Search Results

Search found 27144 results on 1086 pages for 'tail call optimization'.

Page 423/1086 | < Previous Page | 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430  | Next Page >

  • Is "}while(0);" always equal to "break;}while(1);" ?

    - by Hernán Eche
    I have compared gcc assembler output of do{ //some code }while(0); with do{ //some code break; }while(1); The output is equal, with or without optimization but.. It's always that way? No experiment can prove theories, they can only show they are wrong And because (I hope) programming is not an experimental science, and results can be predicted (at least simple things) I want to be sure next time I reeplace a break;}while(1); for the clearer (and less risky) while(0); Thank you for reading

    Read the article

  • c++ push_back doesn't work as it is supposed

    - by angela
    I have a class symbol_table that has a vector of objects of another class row_st.also I have an enter method where inserts objects of row_st with a passed name into the vector of desired symbol_table.but when I call the enter to enter objects with name : a;b;c;Iwill get the following result: a,b,c;b,c;c.the first element of vector gets the name of all the entered objects. and the second element also gets the name of the later entries. class row_st { public: char* name; type_u type;//int:0,flaot:1;char:2,bool:3,array: int offset; symbol_table *next; symbol_table *current; }; class symbol_table { public: vector <row_st *> row; int type; int header; int starting_stmt; int index; int i; symbol_table *previous; symbol_table(){ header=0; previous=0; index=0;i=0;starting_stmt=0;} }; and here it is the enter method: int enter(symbol_table *table,char* name,type_u type){ row_st *t=new row_st; t->name=name; t->type=type; t->offset=table->index; t->current=table; table->index++; t->next=0; table->row.push_back(t); table->header +=1; return table->row.size()-1; } the push_backed elements all points to the same address.the new call makes the same row_st every time it is called.what should I do?

    Read the article

  • redirect web app results to own application

    - by vbNewbie
    Is it possible to redirect a web apps results to a second application? I cannot parse the html source. It contains the javascript functions that execute the queries but all the content is probably server side. I hope this makes sense. The owner has made the script available but I am not sure how this helps. Can I using .net call the site and redirect results perhaps to a file or database? the app accesses one of googles apis and performs searches/queries and returns results which are displayed on the site. Now all the javascript functions that perform these queries are listed in the source but I do not know javascript so it does not make much sense to me. I have used the documentation which uses the oauth protocol to access the api and have implemented that in my web app but it took me nearly a week to get the request token right and now to send requests to the api, sometimes I get one result back and sometimes none. It is frustrating me and the owner of the web app has given use of his script but he says all that happens is that my browser interacts with the google api and not his server. So I thought why not have my web app call his, since his interacts with the API flawlessly and have the results sent to my app to save in a database. I have very little experience here so pardon my ignorance

    Read the article

  • ID3DXAnimationController.RegisterAnimationSet - How exactly is this supposed to work?

    - by TrespassersW
    I have a mesh file that contains the skinned mesh that I want, and then a bunch of separate animation files that contain various AnimationSets. I'd like to have my program dynamically build the list of AnimationSets available to a mesh at run-time. I know I can combine these into one mesh file using MView, but that isn't practical for what I'm planning. I thought this would be pretty simple since ID3DXAnimationController.RegisterAnimationSet seems like it exists to do exactly this and the MView mesh viewer program can do this. But when I call RegisterAnimationSet using an animation from a different file, it fails with an unhelpful Invalid Call return value. Both the skinned mesh and the animation were exported from the same 3DS file, so I'm pretty certain that they are compatible. Here's my code: var anim : ID3DXAnimationSet; am : IDxAnimMesh; begin fAnim := ResMgr.AnimFetch('man01.x'); am := ResMgr.AnimFetch('a_rigtest.x'); DXCheck(am.Controller.GetAnimationSet(0,anim)); DXCheck(fAnim.Controller.RegisterAnimationSet(anim)); end; The file "man01.x" contains a default animation. And "a_rigtest.x" contains an animation exported from a different portion of the timeline fromt the same 3DS file. So it seems like they should be compatible. MView combines them with no trouble. Am I doing something wrong? Does anyone know how this is supposed to work? Or better yet, does anyone know where I could find the source code to MView? Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL Queries odd Materialization

