Search Results

Search found 12666 results on 507 pages for 'knowledge base'.

Page 421/507 | < Previous Page | 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428  | Next Page >

  • Should a setter return immediately if assigned the same value?

    - by Andrei Rinea
    In classes that implement INotifyPropertyChanged I often see this pattern : public string FirstName { get { return _customer.FirstName; } set { if (value == _customer.FirstName) return; _customer.FirstName = value; base.OnPropertyChanged("FirstName"); } } Precisely the lines if (value == _customer.FirstName) return; are bothering me. I've often did this but I am not that sure it's needed nor good. After all if a caller assigns the very same value I don't want to reassign the field and, especially, notify my subscribers that the property has changed when, semantically it didn't. Except saving some CPU/RAM/etc by freeing the UI from updating something that will probably look the same on the screen/whatever_medium what do we obtain? Could some people force a refresh by reassigning the same value on a property (NOT THAT THIS WOULD BE A GOOD PRACTICE HOWEVER)? 1. Should we do it or shouldn't we? 2. Why?

    Read the article

  • PHP: tips/resources/patterns for learning to implement a basic ORM

    - by BoltClock
    I've seen various MVC frameworks as well as standalone ORM frameworks for PHP, as well as other ORM questions here; however, most of the questions ask for existing frameworks to get started with, which is not what I'm looking for. (I have also read this SO question but I'm not sure what to make of it, and the answers are vague.) Instead, I figured I'd learn best by getting my hands dirty and actually writing my own ORM, even a simple one. Except I don't really know how to get started, especially since the code I see in other ORMs is so complicated. With my PHP 5.2.x (this is important) MVC framework I have a basic custom database abstraction layer, that has: Very simple methods like connect($host, $user, $pass, $base), query($sql, $binds), etc Subclasses for each DBMS that it supports A class (and respective subclasses) to represent SQL result sets But does not have: Active Record functionality, which I assume is an ORM thing (correct me if I'm wrong) I've read up a little about ORM, and from my understanding they provide a means to further abstract data models from the database itself by representing data as nothing more than PHP-based classes/objects; again, correct me if I am wrong or have missed out in any way. Still, I'd like some simple tips from anyone else who's dabbled more or less with ORM frameworks. Is there anything else I need to take note of, simple example code for me to refer to, or resources I can read? Thanks a lot in advance!

    Read the article

  • How do I POST/GET from rails to API with either ActiveResource or rest-client (preferred)?

    - by Angela
    Hi, this is a pretty basic question but I'm not entirely clear how to do this. I am trying to use a third-party service that has RESTful service. The service is called Postful. But I'm not clear what exactly to do? I've looked at ActiveResource (http://api.rubyonrails.org/classes/ActiveResource/Base.html) and rest-client, but I'm still not clear exactly what steps, code, and files to create. http://www.postful.com/service/mail is one of the services (details found http://www.postful.com/developer/guide#rest ), but to upload an image I have to post the following (but I'm not sure how I actually do this?). Thanks! > http://www.postful.com/service/upload > > Be sure to include the Content-Type > and Content-Length headers and the > image itself as the body of the > request. > > POST /upload HTTP/1.0 Content-Type: > application/octet-stream > Content-Length: 301456 > > ... file content here ... > > If the upload is successful, you will > receive a response like the following: > > <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> > <upload> > <id>290797321.waltershandy.2</id> > </upload>

    Read the article

  • How much effort do you have to put in to get gains from using SSE?

    - by John
    Case One Say you have a little class: class Point3D { private: float x,y,z; public: operator+=() ...etc }; Point3D &Point3D::operator+=(Point3D &other) { this->x += other.x; this->y += other.y; this->z += other.z; } A naive use of SSE would simply replace these function bodies with using a few intrinsics. But would we expect this to make much difference? MMX used to involve costly state cahnges IIRC, does SSE or are they just like other instructions? And even if there's no direct "use SSE" overhead, would moving the values into SSE registers and back out again really make it any faster? Case Two Instead, you're working with a less OO-based code base. Rather than an array/vector of Point3D objects, you simply have a big array of floats: float coordinateData[NUM_POINTS*3]; void add(int i,int j) //yes it's unsafe, no overlap check... example only { for (int x=0;x<3;++x) { coordinateData[i*3+x] += coordinateData[j*3+x]; } } What about use of SSE here? Any better? In conclusion Is trying to optimise single vector operations using SSE actually worthwhile, or is it really only valuable when doing bulk operations?

    Read the article

  • Java OO design confusion: how to handle actions modified by states modified by actions...

