  I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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• Jquery Accordion : set action to a specific element inside header

  - by J.Tay

  by default, if we have something like this as a Header in jQuery Accordion : <h3> <div class="1">TEXT</div> <div class="2">ICON</div> <div class="3">BUTTON</div> </h3> by clicking anywhere on this , accordion works and toggle the next element and ... the question is , how can we set an option and select a specific element ( like: 'div' with class '1' ) to click on it to and toggle the accordion. i mean i don't want the whole Header remain click able. i just want to click on a icon or div o something inside the header and toggle open/close the accordion. thank you Update 1 : HTML : <div id="testAcc"> <h3> <div class="one">Text</div> <div class="two">Icon</div> <div class="three">Button</div> </h3> <div class="accBody"> text text text text text text text text text text </div> <h3> <div class="one">Text</div> <div class="two">Icon</div> <div class="three">Button</div> </h3> <div class="accBody"> text text text text text text text text text text </div> </div> JS : $('#testAcc').accordion({ autoHeight: false, header: 'h3', collapsible: 'ture', }); this codes working fine. but i want to use something like ( header: 'h3.one' ) means i want to set a specific class and element inside the header , then if user click ONLY on that element, the accordion will open or close ...

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• Error in Python's os.walk?

  - by Mike Caron

  The os.walk documentation (http://docs.python.org/library/os.html? highlight=os.walk#os.walk), says I can skip traversing unwanted directories by removing them from the dir list. The explicit example from the docs: import os from os.path import join, getsize for root, dirs, files in os.walk('python/Lib/email'): print root, "consumes", print sum(getsize(join(root, name)) for name in files), print "bytes in", len(files), "non-directory files" if 'CVS' in dirs: dirs.remove('CVS') # don't visit CVS directories I see different behavior (using ActivePython 2.6.2). Namely for the code: >>> for root,dirs,files in os.walk(baseline): ... if root.endswith(baseline): ... for d in dirs: ... print "DIR: %s" % d ... if not d.startswith("keep_"): ... print "Removing %s\\%s" % (root,d) ... dirs.remove(d) ... ... print "ROOT: %s" % root ... I get the output: DIR: two Removing: two DIR: thr33 Removing: thr33 DIR: keep_me DIR: keep_me_too DIR: keep_all_of_us ROOT: \\mach\dirs ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah\Extracted ROOT: \\mach\dirs\ONE\FurtherRubbish\blah2\Extracted\Stuff_1 ... WTF? Why wasn't \\mach\dirs\ONE removed? It clearly doesn't start with "keep_".

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