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• Are the formatted addresses of a Google location unique?

  - by Hans

  I want our users of a web site to be able to either search and pick an address or mark a location on a map decide how accurate this address/location is I am in the process of implementing the first part with jquery, jquery ui's autocomplete, google map, and google geocoder. For the second part I will generate a radiobutton list based on the address elements/alternatives of the first part on the client side with jquery. My concern, however, is how to convey the choices to the server side. The Google geocoder includes a number of useful metadata that I want to store. A possibility is to store the complete json object in a hidden form field, but I can't trust the users. Such a solution would enable an unfriendly insertion of spam in the data. If the addresses/locations would have a unique identifyer I could store just these and let the server refetch/evaluate the data. The alternative geonames.org web service has such ids. But are for example the formatted addresses of a Google location unique? Any tips?

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• Linq to SQL - Failing to update

  - by Isaac

  Hello, I'm having some troubles with updating linq to sql entities. For some reason, I can update every single field of my item entity besides name. Here are two simple tests I wrote: [TestMethod] public void TestUpdateName( ) { using ( var context = new SimoneDataContext( ) ) { Item item = context.Items.First( ); if ( item != null ) { item.Name = "My New Name"; context.SubmitChanges( ); } } } [TestMethod] public void TestUpdateMPN( ) { using ( var context = new SimoneDataContext( ) ) { Item item = context.Items.First( ); if ( item != null ) { item.MPN = "My New MPN"; context.SubmitChanges( ); } } } Unfortunately, TestUpdateName() fails with the following error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'.. And here's the outputted SQL: UPDATE [dbo].[Items] SET WHERE ([Id] = @p0) AND ([CategoryId] = @p1) AND ([MPN] = @p2) AND ([Height] = @p3) AND ([Width] = @p4) AND ([Weight] = @p5) AND ([Length] = @p6) AND ([AdministrativeCost] = @p7) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- @p1: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- @p2: Input VarChar (Size = 10; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [My New MPN] -- @p3: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [30.000] -- @p4: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [10.000] -- @p5: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [40.000] -- @p6: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [30.000] -- @p7: Input Money (Size = 0; Prec = 19; Scale = 4) [350.0000] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.4926 As you can see, no update is being generated (SET is empty ...) I have no clue why is this happening. And already in advance ... YES, the table Item has a PK (Id). Thank you in advance!

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• Is something along the lines of nested memoization needed here?

  - by Daniel

  System.Transactions notoriously escalates transactions involving multiple connections to the same database to the DTC. The module and helper class, ConnectionContext, below are meant to prevent this by ensuring multiple connection requests for the same database return the same connection object. This is, in some sense, memoization, although there are multiple things being memoized and the second is dependent on the first. Is there some way to hide the synchronization and/or mutable state (perhaps using memoization) in this module, or perhaps rewrite it in a more functional style? (It may be worth nothing that there's no locking when getting the connection by connection string because Transaction.Current is ThreadStatic.) type ConnectionContext(connection:IDbConnection, ownsConnection) = member x.Connection = connection member x.OwnsConnection = ownsConnection interface IDisposable with member x.Dispose() = if ownsConnection then connection.Dispose() module ConnectionManager = let private _connections = new Dictionary<string, Dictionary<string, IDbConnection>>() let private getTid (t:Transaction) = t.TransactionInformation.LocalIdentifier let private removeConnection tid = let cl = _connections.[tid] for (KeyValue(_, con)) in cl do con.Close() lock _connections (fun () -> _connections.Remove(tid) |> ignore) let getConnection connectionString (openConnection:(unit -> IDbConnection)) = match Transaction.Current with | null -> new ConnectionContext(openConnection(), true) | current -> let tid = getTid current // get connections for the current transaction let connections = match _connections.TryGetValue(tid) with | true, cl -> cl | false, _ -> let cl = Dictionary<_,_>() lock _connections (fun () -> _connections.Add(tid, cl)) cl // find connection for this connection string let connection = match connections.TryGetValue(connectionString) with | true, con -> con | false, _ -> let initial = (connections.Count = 0) let con = openConnection() connections.Add(connectionString, con) // if this is the first connection for this transaction, register connections for cleanup if initial then current.TransactionCompleted.Add (fun args -> let id = getTid args.Transaction removeConnection id) con new ConnectionContext(connection, false)

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• How to intercept touch events globally?