    - by ptoinson
    I ran across an interesting Linq to SQL, uh, feature, the other day. Perhaps someone can give me a logical explanation for the reasoning behind the results. Take the code below as my example which utilizes the AdventureWorks database setup in a Linq to SQL DataContext. This is a clip from my unit test. The resulting customer returned from a call to both CustomerQuery_Test_01() and CustomerQuery_Test_02() is the same. However, the query executed on the SQLServer are different is a major way. The method CustomerQuery_Test_01 us causing the entire Customer table to be materialized, which the call to CustomerQuery_Test_02 is only causing the single customer to be materialized. The resulting SQL Queries are at the bottom of this post. Anyone have a good reason for this? To me, it was highly non-intuitive. protected virtual Customer GetByPrimaryKey(Func<Customer, bool> keySelection) { AdventureWorksDataContext context = new AdventureWorksDataContext(); return (from r in context.Customers select r).SingleOrDefault(keySelection); } [TestMethod] public void CustomerQuery_Test_01() { Customer customer = GetByPrimaryKey(c => c.CustomerID == 2); } [TestMethod] public void CustomerQuery_Test_02() { AdventureWorksDataContext context = new AdventureWorksDataContext(); Customer customer = (from r in context.Customers select r).SingleOrDefault(c => c.CustomerID == 2); } Query for CustomerQuery_Test_01 (notice the lack of a where clause) SELECT [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[NameStyle], [t0].[Title], [t0].[FirstName], [t0].[MiddleName], [t0].[LastName], [t0].[Suffix], [t0].[CompanyName], [t0].[SalesPerson], [t0].[EmailAddress], [t0].[Phone], [t0].[PasswordHash], [t0].[PasswordSalt], [t0].[rowguid], [t0].[ModifiedDate] FROM [SalesLT].[Customer] AS [t0] Query for CustomerQuery_Test_02 (notice the where clause) SELECT [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[NameStyle], [t0].[Title], [t0].[FirstName], [t0].[MiddleName], [t0].[LastName], [t0].[Suffix], [t0].[CompanyName], [t0].[SalesPerson], [t0].[EmailAddress], [t0].[Phone], [t0].[PasswordHash], [t0].[PasswordSalt], [t0].[rowguid], [t0].[ModifiedDate] FROM [SalesLT].[Customer] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[CustomerID] = @p0

    Read the article

  • Major JQuery bug on IE not reproducible - What can i do in this situation to solve this bug?

    - by ming yeow
    I am hoping to get some help on this issue. Some users on IE have been reporting this javascript issue, but I have been unable to re-produce it. In essence, for some class of windows IE users, the game doesn't work (or $.ajax() is not working). What I know: I swapped out an ajax call (ajax_init_trainer) and used a standard link with some request parameters to do the initialization and ppl seemed to get passed the problem until they hit the next ajax call. I read somewhere that IE does crazy caching so you need to make the urls unique, which is why i added the _requestno parameter. However, setting the cache:false is said to also do this. This didn't fix it for someone who was complaining. function done(res, status) { var data = JSON.parse(res.responseText); hide_loading(); if (status == "success") { window.location.href="/bamo/battle/?{{ fb_sig}}"; } else { display_alert("Problem!",data.msg,$("#notifications")); } }; $(".monster_select_class").click(function() { $(this).attr("src","{{MEDIA_URL}}/bamo/button_select_click.png"); monster_class = $(this).attr("monster_class"); monster_type = $(this).attr("monster_type"); ajax_init_trainer(monster_class,monster_type); }); function ajax_init_trainer(trainer_class,monster_type) { var data = {trainer_class:trainer_class,monster_type:monster_type}; var d = new Date(); var args = { type:"POST",url:"/bamo/api/init_trainer/?_requestno="+d.getTime(),data:data,contentType:"application/json;", dataType: "json",cache:false,complete:done}; $.ajax(args); return false; };

    Read the article

  • Context.Items.Add on an XML return type?

