Search Results

Search found 12666 results on 507 pages for 'knowledge base'.

Page 425/507 | < Previous Page | 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432  | Next Page >

  • Django: DatabaseLockError exception with Djapian

    - by jul
    Hi, I've got the exception shown below when executing indexer.update(). I have no idea about what to do: it used to work and now index database seems "locked". Anybody can help? Thanks Environment: Request Method: POST Request URL: http://piem.org:8000/restaurant/add/ Django Version: 1.1.1 Python Version: 2.5.2 Installed Applications: ['django.contrib.auth', 'django.contrib.contenttypes', 'django.contrib.sessions', 'django.contrib.comments', 'django.contrib.sites', 'django.contrib.admin', 'registration', 'djapian', 'resto', 'multilingual'] Installed Middleware: ('django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware', 'django.middleware.locale.LocaleMiddleware', 'multilingual.middleware.DefaultLanguageMiddleware') Traceback: File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/django/core/handlers/base.py" in get_response 92. response = callback(request, *callback_args, **callback_kwargs) File "/home/jul/atable/../atable/resto/views.py" in addRestaurant 639. Restaurant.indexer.update() File "/home/jul/python-modules/Djapian-2.3.1-py2.5.egg/djapian/indexer.py" in update 181. database = self._db.open(write=True) File "/home/jul/python-modules/Djapian-2.3.1-py2.5.egg/djapian/database.py" in open 20. xapian.DB_CREATE_OR_OPEN, File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/xapian.py" in __init__ 2804. _xapian.WritableDatabase_swiginit(self,_xapian.new_WritableDatabase(*args)) Exception Type: DatabaseLockError at /restaurant/add/ Exception Value: Unable to acquire database write lock on /home/jul/atable /djapian_spaces/resto/restaurant/resto.index.restaurantindexer: already locked

    Read the article

  • Duplicate C# web service proxy classes generated for Java types

    - by Sergey
    My question is about integration between a Java web service and a C# .NET client. Service: CXF 2.2.3 with Aegis databinding Client: C#, .NET 3.5 SP1 For some reason Visual Studio generates two C# proxy enums for each Java enum. The generated C# classes do not compile. For example, this Java enum: public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE; } Produces this WSDL: <xsd:simpleType name="SqlDialect"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:string"> <xsd:enumeration value="GENERIC" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SYBASE" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SQL_SERVER" /> <xsd:enumeration value="ORACLE" /> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> For this WSDL Visual Studio generates two partial C# classes (generated comments removed): [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Runtime.Serialization", "3.0.0.0")] [System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute(Name="SqlDialect", Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect : int { [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] GENERIC = 0, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SYBASE = 1, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SQL_SERVER = 2, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] ORACLE = 3, } [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Xml", "2.0.50727.3082")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE, } The resulting C# code does not compile: The namespace 'somenamespace' already contains a definition for 'SqlDialect' I will appreciate any ideas...

    Read the article

  • RSpec: Can't convert Image to String when using Nested Resource.

    - by darrint
    I'm having trouble with and RSpec view test. I'm using nested resources and the model with a belongs_to association. Here's what I have so far: describe "/images/edit.html.erb" do include ImagesHelper before(:each) do @image_pool = stub_model(ImagePool, :new_record => false, :base_path => '/') assigns[:image] = @image = stub_model(Image, :new_record? => false, :source_name => "value for source_name", :image_pool => @image_pool) end it "renders the edit image form" do render response.should have_tag("form[action=#{image_path(@image)}][method=post]") do with_tag('input#image_source_name[name=?]', "image[source_name]") end end end The error I'm receiving: ActionView::TemplateError in '/images/edit.html.erb renders the edit image form' can't convert Image into String On line #3 of app/views/images/edit.html.erb 1: <h1>Editing image</h1> 2: 3: <% form_for(@image) do |f| %> 4: <%= f.error_messages %> 5: 6: <p> app/views/images/edit.html.erb:3 /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/extensions/action_view/base.rb:27:in `render_with_mock_proxy' /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/example/view_example_group.rb:170:in `render' Looking at the rails code where the exception occurs is not very revealing. Any ideas on how I can narrow down what is going on here? One thing I tried was calling form_for directly from the example and I got a different error griping about lack of 'polymorphic_path' defined on Spec::Rails::Example::ViewExampleGroup::Subclass_4:0xblah. Not sure if that actually means anything.