  - by mystify

  I have an view which is sometimes covered by some other views. However, if the user slides the finger across the screen, I want to slide that underlying view across the screen, too. I could start making custom views for all those covering subviews and forward all kinds of touch events, but that's somewhat cumbersome. Maybe there's some kind of notification or another way that a UIView or UIControl subclass can be aware of touch events happening right now, no matter where they are. In short: I need an UIView subclass or UIControl subclass which knows about any touch events happening on the entire screen. Or at least if tht's not possible, knowing about any touch events happening above itself in the same underlying superview. Another description: There are 20 views, all reside inside the same superview. The first view is covered by 19 others. But if the user slides across the screen, that first view must slide too, so it must be aware of touch events. Is there any better solution that making all 19 views forward touch events? (yes, all 19 views respond to touch events in this example)

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• Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

  - by franko75

  I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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• Thread synchronization and aborting.

  - by kubal5003

  Hello, I've got a little problem with ending the work of one of my threads. First things first so here's the app "layout": Thread 1 - worker thread (C++/CLI) - runs and terminates as expected for(...) { try { if(TabuStop) return; System::Threading::Monitor::Enter("Lock1"); //some work, unmanaged code } finally { if(stop) { System::Threading::Monitor::Pulse("Lock1"); } else { System::Threading::Monitor::Pulse("Lock1"); System::Threading::Monitor::Wait("Lock1"); } } } Thread 2 - display results thread (C#) while (WorkerThread.IsAlive) { lock ("Lock1") { if (TabuEngine.TabuStop) { Monitor.Pulse("Lock1"); } else { Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(RefreshAction); Monitor.Pulse("Lock1"); Monitor.Wait("Lock1", 5000); } } // Thread.Sleep(5000); } I'm trying to shut the whole thing down from app main thread like this: TabuEngine.TabuStop = true; //terminates nicely the worker thread and if (DisplayThread.IsAlive) { DisplayThread.Abort(); } I also tried using DisplayThread.Interrupt, but it always blocks on Monitor.Wait("Lock1", 5000); and I can't get rid of it. What is wrong here? How am I supposed to perform the synchronization and let it do the work that it is supposed to do? //edit I'm not even sure now if the trick with using "Lock1" string is really working and locks are placed on the same object..

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• http post request with cross-origin in javascript

  - by Calamarico

  i have a problem with a http post call in firefox. I know that when there are a cross origin, firefox first do a OPTIONS before the POST to know the access-control-allow headers. With this code i dont have any problem: Net.requestSpeech.prototype.post = function(url, data) { if(this.xhr != null) { this.xhr.open("POST", url); this.xhr.onreadystatechange = Net.requestSpeech.eventFunction; this.xhr.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/json; charset=utf-8"); this.xhr.send(data); } } I test this code with a simple html that invokes this function. Everything is ok and i have the response of the OPTIONS and POST, and i process the response. But, i'm trying to integrate this code with an existen application with uses jquery (i dont know if this is a problem), when the send(data) executes in this case, the browser (firefox) do the same, first do a OPTION request, but in this case dont receive the response of the server and puts this message in console: [18:48:13.529] OPTIONS http://localhost:8111/ [undefined 31ms] Undefined... the undefined is because dont receive the response, but the code is the same, i dont know why in this case the option dont receive the response, someone have an idea? i debug my server app and the OPTIONS arrive ok to the server, but it seems like the browser dont wait to the response. edit more later: ok i think that the problem is when i run with a simple html with a SCRIPT tag that invokes the method who do the request run ok, but in this app that dont receive the response, i have a form that do a onsubmit event, i think that the submit event returns very fast and the browser dont have time to get the OPTIONS request. edit more later later: WTF, i resolve the problem make the POST request to sync: this.xhr.open("POST", url, false); The submit reponse very quickly and can't wait to the OPTION response of the browser, any idea to this?

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• jquery find() - how to exclude certain descendants, and their children?