    - by Scott Schluer
    So I have the following code contained within an HttpModule in an application I've been asked to support: app.Context.Response.ContentType = "text/xml"; app.Context.Items.Add("IpixRoomId", ipixRoomId); app.Context.Items.Add("IpixId", ipixId); app.Context.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); app.Context.RewritePath(rewriteUrl, true); What's the purpose of adding data to Context.Items when the content type is XML? EDIT: For clarification, I'm calling up this URL: http://website.com/virtualtour/1971/6284/panorama2flash.swf I assume the SWF file (I know very little about Flash) makes another call to http://website.com/virtualtour/config.xml. The code I pasted above only executes on calls to config.xml. So since it's only the SWF file and config.xml being requested from the server, I'm a little confused. Can the .SWF file have access to HttpContext.Current.Items? Other than the HttpModule, there is no .NET involved in the code, it's a straight request to the SWF file which triggers a call to config.xml but it seems that those Context.Items contain the data needed to make the SWF file display the right virtual tour. I'm just missing where that link happens. It can't happen in the XML, so maybe in Flash?

    Read the article

  • Change object on client side or on server side

    - by Polina Feterman
    I'm not sure what is the best practice. I have some big and complex objects (NOT flat). In that object I have many related objects - for example Invoice is the main class and one of it's properties is invoiceSupervisor - a big class by it's own called User. User can also be not flat and have department property - also an object called Department. For example I want create new Invoice. First way: I can present to client several fields to fill in. Some of them will be combos that I will need to fill with available values. For example available invoiceSupervisors. Then all the chosen values I can send to server and on server I can create new Invoice and assign all chosen values to that new Invoice. Then I will need to assign new supervisor I will pull the chosen User by id that user picked up on server from combobox. I might do some verification on the User such as does the user applicable to be invoice supervisor. Then I will assign the User object to invoiceSupervisor. Then after filling all properties I will save the new invoice. Second way: In the beginning I can call to server to get a new Invoice. Then on client I can fill all chosen values , for example I can call to server to get new User object and then fill it's id from combobox and assign the User as invoiceSupervisor. After filling the Invoice object on client I can send it to server and then the server will save the new invoice. Before saving server can run some validations as well. So what is the best approach - to make the object on client and send it to server or to collect all values from client and to make a new object on server using those values ?

    Read the article

  • Looking for an appropriate design pattern

    - by user1066015
    I have a game that tracks user stats after every match, such as how far they travelled, how many times they attacked, how far they fell, etc, and my current implementations looks somewhat as follows (simplified version): Class Player{ int id; public Player(){ int id = Math.random()*100000; PlayerData.players.put(id,new PlayerData()); } public void jump(){ //Logic to make the user jump //... //call the playerManager PlayerManager.jump(this); } public void attack(Player target){ //logic to attack the player //... //call the player manager PlayerManager.attack(this,target); } } Class PlayerData{ public static HashMap<int, PlayerData> players = new HashMap<int,PlayerData>(); int id; int timesJumped; int timesAttacked; } public void incrementJumped(){ timesJumped++; } public void incrementAttacked(){ timesAttacked++; } } Class PlayerManager{ public static void jump(Player player){ players.get(player.getId()).incrementJumped(); } public void incrementAttacked(Player player, Player target){ players.get(player.getId()).incrementAttacked(); } } So I have a PlayerData class which holds all of the statistics, and brings it out of the player class because it isn't part of the player logic. Then I have PlayerManager, which would be on the server, and that controls the interactions between players (a lot of the logic that does that is excluded so I could keep this simple). I put the calls to the PlayerData class in the Manager class because sometimes you have to do certain checks between players, for instance if the attack actually hits, then you increment "attackHits". The main problem (in my opinion, correct me if I'm wrong) is that this is not very extensible. I will have to touch the PlayerData class if I want to keep track of a new stat, by adding methods and fields, and then I have to potentially add more methods to my PlayerManager, so it isn't very modulized. If there is an improvement to this that you would recommend, I would be very appreciative. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Perl, Net::Traceroute::PurePerl return value