    Read the article

  • Trigger ad-hoc activity within a workflow

    - by Chris Taylor
    I am looking to use WF 4 to replace an existing workflow solution we have. One feature that is currently used in the existing workflow engine is the ability to cancel a current activity and loopback to a FlowSwitch type activity. So given the following crude workflow where we start at 'O' and base in the input data the workflow follows the path to 'A2' which is currently blocking on s bookmark waiting for input. ---------A1--\ | \ /\ \ O------- ---->--(A2)-------| ^ \/ / | | | / | | ---------A3--/ | | | |----------------------| However in the meantime some out of band data comes in that means we should cancel 'A2' and return to the FlowSwitch to re-evaluate based on the new data. The question is what is the best way to handle the out of band data that arrived? My initial guess is to have a Parallel activity with one branch waiting for out of band data and the other branch containing the workflow sequence described above. If data came in on the brach waiting for the out of band data, how would I cancel the current activity in the workflow and force it to return to the FlowSwitch. Or of course is there a better way to handle this. I have not actually done any work with the WF4 stuff for WF3 for that matter so I might be missing something obvious here.

    Read the article

  • Security Exception when using Custom ASP.NET Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is - it doesn't. In less than full trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

    Read the article

  • How to implement an interface class using the non-virtual interface idiom in C++?

    - by andreas buykx
    Hi all, In C++ an interface can be implemented by a class with all its methods pure virtual. Such a class could be part of a library to describe what methods an object should implement to be able to work with other classes in the library: class Lib::IFoo { public: virtual void method() = 0; }; : class Lib::Bar { public: void stuff( Lib::IFoo & ); }; Now I want to to use class Lib::Bar, so I have to implement the IFoo interface. For my purposes I need a whole of related classes so I would like to work with a base class that guarantees common behavior using the NVI idiom: class FooBase : public IFoo // implement interface IFoo { public: void method(); // calls methodImpl; private: virtual void methodImpl(); }; The non-virtual interface (NVI) idiom ought to deny derived classes the possibility of overriding the common behavior implemented in FooBase::method(), but since IFoo made it virtual it seems that all derived classes have the opportunity to override the FooBase::method(). If I want to use the NVI idiom, what are my options other than the pImpl idiom already suggested (thanks space-c0wb0y).

    Read the article

  • Macro to improve callback registration readability

    - by Warren Seine
    I'm trying to write a macro to make a specific usage of callbacks in C++ easier. All my callbacks are member functions and will take this as first argument and a second one whose type inherits from a common base class. The usual way to go is: register_callback(boost::bind(&my_class::member_function, this, _1)); I'd love to write: register_callback(HANDLER(member_function)); Note that it will always be used within the same class. Even if typeof is considered as a bad practice, it sounds like a pretty solution to the lack of __class__ macro to get the current class name. The following code works: typedef typeof(*this) CLASS; boost::bind(& CLASS :: member_function, this, _1)(my_argument); but I can't use this code in a macro which will be given as argument to register_callback. I've tried: #define HANDLER(FUN) \ boost::bind(& typeof(*this) :: member_function, this, _1); which doesn't work for reasons I don't understand. Quoting GCC documentation: A typeof-construct can be used anywhere a typedef name could be used. My compiler is GCC 4.4, and even if I'd prefer something standard, GCC-specific solutions are accepted.

    Read the article

  • Visibility of reintroduced constructor

    - by avenmore
    I have reintroduced the form constructor in a base form, but if I override the original constructor in a descendant form, the reintroduced constructor is no longer visible. type TfrmA = class(TForm) private FWndParent: HWnd; public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); reintroduce; overload; virtual; end; constructor TfrmA.Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); begin FWndParent := AWndParent; inherited Create(AOwner); end; type TfrmB = class(TfrmA) private public end; type TfrmC = class(TfrmB) private public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); override; end; constructor TfrmC.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited Create(AOwner); end; When creating: frmA := TfrmA.Create(nil, 0); frmB := TfrmB.Create(nil, 0); frmC := TfrmC.Create(nil, 0); // Compiler error My work-around is to override the reintroduced constructor or to declare the original constructor overloaded, but I'd like to understand the reason for this behavior. type TfrmA = class(TForm) private FWndParent: HWnd; public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); overload; override; constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); reintroduce; overload; virtual; end; type TfrmC = class(TfrmB) private public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); override; end;