  - by jammypeach

  I have markup similar to this: <div class='wrapper plugin'> //some content <div class='child-wrapper plugin'> //some more content <div> <ul> <li><div class='cliky'>clicky!</div></li> </ul> </div> </div> <div class='cliky'>clicky!</div> </div> I need to be able to select the first .clicky div only, not any .clicky divs inside a .plugin > .plugin div. The wrapper has .plugin class too - might seem counter-intuitive so another way to view it is this: I want to get the .clicky children of a given .plugin div, but not .plugin .plugin .clicky. Here's the problem - the depth of each .clicky element (or indeed, the number of them) is unknown and variable in relation to the wrappers. One could be immediately below the first wrapper, or inside 10 <ul>s. I've tried selectors like: $('.wrapper').find('.clicky').not('.plugin > .clicky'); But they still selected child .clicky. How would I be able to filter out .plugin and any children of .plugin from my selector before using find()?

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• Creating a new object destroys an older object with different name in C++

  - by Mikael

  First question here! So, I am having some problems with pointers in Visual C++ 2008. I'm writing a program which will control six cameras and do some processing on them so to clean things up I have created a Camera Manager class. This class handles all operations which will be carried out on all the cameras. Below this is a Camera class which interacts with each individual camera driver and does some basic image processing. Now, the idea is that when the manager is initialised it creates two cameras and adds them to a vector so that I can access them later. The catch here is that when I create the second camera (camera2) the first camera's destructor is called for some reason, which then disconnects the camera. Normally I'd assume that the problem is somewhere in the Camera class, but in this case everything works perfectly as long as I don't create the camera2 object. What's gone wrong? CameraManager.h: #include "stdafx.h" #include <vector> #include "Camera.h" class CameraManager{ std::vector<Camera> cameras; public: CameraManager(); ~CameraManager(); void CaptureAll(); void ShowAll(); }; CameraManager.cpp: #include "stdafx.h" #include "CameraManager.h" CameraManager::CameraManager() { printf("Camera Manager: Initializing\n"); [...] Camera *camera1 = new Camera(NodeInfo,1, -44,0,0); cameras.push_back(*camera1); // Adding the following two lines causes camera1's destructor to be called. Why? Camera *camera2 = new Camera(NodeInfo,0, 44,0,0); cameras.push_back(*camera2); printf("Camera Manager: Ready\n"); }

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• How to pass a Lambda Expression as method parameter with EF

  - by Registered User

  How do I pass an EF expression as a method argument? To illustrate my question I have created a pseudo code example: The first example is my method today. The example utilizes EF and a Fancy Retry Logic. What I need to do is to encapsulate the Fancy Retry Logic so that it becomes more generic and does not duplicate. In the second example is how I want it to be, with a helper method that accepts the EF expression as an argument. This would be a trivial thing to do with SQL, but I want to do it with EF so that I can benefit from the strongly typed objects. First Example: public static User GetUser(String userEmail) { using (MyEntities dataModel = new MyEntities ()) { var query = FancyRetryLogic(() => { (dataModel.Users.FirstOrDefault<User>(x => x.UserEmail == userEmail))); }); return query; } } Second Example: T RetryHelper<T>(Expression<Func<T, TValue>> expression) { using (MyEntities dataModel = new (MyEntities ()) { var query = FancyRetryLogic(() => { return dataModel.expression }); } } public User GetUser(String userEmail) { return RetryHelper<User>(<User>.FirstOrDefault<User>(x => x.UserEmail == userEmail)) }

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• MySQL - What is wrong with this query or my database? Terrible performance.

  - by Moss

  SELECT * from `employees` a LEFT JOIN (SELECT phone1 p1, count(*) c, FROM `employees` GROUP BY phone1) b ON a.phone1 = b.p1; I'm not sure if it is this query in particular that has the problem. I have been getting terrible performance in general with this database. The table in question has 120,000 rows. I have tried this particular query remotely and locally with the MyISAM and InnoDB engines, with different types of joins, and with and without an index on phone1. I can get this to complete in about 4 minutes on a 10,000 row table successfully but performance drops exponentially with larger tables. Remotely it will lose connection to the server and locally it brings my system to its knees and seems to go on forever. This query is only a smaller step I was trying to do when a larger query couldn't complete. Maybe I should explain the whole scenario. I have one big flat ugly table that lists a bunch of people and their contact info and the info of the companies they work for. I'm trying to normalize the database and intelligently determine which phone numbers apply to individual people and which apply to an office location. My reasoning is that if a phone number occurs multiple times and the number of occurrence equals the number of times that the street address it is attached to occurs then it must be an office number. So the first step is to count each phone number grouping by phone number. Normally if you just use COUNT()...GROUP BY it will only list the first record it finds in that group so I figured I have to join the full table to the count table where the phone number matches. This does work but as I said I can't successfully complete it on any table much larger than 10,000 rows. This seems pathetic and this doesn't seem like a crazy query to do. Is there a better way to achieve what I want or do I have to break my large table into 12 pieces or is there something wrong with the table or db?