    - by John R
    This is a sub routine that I copied from CPAN. It works fine as it is when I run it from the command line. I have a similar function from Net::Traceroute that also works fine AND allows me to return the string with a SOAP call. The problem comes when I try to return the ~string(?) from the function below with a SOAP call. sub tr { use Net::Traceroute::PurePerl; my $t = new Net::Traceroute::PurePerl( backend => 'PurePerl', # this optional host => 'www.whatever.com', debug => 0, max_ttl => 30, query_timeout => 2, packetlen => 40, protocol => 'udp', # Or icmp ); $t->traceroute; $t->pretty_print; return $t; #print $t; } The output looks like a string except the last part of the string looks like this: 28 * * * 29 * * * 30 * * * Net::Traceroute::PurePerl=HASH(0x11fa6bf0) I don't know what is different about Net::Traceroute::PurePerl that won't allow me to return the value with SOAP since the Net::Traceroute version does allow me to return it with SOAP.

    Read the article

  • Can you explain this generics behavior and if I have a workaround?

    - by insta
    Sample program below: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace GenericsTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IRetrievable<int, User> repo = new FakeRepository(); Console.WriteLine(repo.Retrieve(35)); } } class User { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class FakeRepository : BaseRepository<User>, ICreatable<User>, IDeletable<User>, IRetrievable<int, User> { // why do I have to implement this here, instead of letting the // TKey generics implementation in the baseclass handle it? //public User Retrieve(int input) //{ // throw new NotImplementedException(); //} } class BaseRepository<TPoco> where TPoco : class,new() { public virtual TPoco Create() { return new TPoco(); } public virtual bool Delete(TPoco item) { return true; } public virtual TPoco Retrieve<TKey>(TKey input) { return null; } } interface ICreatable<TPoco> { TPoco Create(); } interface IDeletable<TPoco> { bool Delete(TPoco item); } interface IRetrievable<TKey, TPoco> { TPoco Retrieve(TKey input); } } This sample program represents the interfaces my actual program uses, and demonstrates the problem I'm having (commented out in FakeRepository). I would like for this method call to be generically handled by the base class (which in my real example is able to handle 95% of the cases given to it), allowing for overrides in the child classes by specifying the type of TKey explicitly. It doesn't seem to matter what parameter constraints I use for the IRetrievable, I can never get the method call to fall through to the base class. Also, if anyone can see an alternate way to implement this kind of behavior and get the result I'm ultimately looking for, I would be very interested to see it. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Unsure how to come up with a good design

    - by Mewzer
    Hello there, I am having trouble coming up with a good design for a group of classes and was hoping that someone could give me some guidance on best practices. I have kept the classes and member functions generic to make the problem simpler. Essentially, I have three classes (lets call them A, B, and C) as follows: class A { ... int GetX( void ) const { return x; }; int GetY( void ) const { return y; }; private: B b; // NOTE: A "has-a" B int x; int y; }; class B { ... void SetZ( int value ) { z = value }; private: int z; C c; // NOTE: B "has-a" C }; class C { private: ... void DoSomething(int x, int y){ ... }; void DoSomethingElse( int z ){ ... }; }; My problem is as follows: Class A uses its member variables "x" and "y" a lot internally. Class B uses its member variable "z" a lot internally. Class B needs to call C::DoSomething(), but C::DoSomething() needs the values of X and Y in class A passed in as arguments. C::DoSomethingElse() is called from say another class (e.g. D), but it needs to invoke SetZ() in class B!. As you can see, it is a bit of a mess as all the classes need information from one another!. Are there any design patterns I can use?. Any ideas would be much appreciated ....