    Read the article

  • How can I assign a name to a task in TPL

    - by mehrandvd
    I'm going to use lots of tasks running on my application. Each bunch of tasks is running for some reason. I would like to name these tasks so when I watch the Parallel Tasks window, I could recognize them easily. With another point of view, consider I'm using tasks at the framework level to populate a list. A developer that use my framework is also using tasks for her job. If she looks at the Parallel Tasks Window she will find some tasks having no idea about. I want to name tasks so she can distinguish the framework tasks from her tasks. It would be very convenient if there was such API: var task = new Task(action, "Growth calculation task") or maybe: var task = Task.Factory.StartNew(action, "Populating the datagrid") or even while working with Parallel.ForEach Parallel.ForEach(list, action, "Salary Calculation Task" Is it possible to name a task? Is it possible to give ???Parallel.ForEach a naming structure (maybe using a lambda) so it creates tasks with that naming? Is there such API somewhere that I'm missing? I've also tried to use an inherited task to override it's ToString(). But unfortunately the Parallel Tasks window doesn't use ToString()! class NamedTask : Task { private string TaskName { get; set; } public NamedTask(Action action, string taskName):base(action) { TaskName = taskName; } public override string ToString() { return TaskName; } }

    Read the article

  • How to perform Rails model validation checks within model but outside of filters using ledermann-rails-settings and extensions

    - by user1277160
    Background I'm using ledermann-rails-settings (https://github.com/ledermann/rails-settings) on a Rails 2/3 project to extend virtually the model with certain attributes that don't necessarily need to be placed into the DB in a wide table and it's working out swimmingly for our needs. An additional reason I chose this Gem is because of the post How to create a form for the rails-settings plugin which ties ledermann-rails-settings more closely to the model for the purpose of clean form_for usage for administrator GUI support. It's a perfect solution for addressing form_for support although... Something that I'm running into now though is properly validating the dynamic getters/setters before being passed to the ledermann-rails-settings module. At the moment they are saved immediately, regardless if the model validation has actually fired - I can see through script/console that validation errors are being raised. Example For instance I would like to validate that the attribute :foo is within the range of 0..100 for decimal usage (or even a regex). I've found that with the previous post that I can use standard Rails validators (surprise, surprise) but I want to halt on actually saving any values until those are addressed - ensure that the user of the GUI has given 61.43 as a numerical value. The following code has been borrowed from the quoted post. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_settings validates_inclusion_of :foo, :in => 0..100 def self.settings_attr_accessor(*args) >>SOME SORT OF UNLESS MODEL.VALID? CHECK HERE args.each do |method_name| eval " def #{method_name} self.settings.send(:#{method_name}) end def #{method_name}=(value) self.settings.send(:#{method_name}=, value) end " end >>END UNLESS end settings_attr_accessor :foo end Anyone have any thoughts here on pulling the state of the model at this point outside of having to put this into a before filter? The goal here is to be able to use the standard validations and avoid rolling custom validation checks for each new settings_attr_accessor that is added. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • MVC View Model Intellesense / Compile error

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

    Read the article

  • Are all of the default scripts loaded by Magento really needed?

    - by pxl
    Here's a listing of all the scripts loaded by Magento by default: ../js/prototype/prototype.js //prototype library ../js/prototype/validation.js //don't know what this does ../js/scriptaculous/builder.js //don't know what this does ../js/scriptaculous/effects.js //base scriptaculous effects library? ../js/scriptaculous/dragdrop.js //component of scriptaculous effects ../js/scriptaculous/controls.js //not sure? ../js/scriptaculous/slider.js //more scriptaculous effects ../js/varien/js.js //don't know what this is ../js/varien/form.js //form validation scripts? ../js/varien/menu.js //menu/drop down menu scripts ../js/mage/translate.js //don't know what this does ../js/mage/cookies.js //don't know what this does these scripts total 316.8K of javascript... all in various states of being minified (for example, prototype.js isn't minified). So my first question: 1) Aside from prototype.js, are all of the others really that needed? and 2) What is the "correct" way to remove these scripts? Layout updates? Or hardcoded in templates? I want to make the loading of my magento site as light weight as possible. thanks!