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• assigning selected="selected" to dynamic option list

  - by leemjac

  In an "edit article" page i have a select list which displays author first and last name, as well as authorId as the value. As well as the article context and headline and so on (fetched with a different method) - though this method also holds the authorId of the specific article. I need to have the Author of the Article selected in the option list, instead of it defaulting to the first option in the select list. what i have: echo''; //loop through author names in option list $authors_name foreach($authors_name as $nameRow){ echo'<option class="authorId" value = "' . $nameRow['AuthorID'] . '">'. $nameRow['FirstName'].' '.$nameRow['LastName'] .''; } echo'</select>'; and the jquery: var currID = ('#selectAuthor').val(); if(('.authorId').val() == currID){ $('.authorId').addClass('new_class') $('.new_class').prop('selected',true); } OR var currID = ('#selectAuthor').val(); if($("select option[value=currID]").attr('selected','selected')); Any help would be greatly appreciated, I hope what I am trying to do is clear. Thanks in advance I have simplified it with just regular input and checked it in jsfiddle.net here is the HTML '; <option value = "2">Name val 2</option> <option value = "5">Name val 5</option> <option value = "1">Name val 1</option> and here is the jquery var currID = $('#selectAuthor').val(); if($("select option[value='+currID+']").prop('selected',true));? and even then it doesn't apply selected="selected" to option with value="1"

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• Can I get an XPathNodeIterator directly from an XPath?

  - by Val

  I hope I'm just missing something obvious. I have a number of repeating nodes in an XML document: <root> <parent> <child/> <child/> </parent> </root> I need to examine the contents of each of the <child> elements in turn, so I need an XPathNodeIterator containing the nodeset of all the <child> nodes. If I have an XPath that would select the child nodes, e.g. /root/parent/child, is there any way to feed that directly to a new XPathNodeIterator? Everything I see in the docs and examples indicates I have to first get an XPathNavigator to the <parent>, then Select the child nodes, like: XPathNavigator nav = datasource.CreateNavigator().SelectSingleNode( "/root/parent" ); XPathNodeIterator it = nav.Select( "./child" ); foreach ( child in it ) { /* do something */ } I was hoping to skip the XPathNavigator, and intialize the XPathNodeIterator with XPath to the child nodes directly, something like: XpathNodeIterator it = new XpathNodeIterator("/root/parent/child"); foreach ( child in it ) { /* do something */ } Possible? The benefit is not only saving a line of code, but I can use a single XPath expression, rather than splitting the path to the <child> nodes in two, first to get the parent element, then to select its children.

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• Can't get gravity to work with RMagick and 'caption'

  - by mph

  I'm using RMagick 2.12.2 with ImageMagick 6.5.6-10 on Snow Leopard. I'm trying to put captions on a collection of photos, and I'm getting the caption to work (i.e. it appears on the image), but I can't get the gravity parameter to work correctly. No matter what I set it to, I end up with some variation on NorthGravity. For instance: Setting it to SouthWestGravity gives me NorthWestGravity. Setting it to SouthEastGravity gives me NorthEastGravity. Setting it to CenterGravity gives me NorthGravity. In other words, I can't get the caption to come down off the top of the image. I'd consider using "annotate," but I need "caption" so the lengthy caption text for each image will wrap. What am I doing wrong? Here's the code: #!/usr/bin/env ruby require "rubygems" require "yaml" require "RMagick" include Magick base_dir = "/Users/mike/Desktop/caption_test" photo_log = File.open("#{base_dir}/photo_log.yaml" ) YAML::load_documents(photo_log) do |doc| caption = doc["photo-caption"] filename = doc["file"] canvas = ImageList.new.from_blob(open("#{base_dir}/#{filename}") { |f| f.read } ) canvas << Magick::Image.read("caption:#{caption}") { self.gravity = SouthWestGravity self.size = "#{canvas.first.columns}" self.font = "Helvetica Neue" self.pointsize = 12 self.background_color = "#fff" }.first canvas.flatten_images.write("#{base_dir}/images/#{filename}") end

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• Is there "good" PRNG generating values without hidden state?