    Read the article

  • How do I delete duplicates between two excel sheets quickly vba

    - by MainTank
    I am using vba and I have two sheets one is named "Do Not Call" and has about 800,000 rows of data in column A. I want to use this data to check column I in the second sheet, named "Sheet1". If it finds a match I want it to delete the whole row in "Sheet1". I have tailored the code I have found from a similar question here: Excel formula to Cross reference 2 sheets, remove duplicates from one sheet and ran it but nothing happens. I am not getting any errors but it is not functioning. Here is the code I am currently trying and have no idea why it is not working Option Explicit Sub CleanDupes() Dim wsA As Worksheet Dim wsB As Worksheet Dim keyColA As String Dim keyColB As String Dim rngA As Range Dim rngB As Range Dim intRowCounterA As Integer Dim intRowCounterB As Integer Dim strValueA As String keyColA = "A" keyColB = "I" intRowCounterA = 1 intRowCounterB = 1 Set wsA = Worksheets("Do Not Call") Set wsB = Worksheets("Sheet1") Dim dict As Object Set dict = CreateObject("Scripting.Dictionary") Do While Not IsEmpty(wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA).Value) Set rngA = wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA) strValueA = rngA.Value If Not dict.Exists(strValueA) Then dict.Add strValueA, 1 End If intRowCounterA = intRowCounterA + 1 Loop intRowCounterB = 1 Do While Not IsEmpty(wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB).Value) Set rngB = wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB) If dict.Exists(rngB.Value) Then wsB.Rows(intRowCounterB).delete intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB - 1 End If intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB + 1 Loop End Sub I apologize if the above code is not in a code tag. This is my first time posting code online and I have no idea if I did it correctly.

    Read the article

  • .htaccess trickery multi-language website

    - by user1658741
    I have a website right now that uses two languages (french and english) The way it works right now is that if someone goes to mysite.com/folder/file.php for example, file.php is simply a script that figures out which language to use, get's it's own path and filename(file.php) and serves up mysite.com/en/folder/file.php (if the language is english). However what shows up in the URL is still mysite.com/folder/file.php. For any folder and any file the same script is used. If I want to add a new file I have to add the file to the folder the user types into the browser as well to the en and fr folders. Could I do some .htaccess trickery so that whatever URL is typed, one .php file gets open that checks the language and what folder/file was requested and then serves up the correct language file? here's the php file that is served up for any files in the URL. <?php // Get current document path which is mirrored in the language folders $docpath = $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; // Get current document name (Used when switching languages so that the same current page is shown when language is changed) $docname = GetDocName(); //call up lang.php which handles display of appropriate language webpage. //lang.php uses $docpath and $docname to give out the proper $langfile. //$docpath/$docname is mirrored in the /lang/en and /lang/fr folders $langfile = GetDocRoot()."/lang/lang.php"; include("$langfile"); //Call up the proper language file to display function GetDocRoot() { $temp = getenv("SCRIPT_NAME"); $localpath=realpath(basename(getenv("SCRIPT_NAME"))); $localpath=str_replace("\\","/",$localpath); $docroot=substr($localpath,0, strpos($localpath,$temp)); return $docroot; } function GetDocName() { $currentFile = $_SERVER["SCRIPT_NAME"]; $parts = Explode('/', $currentFile); $dn = $parts[count($parts) - 1]; return $dn; } ?>

    Read the article

  • Page Entirely Blank Despite Having Source Code! (TinyMCE, FireFox)