    Read the article

  • Can't combine "LINQ Join" with other tables

    - by FullmetalBoy
    The main problem is that I recieve the following message: "base {System.SystemException} = {"Unable to create a constant value of type 'BokButik1.Models.Book-Author'. Only primitive types ('such as Int32, String, and Guid') are supported in this context."}" based on this LinQ code: IBookRepository myIBookRepository = new BookRepository(); var allBooks = myIBookRepository.HamtaAllaBocker(); IBok_ForfattareRepository myIBok_ForfattareRepository = new Bok_ForfattareRepository(); var Book-Authors = myIBok_ForfattareRepository.HamtaAllaBok_ForfattareNummer(); var q = from booknn in allBooks join Book-Authornn in Book-Authors on booknn.BookID equals Book-Authornn.BookID select new { booknn.title, Book-AuthorID }; How shall I solve this problem to get a class instance that contain with property title and Book-AuthorID? // Fullmetalboy I also have tried making some dummy by using "allbooks" relation with Code Samples from the address http://www.hookedonlinq.com/JoinOperator.ashx. Unfortunately, still same problem. I also have taken account to Int32 due to entity framework http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb896317.aspx. Unfortunatley, still same problem. Using database with 3 tables and one of them is a many to many relationship. This database is used in relation with entity framework Book-Author Book-Author (int) BookID (int) Forfattare (int) Book BookID (int) title (string) etc etc etc

    Read the article

  • What OOP pattern to use when only adding new methods, not data?

    - by Jonathon Reinhart
    Hello eveyone... In my app, I have deal with several different "parameters", which derive from IParameter interface, and also ParamBase abstract base class. I currently have two different parameter types, call them FooParameter and BarParameter, which both derive from ParamBase. Obviously, I can treat them both as IParameters when I need to deal with them generically, or detect their specific type when I need to handle their specific functionality. My question lies in specific FooParameters. I currently have a few specific ones with their own classes which derive from FooParameter, we'll call them FP12, FP13, FP14, etc. These all have certain characteristics, which make me treat them differently in the UI. (Most have names associated with the individual bits, or ranges of bits). Note that these specific, derived FP's have no additional data associated with them, only properties (which refer to the same data in different ways) or methods. Now, I'd like to keep all of these parameters in a Dictionary<String, IParameter> for easy generic access. The problem is, if I want to refer to a specific one with the special GUI functions, I can't write: FP12 fp12 = (FP12)paramList["FP12"] because you can't downcast to a derived type (rightfully so). But in my case, I didn't add any data, so the cast would theoretically work. What type of programming model should I be using instead? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Recommended Meta Elements?

    - by joyce
    Hi everyone! Setting up a "basic framework" for my website projects, I'm wondering which meta elements are really necessary/recommended? In particular, I'd like to know how to deal with the language attribute(s)!? In the following example, I think sth. is repeated unnecessarily... <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en" dir="ltr"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <meta http-equiv="content-style-type" content="text/css" /> <meta http-equiv="content-script-type" content="text/javascript" /> <meta http-equiv="content-language" content="en" /> <meta http-equiv="language" content="en" /> <title> Title </title> <base href="http://www.mydomain.com" /> <meta name="charset" content="utf-8" /> <meta name="content-language" content="en" /> <meta name="language" content="en" /> <meta name="description" content="description" /> <meta name="keywords" content="keywords" /> </head>

    Read the article

  • Having some fun - what is a good way to include a secret key functionality and fire the KeyDown event?