  - by actual

  I need some good pseudo random number generator that can be computed like a pure function from its previous output without any state hiding. Under "good" I mean: I must be able to parametrize generator in such way that running it for 2^n iterations with any parameters should cover all or almost all values between 0 and 2^n - 1, where n is the number of bits in output value. Combined generator output of n + p bits must cover all or almost all values between 0 and 2^(n + p) - 1 if I run it for 2^n iterations for every possible combination of its parameters, where p is the number of bits in parameters. For example, LCG can be computed like a pure function and it can meet first condition, but it can not meet second one. Say, we have 32-bit generator, m = 2^32 and it is constant, our p = 64 (two 32-bit parameters a and c), n + p = 96, so we must peek data by three ints from output to meet second condition. Unfortunately, condition can not be meet because of strictly alternating sequence of odd and even ints in output. To overcome this, hidden state must be introduced, but that makes function not pure and breaks first condition (period become much longer). Am I wanting too much?

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• Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

  - by Michal Czardybon

  Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

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• IE7 & 8 not fireing jQuery click events for elements appended inside a table

  - by Keith

  I have an IE bug that I'm not sure how to fix. Using jQuery I'm dynamically moving a menu to appear on an element on mouseover. My code (simplified) looks something like this: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready(function() { //do something on the menu clicks $j('div.ico').click(function() { alert($j(this).parent().html()); }); setUpActions('#tableId', '#menuId'); }); //on mouseover set up the actions menu to appear on mouseover function setUpActions(tableSelector, menuSelector) { $j(tableSelector + ' div.test').mouseover(function() { //note that append will move the underlying //DOM element with all events from it's old //parent to the end of this one. $j(this).append($j(menuSelector).show()); }); } This menu doesn't seem to register events correctly for the menu after it's been moved in IE7, IE8 and IE8-as-IE7 (yeah MS, that's really a 'new rendering engine' in IE8, we all believe you). It works as expected in everything else. You can see the behaviour in a basic demo here. In the demo you can see two examples of the issue: The image behind the buttons should change on hover (done with a CSS :hover selector). It works on the first mouseover but then persists. The click event doesn’t fire – however with the dev tools you can manually call it and it is still subscribed. You can see (2) in IE8's dev tools: Open page in IE8 Open dev tools Select "Script" tab and "Console" sub-tab Type: $j('#testFloat div.ico:first').click() to manually call any subscribed events There will be an alert on the page This means that I'm not losing the event subscriptions, they're still there, IE's just not calling them when I click. Does anyone know why this bug occurs (other than just because of IE's venerable engine)? Is there a workaround? Could it be something that I'm doing wrong that just happens to work as expected in everything else?

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• ReflectionTypeLoadException when I try to run Enable-Migrations with Entity Framework 5.0

  - by Eric Anastas

  I'm trying to use Entity Framework for the first time on one of my projects. I'm using the code first workflow to automatically create my database. Intitaly setting up the database worked fine. Now I'm trying to migrate changes in my classes into the database. The tutorial I'm reading says I need to run "Enable-Migrations" in the package manager console. Yet when I do this I get the following error PM> Enable-Migrations System.Reflection.ReflectionTypeLoadException: Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes(RuntimeModule module) at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes() at System.Reflection.Assembly.GetTypes() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.FindType[TBase](String typeName, Func`2 filter, Func`2 noType, Func`3 multipleTypes, Func`3 noTypeWithName, Func`3 multipleTypesWithName) at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.GetContextTypeRunner.RunCore() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.Run() Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. What am I doing wrong? How do I retrieve the loader exceptions property? Also NuGet says I have EF 5.0, but Version property of the EntityFramework item in my project references says 4.4.0.0. I'm not sure if this is related.

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• Android CursorAdapters, ListViews and background threads