    - by Chris Cooper
    Alright guys, here's a tough one... In reference to this page. The page will seemingly randomly not display the output of server when using Firefox (version 3.5). I have not seen this problem occur in Safari or IE. The best way to have the problem occur is just reload the page about 10 times and it ought to have happened by then, and once it does - it'll continue on subsequent refreshes until you change the page. The problem is literally the browser not displaying the output (code). Viewing the source shows all the appropriate code yet the browser displays a blank white page. The web developer and firebug plugins don't show any errors that would indicate the problem. I have tested this on a separate system and OS and it occurs in Firefox on that system as well. The problem did not occur until after TinyMCE (A Rich Text Editor JavaScript library for textareas) was added to the project. TinyMCE works however, where it should. I know this is a confusing problem, but I am completely lost as to what could be causing this significant issue. Thanks in advance. EDIT: If it's any help... I've noticed that if I cause a css file error by changing a stylesheet source to something non-existant (xxx.css), the page will continuously display without a problem (besides whatever related css not showing due to the src change). I've also noticed that causing any simple javascript error with some bad code will cause the page to load properly continuously (besides of course javascript not running on the page). EDIT#2: Moving all <script> tags down at the tail of the <body> 'fixes' (well, hides) this error and the page shows normally. A band-aid.

    Read the article

  • NullPointerException on Activity Testint Tutorial

    - by Bendik
    Hello, I am currently trying the activity testing tutorial (Found here), and have a problem. It seems that whenever I try to call something inside the UIThread, I get a java.lang.NullPointerException. public void testSpinnerUI() { mActivity.runOnUiThread( new Runnable() { public void run() { mSpinner.requestFocus(); } }); } This gives me: Incomplete: java.lang.NullPointerException and nothing else. I have tried this on two different samples now, with the same result. I tried with a try/catch clause around the mSpinner.requestFocus() call, and it seems that mSpinner is null inside the thread. I have set it properly up with the setUp() function found in the same sample, and a quick assertNotNull( mSpinner ) shows me that mSpinner is in fact not null after the setUp() function. What can be the cause of this? EDIT; ok, some more testing has been done. It seems that the application that is being tested resets between each test. This essentially makes me have to reinstantiate all variables between each test. Is this normal?

    Read the article

  • Usage of setInfoClass() on DirectoryIterator vs on RecursiveDirectoryIterator

    - by Gordon
    I've ran into an inconsistent behavior when using setInfoClass to set a custom SplFileInfo class to a DirectoryIterator versus setting it to a RecursiveIterator. The method description states: Use this method to set a custom class which will be used when getFileInfo and getPathInfo are called. The class name passed to this method must be derived from SplFileInfo. Consider this custom SplFileInfo class A extends SplFileInfo { public function test() { printf("I am of class %s\n", __CLASS__); } } and my iterators $iterator = new DirectoryIterator('.'); and $iterator = new RecursiveDirectoryIterator('.'); Now I'd expect those two to behave the same when I do $iterator->setInfoClass('A'); foreach($iterator as $file) { $file->test(); } and output 'I am of A' for each $file encountered and in fact, the RecursiveDirectoryIterator will do that. But the DirectoryIterator will raise Fatal error: Call to undefined method DirectoryIterator::test() so apparently the InfoClass does not get applied when iterating over the files. At least not directly, because when I change the code in the foreach loop to $file->getPathInfo()->test(); it will work for the DirectoryIterator. But then the RecursiveDirectoryIterator will raise Fatal error: Call to undefined method SplFileInfo::test() Like I said, I'd expect those two to behave the same, but apparently getFileInfo and getPathInfo don't get called in the DirectoryIterator, which I consider a bug. So if there is any Iterator experts out there, please help me understand this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I use io.StringIO() with the csv module?