    - by Sisyphus
    To keep myself interested, I try to put little Easter Eggs in my projects (mostly to amuse myself). I've seen some websites where you can type a series of letters "aswzaswz" and you get a "secret function" - how would I achieve this in C#? I've assigned a "secret function" in the past by using modifier keys bool showFunThing = (Control.ModifierKeys & Keys.Control) == Keys.Control; but wanted to get a bit more secretive (without the modifier keys) I just wanted the form to detect a certain word typed without any input ... I've built a method that I think should do it: private StringBuilder _pressedKeys = new StringBuilder(); protected override void OnKeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { const string kWord = "fun"; char letter = (char)e.KeyValue; if (!char.IsLetterOrDigit(letter)) { return; } _pressedKeys.Append(letter); if (_pressedKeys.Length == kWord.Length) { if (_pressedKeys.ToString().ToLower() == kWord) { MessageBox.Show("Fun"); _pressedKeys.Clear(); } } base.OnKeyDown(e); } Now I need to wire it up but I can't figure out how I'm supposed to raise the event in the form designer ... I've tried this: this.KeyDown +=new System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventHandler(OnKeyDown); and a couple of variations on this but I'm missing something because it won't fire (or compile). It tells me that the OnKeyDown method is expecting a certain signature but I've got other methods like this where I haven't specified arguments. I fear that I may have got myself confused so I am turning to SO for help ... anyone?

    Read the article

  • Can I clone an IQueryable in linq? For UNION purposes?

    - by user169867
    I have a table of WorkOrders. The table has a PrimaryWorker & PrimaryPay field. It also has a SecondaryWorker & SecondaryPay field (which can be null). I wish to run 2 very similar queries & union them so that it will return a Worker Field & Pay field. So if a single WorkOrder record had both the PrimaryWorker and SecondaryWorker field populated I would get 2 records back. The "where clause" part of these 2 queries is very similar and long to construct. Here's a dummy example var q = ctx.WorkOrder.Where(w => w.WorkDate >= StartDt && w.WorkDate <= EndDt); if(showApprovedOnly) { q = q.Where(w => w.IsApproved); } //...more filters applied Now I also have a search flag called "hideZeroPay". If that's true I don't want to include the record if the worker was payed $0. But obviously for 1 query I need to compare the PrimaryPay field and in the other I need to compare the SecondaryPay field. So I'm wondering how to do this. Can I clone my base query "q" and make a primary & secondary worker query out of it and then union those 2 queries together? I'd greatly appreciate an example of how to correctly handle this. Thanks very much for any help.

    Read the article

  • Implementing IXmlSerializable on a generated class that has XmlTypeAttribute

    - by Josh
    Basically, the initial problem is I need to make a boolean value serialize as 0 or 1. The solution I found was to implement IXmlSerializable, which I did. Unfortunately the class I'm trying to serialize is generated code off a schema and has an XmlTypeAttribute on it. When I try to (de)serialize the object with the XmlSerializer created in the usual manner ( new XmlSerializer(type)) it throws this exception: System.InvalidOperationException: Only XmlRoot attribute may be specified for the type ______ Please use XmlSchemaProviderAttribute to specify schema type. Two options come to mind immediatly: 1) remove the attribute in the generated code. This change would have to be made every time the code was re-generated. 2) Use an XmlAttributeOverrides object when creating the serializer to remove the attribute. This would require the rest of the code base to "know" that it needs to override that attribute. Also, the exception thrown gives absolutly no clue as to what needs to be done to fix it. Both options kinda stink. Is there a third option?

    Read the article

  • XSL Reuse? YES! But: Element must not contain an xsl:import element! :-(

    - by Fedor Steeman
    I am using a heavy stylesheet with a lot of recurring transformations, so I thought it would be smart to reuse the same chunks of code, so I would not need to make the same changes at a bunch of different places. So I discovered , but -alas- it won't allow me to do it. When trying to run it in Sonic Workbench I get the following error: An xsl:for-each element must not contain an xsl:import element This is my stylesheet code: <xsl:template match="/"> <InboundFargoMessage> <EdiSender> <xsl:value-of select="TransportInformationMessage/SenderId"/> </EdiSender> <EdiReceiver> <xsl:value-of select="TransportInformationMessage/RecipientId"/> </EdiReceiver> <EdiSource>PORLOGIS</EdiSource> <EdiDestination>FARGO</EdiDestination> <Transportations> <xsl:for-each select="TransportInformationMessage/TransportUnits/TransportUnit"> <xsl:import href="TransportCDMtoFDM_V0.6.xsl"/> </xsl:for-each> <xsl:for-each select="TransportInformationMessage/Waybill/TransportUnits/TransportUnit"> <xsl:import href="TransportCDMtoFDM_V0.6.xsl"/> </xsl:for-each> </Transportations> </InboundFargoMessage> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I will leave out the child xsl-sheets for now, as the problem appears to be happening at the base. If I cannot use xsl:import, is there any option of reuse?