  - by MattC

  This application I've been working on has databases with multiple megabytes of data to sift through. A lot of the activities are just ListViews descending through various levels of data within the databases until we reach "documents", which is just HTML to be pulled from the DB(s) and displayed on the phone. The issue I am having is that some of these activities need to have the ability to search through the databases by capturing keystrokes and re-running the query with a "like %blah%" in it. This works reasonably quickly except when the user is first loading the data and when the user first enters a keystroke. I am using a ResourceCursorAdapter and I am generating the cursor in a background thread, but in order to do a listAdapter.changeCursor(), I have to use a Handler to post it to the main UI thread. This particular call is then freezing the UI thread just long enough to bring up the dreaded ANR dialog. I'm curious how I can offload this to a background thread totally so the user interface remains responsive and we don't have ANR dialogs popping up. Just for full disclosure, I was originally returning an ArrayList of custom model objects and using an ArrayAdapter, but (understandably) the customer pointed out it was bad memory-manangement and I wasn't happy with the performance anyways. I'd really like to avoid a solution where I'm generating huge lists of objects and then doing a listAdapter.notifyDataSetChanged/Invalidated() Here is the code in question: private Runnable filterDrugListRunnable = new Runnable() { public void run() { if (filterLock.tryLock() == false) return; cur = ActivityUtils.getIndexItemCursor(DrugListActivity.this); if (cur == null || forceRefresh == true) { cur = docDb.getItemCursor(selectedIndex.getIndexId(), filter); ActivityUtils.setIndexItemCursor(DrugListActivity.this, cur); forceRefresh = false; } updateHandler.post(new Runnable() { public void run() { listAdapter.changeCursor(cur); } }); filterLock.unlock(); updateHandler.post(hideProgressRunnable); updateHandler.post(updateListRunnable); } };

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• Simple POSIX threads question

  - by Andy

  Hi, I have this POSIX thread: void subthread(void) { while(!quit_thread) { // do something ... // don't waste cpu cycles if(!quit_thread) usleep(500); } // free resources ... // tell main thread we're done quit_thread = FALSE; } Now I want to terminate subthread() from my main thread. I've tried the following: quit_thread = TRUE; // wait until subthread() has cleaned its resources while(quit_thread); But it does not work! The while() clause does never exit although my subthread clearly sets quit_thread to FALSE after having freed its resources! If I modify my shutdown code like this: quit_thread = TRUE; // wait until subthread() has cleaned its resources while(quit_thread) usleep(10); Then everything is working fine! Could someone explain to me why the first solution does not work and why the version with usleep(10) suddenly works? I know that this is not a pretty solution. I could use semaphores/signals for this but I'd like to learn something about multithreading, so I'd like to know why my first solution doesn't work. Thanks!

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• Attribute Address getting displayed instead of Attribute Value

  - by Manish

  I am try to create the following. I want to have one drop down menu. Depending on the option selected in the first drop down menu, options in second drop down menu will be displayed. The options in 2nd drop down menu is supposed by dynamic, i.e., options change with the change of values in first menu. Here, instead of getting the drop down menus, I am getting the following Choose your Option1: Choose your Option2: Note: I strictly don't want to use javascript. home_form.py class HomeForm(forms.Form): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): var_filter_con = kwargs.pop('filter_con', None) super(HomeForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) if var_filter_con == '***': var_empty_label = None else: var_empty_label = ' ' self.option2 = forms.ModelChoiceField(queryset = db_option2.objects.filter(option1_id = var_filter_con).order_by("name"), empty_label = var_empty_label, widget = forms.Select(attrs={"onChange":'this.form.submit();'}) ) self.option1 = forms.ModelChoiceField(queryset = db_option1.objects.all().order_by("name"), empty_label=None, widget=forms.Select(attrs={"onChange":'this.form.submit();'}) ) view.py def option_view(request): if request.method == 'POST': form = HomeForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): cd = form.cleaned_data if cd.has_key('option1'): f = HomeForm(filter_con = cd.get('option1')) return render_to_response('homepage.html', {'home_form':f,}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) return render_to_response('invalid_data.html', {'form':form,}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) else: f = HomeForm(filter_con = '***') return render_to_response('homepage.html', {'home_form':f,}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) homepage.html <!DOCTYPE HTML> <head> <title>Nivaaran</title> </head> <body> <form method="post" name = 'choose_opt' action=""> {% csrf_token %} Choose your Option1: {{ home_form.option1 }} <br/> Choose your Option2: {{ home_form.option2 }} </form> </body>

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• LINQ to Entites - Left Outer Join - SQL 2000