    - by Tim Pietzcker
    I tried to backport a Python 3 program to 2.7, and I'm stuck with a strange problem: >>> import io >>> import csv >>> output = io.StringIO() >>> output.write("Hello!") # Fail: io.StringIO expects Unicode Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> TypeError: unicode argument expected, got 'str' >>> output.write(u"Hello!") # This works as expected. 6L >>> writer = csv.writer(output) # Now let's try this with the csv module: >>> csvdata = [u"Hello", u"Goodbye"] # Look ma, all Unicode! (?) >>> writer.writerow(csvdata) # Sadly, no. Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> TypeError: unicode argument expected, got 'str' According to the docs, io.StringIO() returns an in-memory stream for Unicode text. It works correctly when I try and feed it a Unicode string manually. Why does it fail in conjunction with the csv module, even if all the strings being written are Unicode strings? Where does the str come from that causes the Exception? (I do know that I can use StringIO.StringIO() instead, but I'm wondering what's wrong with io.StringIO() in this scenario)

    Read the article

  • Can I replicate some of the optimisations done by the JVM by hand?

    - by Subb
    I'm working on a Sudoku solver at school and we're having a little performance contest. Right now, my algorithm is pretty fast on the first run (about 2.5ms), but even faster when I solve the same puzzle 10 000 times (about 0.5ms for each run). Those timing are, of course, depend of the puzzle being solved. I know the JVM do some optimization when a method is called multiple time, and this is what I suspect is happening. I don't think I can further optimize the algorithm itself (though I'll keep looking), so I was wondering if I could replicate some of the optimizations done by the JVM. Note : compiling to native code is not an option Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Web service failing when installed in seperate project from the website...

    - by Adam
    I am totally new to web services and cannot get mine to work. My setup is on VS 2008 using IIS. I have one solution file with 3 projects in it: website, code, and services. If I put my webservice into my website and call it locally then it will work fine (it's just a hello world web service). I want to put the service into a different location for use from multiple sites. I don't know what I'm doing wrong - i've read so much conflicting info regarding disco files, access files, silverlight, flash, java, etc. I just looking for quick simple steps to create a web service that I can access from javascript and deploy to a seperate website. End goal is to have functionality in webservices so that website will call via JS and run much smoother in the loading time and async calls. Do I need to create a disco file? Do I need to configure security? -- I know this is prob best, i'm just looking to get it working at all. Do I need to allow cross browser access on IIS or on my hosted server? Are there any quick reference websites that you can recommend? Should I be using WCF as new technology? - I saw this on MSDN but seems to be more for windows apps then web apps. I'm not getting any specific error codes. I have installed the firefox debugging tools (firebug) and I can see what the headers are but I don't know how to interpret them and there is no response being passed back. Any help is appreciated!!!

    Read the article

  • jsf custom control strange behaviour

    - by Cristian Boariu
    hi, I have a jsf custom control which contains this: <rich:column> <c:if test="#{not empty columnTitle}"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:spacer/> </f:facet> </c:if> <s:link view="#{view}" value="#{messages['edit']}" propagation="#{propagation}"> <f:param name="${paramName}" value="${paramValue}"/> </s:link> &#160; <h:commandLink action="#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}" value="#{messages['remove']}"/> </rich:column> You see that command link action. I want it to call an action like this: action="#{documentHome.removeProperty(property)"} Well, in order to do this i call the control like: <up:columnDetails view="/admin/property.xhtml" columnTitle="yes" entity="#{property}" paramValue="#{property.propertyId}" propagation="nest" entityHome="documentHome" removeMethodName="removeProperty"/> So, i hardcode entityHome and removeMethodName. Well an error is firing. Caused by javax.servlet.ServletException with message: "#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}: javax.el.MethodNotFoundException It seems that it cannot interpret "removeMethodName". If i print entityHome or removeMethodName it correctly shows the values i pass. But i think jsf has an error like not beeing able to "believe" that after an object.something, that something can be a parameter... Can anyone guide me...?