    Read the article

  • HTTP Handler error when downloading files - SSL

    - by Chiefy
    Ok big problem as this is affecting two projects on our new server. We have a file that is downloaded by users, the files are downloaded using a HTTPHandler. Since moving the site to the server and setting SSL the downloads have stopped working and we get an error message "Unable to download DownloadDocument.ashx" from site". DownloadDocument.ashx is the handler page that is set in the web.config and the button that goes there is a hyperlink with the id of the document as a querystring. Ive read the article on http://support.microsoft.com/kb/316431 and read a few other requests on this site but nothing seems to be working. This problem only happens in IE and works fine when I run it on the server in http instead of https. public override void HandleRequest(HttpContext context) { Guid guid = new Guid(context.Request.QueryString["ID"]); DataTable dt = Documents.GetDocument(guid); if (dt != null) { context.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", string.Format("attachment; filename={0}", dt.Rows[0]["DocumentName"].ToString())); context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Transfer-Encoding", "binary"); context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Length", ((byte[])dt.Rows[0]["Document"]).Length.ToString()); context.Response.ContentType = string.Format("application/{0}", dt.Rows[0]["Extension"].ToString().Remove(0, 1)); context.Response.Buffer = true; context.Response.BinaryWrite((byte[])dt.Rows[0]["Document"]); context.Response.Flush(); context.Response.End(); } } The above is my current code for the request. Ive used the base handler on http://haacked.com/archive/2005/03/17/AnAbstractBoilerplateHttpHandler.aspx. Any ideas on what this might be and how we can fix it. Thanks in advance for all responses.

    Read the article

  • mmap only needed pages of kernel buffer to user space

    - by axeoth
    See also this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/a/10770582/1284631 I need something similar, but without having to allocate a buffer: the buffer is large, in theory, but the user space program only needs to access some parts of it (it mocks some registers of a hardware). As I cannot allocate with vmalloc_user() such a large buffer (kernel 32 bit, in embedded environment, no swap...), I followed the same approach as in the quoted answer, trying to allocate only those pages that are really requested by the user space. So: I use a my_mmap() function for the device file (actually, is the .mmap field of a struct uio_info) to set up the fields of the vma, then, in the vm_area_struct's .fault field (also named my_fault()), I should return a page. except that: In the my_fault() method of vm_area_struct, I cannot obtain a page through: vmf->page=vmalloc_to_page(my_buf + (vmf->pgoff << PAGE_SHIFT)); since there is no allocated buffer: my_buf = vmalloc_user(MY_BUF_SIZE); fails with "allocation failed: out of vmalloc space - use vmalloc= to increase size." (and there is no room or swap to increase that vmalloc= parameter). So, I would need to get a page from the kernel and fill the vmf->page field. How to allocate a page (I assume that the offset of the page is known, as it is vm->pgoff). What base memory should I use instead of my_buf? PS: I also did set up the vma->flags |= VM_NORESERVE; (in the my_mmap()), but not sure if it helps. Is there any vmalloc_user_unreserved()-like function? (let's say, lazy allocation) Also, writing 1 to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_memory and large values (eg 500) to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_ratio before trying to my_buf=vmalloc_user(<large_size>) didn't work.

    Read the article

  • Why can't decimal numbers be represented exactly in binary?