  - by user255234

  Hi! I'm using Linq to Entities. I have the following query in my code, it includes left outer Join: var surgeonList = (from item in context.T1_STM_Surgeon.Include("T1_STM_SurgeonTitle") .Include("OTER").Include("OSLP") join reptable in context.OSLP on item.Rep equals reptable.SlpCode into surgRepresentative where item.ID == surgeonId select new { ID = item.ID, First = item.First, Last = item.Last, Rep = (surgRepresentative.FirstOrDefault() != null) ? surgRepresentative.FirstOrDefault().SlpName : "N/A", Reg = item.OTER.descript, PrimClinic = item.T1_STM_ClinicalCenter.Name, Titles = item.T1_STM_SurgeonTitle, Phone = item.Phone, Email = item.Email, Address1 = item.Address1, Address2 = item.Address2, City = item.City, State = item.State, Zip = item.Zip, Comments = item.Comments, Active = item.Active, DateEntered = item.DateEntered }) .ToList(); My DEV server has SQL 2008, so the code works just fine. When I moved this code to client's production server - they use SQL 2000, I started getting "Incorrect syntax near '(' ". I've tried changing the ProviderManifestToken to 2000 in my .edmx file, then I started getting "The execution of this query requires the APPLY operator, which is not supported in versions of SQL Server earlier than SQL Server 2005." I tied changing the token to 2005, the "Incorrect syntax near '(' " is back. Can anybody help me to find a workaround for this? Thank you very much in advance!

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• Import CSV to class structure as the user defines

  - by Assimilater

  I have a contact manager program and I would like to offer the feature to import csv files. The problem is that different data sources order the fields in different ways. I thought of programming an interface for the user to tell it the field order and how to handle exceptions. Here is an example line in one of many possible field orders: "ID#","Name","Rank","Address1","Address2","City","State","Country","Zip","Phone#","Email","Join Date","Sponsor ID","Sponsor Name" "Z1234","Call, Anson","STU","1234 E. 6578 S.","","Somecity","TX","United States","012345","000-000-0000","[email protected]","5/24/2010","z12343","Quantum Independence" Notice that in one data field "Name" there is a comma to separate last name and first name and in another there is not. My plan is to have a line for each field (ie ID, Name, City etc.) and a statement "import to" and list box with options like: Don't Import, BusinessJoin Date, First Name, Zip and the program recognizes those as properties of an object... I'd also like the user to be able to record preset field orders so they can re-use them for csv files from the same download source. Then I also need it to check if a record all ready exists (is there a record for Anson Call all ready?) and allow the user to tell it what to do if there is a record (ie mailing address may have changes, so if that field is filled overwrite it, or this mailing address is invalid, leave the current data untouched for this person, overwrite the rest). While I'm capable of coding this...i'm not very excited about it and I'm wondering if there's a tool or set of tools out there to all ready perform most of this functionality... I hope this makes sense...

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• xsl defining in xml

  - by aditya parikh

  My first few lines in movies.xml are as follows : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="movies_style.xsl"?> <movies xmlns="http://www.w3schools.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.w3schools.com file:///B:/USC/Academic/DBMS/HWS/no3/movie_sch.xsd"> and first few lines in movies_style.xsl are as follows : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:fo="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Format"> Problem is if remove schema file linking from movies.xml file and keep tag only as <movies> then proper styled table is shown as output else nothing is displayed in browser and error is displayed in console as: "Unsafe attempt to load URL file:///B:/USC/Academic/DBMS/HWS/no3/movies_style.xsl from frame with URL file:///B:/USC/Academic/DBMS/HWS/no3/movies.xml. Domains, protocols and ports must match." Looks like some namespace mistake. Can anyone point out exactly what ?

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• Deploy to web container, bundle web container or embed web container...

  - by Jason

  I am developing an application that needs to be as simple as possible to install for the end user. While the end users will likely be experience Linux users (or sales engineers), they don't really know anything about Tomcat, Jetty, etc, nor do I think they should. So I see 3 ways to deploy our applications. I should also state that this is the first app that I have had to deploy that had a web interface, so I haven't really faced this question before. First is to deploy the application into an existing web container. Since we only deploy to Suse or RedHat this seems easy enough to do. However, we're not big on the idea of multiple apps running in one web container. It makes it harder to take down just one app. The next option is to just bundle Tomcat or Jetty and have the startup/shutdown scripts launch our bundled web container. Or 3rd, embed.. This will probably provide the same user experience as the second option. I'm curious what others do when faced with this problem to make it as fool proof as possible on the end user. I've almost ruled out deploying into an existing web container as we often like to set per application resource limits and CPU affinity, which I believe would affect all apps deployed into a web container/app server and not just a specific application. Thank you.

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