    Read the article

  • C++ privately contructed class

    - by Nona Urbiz
    How can I call a function and keep my constructor private? If I make the class static, I need to declare an object name which the compiler uses to call the constructor, which it cannot if the constructor is private (also the object would be extraneous). Here is the code I am attempting to use (it is not compilable): I want to keep the constructor private because I will later be doing a lot of checks before adding an object, modifying previous objects when all submitted variables are not unique rather than creating new objects. #include <iostream> #include <fstream> #include <regex> #include <string> #include <list> #include <map> using namespace std; using namespace tr1; class Referral { public: string url; map<string, int> keywords; static bool submit(string url, string keyword, int occurrences) { //if(Referrals.all.size == 0){ // Referral(url, keyword, occurrences); //} } private: list<string> urls; Referral(string url, string keyword, int occurrences) { url = url; keywords[keyword] = occurrences; Referrals.all.push_back(this); } }; struct All { list<Referral> all; }Referrals; int main() { Referral.submit("url", "keyword", 1); }

    Read the article

  • Maximize/Minimize is causing Close Button to be re-enabled after disabling it -- Why?

    - by Brainsick
    I have used P/Invoke to call GetSystemMenu and EnableMenuItem (win32api) to disable the close functionality. However, after minimizing or maximizing my Windows Forms application the button is re-enabled. Obviously minimizing or maximizing is causing the behavior, but how? I'm not sure where to look to prevent this behavior. Should I be preventing the maximize and minimize behavior or is there something particularly wrong with the way in which I P/Invoked the calls? Once the application (main form) has loaded, I call the static method from a button click. class PInvoke { // P/Invoke signatures [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr GetSystemMenu(IntPtr hWnd, bool bRevert); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern bool EnableMenuItem(IntPtr hMenu, uint uIDEnableItem, uint uEnable); // SysCommand (WM_SYSCOMMAND) constant internal const UInt32 SC_CLOSE = 0xF060; // Constants used with Add/Check/EnableMenuItem internal const UInt32 MF_BYCOMMAND = 0x00000000; internal const UInt32 MF_ENABLED = 0x00000000; internal const UInt32 MF_GRAYED = 0x00000001; internal const UInt32 MF_DISABLED = 0x00000002; /// <summary> /// Sets the state of the Close (X) button and the System Menu close functionality. /// </summary> /// <param name="window">Window or Form</param> /// <param name="bEnabled">Enabled state</param> public static void EnableCloseButton(IWin32Window window, bool bEnabled) { IntPtr hSystemMenu = GetSystemMenu(window.Handle, false); EnableMenuItem(hSystemMenu, SC_CLOSE, MF_BYCOMMAND | (bEnabled ? MF_ENABLED : MF_GRAYED)); } }

    Read the article

  • Converting keys of an array/object-tree to lowercase

    - by tstenner
    Im currently optimizing a PHP application and found one function being called around 10-20k times, so I'd thought I'd start optimization there. function keysToLower($obj) { if(!is_object($obj) && !is_array($obj)) return $obj; foreach($obj as $key=>$element) { $element=keysToLower($element); if(is_object($obj)) { $obj->{strtolower($key)}=$element; if(!ctype_lower($key)) unset($obj->{$key}); } else if(is_array($obj) && ctype_upper($key)) { $obj[strtolower($key)]=$element; unset($obj[$key]); } } return $obj; } Most of the time is spent in recursive calls (which are quite slow in PHP), but I don't see any way to convert it to a loop. What would you do?

    Read the article

  • How do I automatically update hundreds of images in an HTML page using jquery?

    - by Chris
    I have an HTML page where I want to refresh a lot of images every 30 seconds after the HTML page has been downloaded. I understand how to do this with Jquery and a single image, but I want to use about 200 custom urls to determine the current image to display for over 200 images. I need to find an efficient way to have jquery call the custom url associated with each image to download the url for the needed image as it changes, and then update the image in the page when it changes. Current hyperlink example to demonstrate the custom urls. <A href="/urlThatReturnsCurrentImageURL/1234/4567">link to url for image</A> Each custom url will return an image tag like this (or any other text that makes this simpler for jquery) <img src="/static/someImage.jpg"> What is the simplest way to have jquery call the custom url for each image to download the image url, image html, or some other text that jquery can use to download the right image every 30 seconds? Please keep in mind that I will have about 200 of these on a page.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430  | Next Page >