    - by Barry Brown
    There have been several questions posted to SO about floating-point representation. For example, the decimal number 0.1 doesn't have an exact binary representation, so it's dangerous to use the == operator to compare it to another floating-point number. I understand the principles behind floating-point representation. What I don't understand is why, from a mathematical perspective, are the numbers to the right of the decimal point any more "special" that the ones to the left? For example, the number 61.0 has an exact binary representation because the integral portion of any number is always exact. But the number 6.10 is not exact. All I did was move the decimal one place and suddenly I've gone from Exactopia to Inexactville. Mathematically, there should be no intrinsic difference between the two numbers -- they're just numbers. By contrast, if I move the decimal one place in the other direction to produce the number 610, I'm still in Exactopia. I can keep going in that direction (6100, 610000000, 610000000000000) and they're still exact, exact, exact. But as soon as the decimal crosses some threshold, the numbers are no longer exact. What's going on? Edit: to clarify, I want to stay away from discussion about industry-standard representations, such as IEEE, and stick with what I believe is the mathematically "pure" way. In base 10, the positional values are: ... 1000 100 10 1 1/10 1/100 ... In binary, they would be: ... 8 4 2 1 1/2 1/4 1/8 ... There are also no arbitrary limits placed on these numbers. The positions increase indefinitely to the left and to the right.

    Read the article

  • Using maven to distribute a swing application that can have each dependency individually tracked

    - by tms
    I'm moving my project to Maven and eventually OSGi. I currently distribute the project is a large Zip file with all the dependencies. Although my projects code is only 20% of the total package I have to redistribute all the dependency. With smaller independent modules this may be even less. Looking here on stack overflow it seems that to keep my current plan the maven-assembly-plugin should do the trick. I was considering having a base installer that would look at a XML manifest, then collect all the libraries that needed to be updated. This would mean that libraries that change occasionally would be downloaded less often. This also makes since for something like OSGi plugins (which could have independent release schedules). In essence I want my software to look and manage individual libraries, and download on demand (based on the manifest). I was wondering if there is a "maven way" of generating this Manifest and publishing all the libraries to a website? I believe the deploy life-cycle would do the second step. As an alternative, is there a OpenSource Java library that does this type of deployment? I don't want to embed Maven or something larger with the distributed code. The application is not for coders, the simpler the better, and the smaller the installer the better.

    Read the article

  • Excess errors on model from somewhere

    - by gmile
    I have a User model, and use an acts_as_authentic (from authlogic) on it. My User model have 3 validations on username and looks as following: User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic validates_presence_of :username validates_length_of :username, :within => 4..40 validates_uniqueness_of :username end I'm writing a test to see my validations in action. Somehow, I get 2 errors instead of one when validating a uniqueness of a name. To see excess error, I do the following test: describe User do before(:each) do @user = Factory.build(:user) end it "should have a username longer then 3 symbols" do @user2 = Factory(:user) @user.username = @user2.username @user.save puts @user.errors.inspect end end I got 2 errors on username: @errors={"username"=>["has already been taken", "has already been taken"]}. Somehow the validation passes two times. I think authlogic causes that, but I don't have a clue on how to avoid that. Another case of problem is when I set username to nil. Somehow I get four validation errors instead of three: @errors={"username"=>["is too short (minimum is 3 characters)", "should use only letters, numbers, spaces, and .-_@ please.", "can't be blank", "is too short (minimum is 4 characters)"]} I think authlogic is one that causes this strange behaviour. But I can't even imagine on how to solve that. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • JavaScript cookie value can't be retrieved in Django

    - by Boris Rusev
    I am trying to build a web site in both English and Bulgarian using the Django framework. My idea is the user should click on a button, the page will reload and the language will be changed. This is how I am trying to do it: In my html I hava a the button tag <button id='btn' onclick="changeLanguage();" type="button"> ... </button> An excerpt from cookies.js: function changeLanguage() { if (getCookie('language') == 'EN') { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'BG'); } else { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'EN'); } } function setCookie(sName, sValue, oExpires, sPath, sDomain, bSecure) { var sCookie = sName + "=" + encodeURIComponent(sValue); if (oExpires) { sCookie += "; expires=" + oExpires.toGMTString(); } if (sPath) { sCookie += "; path=" + sPath; } if (sDomain) { sCookie += "; domain=" + sDomain; } if (bSecure) { sCookie += "; secure"; } document.cookie = sCookie; } And in my views.py file this is the situation @base def index(request): if request.session['language'] == 'EN': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "Home" else request.session['language'] == 'BG': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "??????" So I know that my JS changes the value of the language cookie but I think Django doesn't get that. On the other hand when I set and get the cookie in my Python code again the cookie is set. My question is whether there is a way to make JS and Django work together - JavaScript sets the cookie value and Python only reads it when asked and takes adequate actions? Thank you.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432  | Next Page >