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, Given an entity, whose action is potentially modified by states (of the entity and other entities) in turn potentially modified by other actions (of the entity and other entities) , what is the best way to code or design to handle the potential existence of the modifiers? Speaking metaphorically, I am coding a Java application representing a piano. As you know a piano has keys (which, when pressed, emit sound) and pedals (which, when pressed, modify the keys' sounds). My base class structure is as follows: Entity (for keys and pedals) State (this holds each entity's states, e.g. name such as "soft pedal", and boolean "Pressed"), Action (this holds each entity's actions, e.g. play sound when pressed, or modify others sounds). By composition, the Entity class has a copy of each of State and Action inside it. e.g.: public class Entity { State entityState = new State(); Action entityAction = new Action(); Thus I have coded a "C-Sharp" key Entity. When I "press" that entity (set its "Pressed" state to true), its action plays a "C-Sharp" sound and then sets its "Pressed" state to false. At the same time, if the "C-Sharp" key entity is not "tuned", its sound deviates from "C-Sharp". Meanwhile I have coded a "soft pedal" Entity. When that entity is "pressed", no sound plays but its action is to make softer the sound of the "C-Sharp" and other key entities. I have also coded a "sustain pedal" Entity. When that entity is "pressed", no sound plays but its action is to enable reverberation of the sound of the "C-Sharp" and other key entities. Both the "soft" and "sustain pedals" can be pressed at the same time with the result that keys entities become both softened and reverberating. In short, I do not understand how to make this simultaneous series of states and actions modify each other in a sensible OO way. I am wary of coding a massive series of "if" statements or "switches". Thanks in advance for any help or links you can offer.

    Read the article

  • SQL, MVC, Entity Framework

    - by Anthony
    Hi Im using the above technologies and have ran into what I presume is a design issue I have made. I have an Artwork table in my DB and have been able to add art (I now think of these as Digital Products) to a shopping cart + CartLine table fine. The system I have that adds art to galleries and user accounts etc works fine. Now the client wants to sell T-shirts, Mugs and Pens etc, 'HardwareProducts' so I have created a 'HardwareProducts' table. Now I have two different product types in two tables. I use GUID's as the PK's in both the HardwareProducts table and Artwork table. When a customer adds an item to their cart I store the GUID in the ProductID column in the CartItems table. The issue is the database will not know which table to reference when I bring the LineItem object up through my ORM to the front end. In OOP I can see how you would have a base class of Product, and then a DigitalProduct class and HardwareProduct class drived from it, but how do you model this in SQL Server and the Entity Framework please, or is there another way?

    Read the article

  • C++ Problems with #import of .NET out-of-proc server.

    - by jm
    In C++ program, I am trying to #import TLB of .NET out of proc server. I get errors like: z:\server.tlh(111) : error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'GetType' z:\server.tlh(111) : error C2501: 'TypePtr' : missing storage-class or type specifiers z:\server.tli(74) : error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before 'tag::id' z:\server.tli(74) : error C2433: 'TypePtr' : 'inline' not permitted on data declarations z:\server.tli(74) : error C2501: '_TypePtr' : missing storage-class or type specifiers z:\server.tli(74) : fatal error C1004: unexpected end of file found The TLH looks like: ... _bstr_t GetToString ( ); VARIANT_BOOL Equals ( const _variant_t & obj ); long GetHashCode ( ); _TypePtr GetType ( ); long Open ( ); ... I am not really interested in the having the base object .NET object methods like GetType(), Equals(), etc. But GetType() seems to be causing problems. Some google research indicates I could #import MSCORLIB.TLB (or put it in path), but I can't get that to compile either. Any tips?

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate fires SQL commands

    - by Chris
    Hi all, when updating an entity A, NHibernate also send an SQL update command for some other entity B. A and B are not related. Just before saving entity A, the parent of entity B is loaded via a SQLQuery. Then, when accessed, B is lazy loaded (part of a collection). If I save entity A an update statement for entity B is generated as well. How can that be, that when saving an entity, another entity loaded before but is not related to the entity saved, is updated as well?! Can I somehow track where the update comes from? Btw. I am using an save event listener. Could it be that this is always triggered for entity loaded, even though they are not saved explicitly? public class EntitySaveEventListener : NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveEventListener { protected override object PerformSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent e) { //auditing return base.PerformSaveOrUpdate(e); } } Update (sorry for providing not enough info): I tracked it down a bit. A select stateement on a entity called address is executed (is it lazy loaded by a parent). Then I create a new entity called Request. Right before saving this entity a session flush is called which updates the address, even though I did not call save or update on the address. Address is a collection within Request. <class name="Request" table="Request"> <bag name="addresses" access="field" cascade="all-delete-orphan" where="IsDeleted = 0"> <key column="RequestId"/> <one-to-many class="Address"/> </bag> ... // address is fetched only NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:21,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - SELECT addresses0_.RequestId as ServiceP8_3_, .... // session flushed here // address is updated NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:34,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - Batch commands: command 0:UPDATE Address SET Street = @p0, ..... Would the address be updated automatically when it is manipulated somehow even though it is not explicitly saved via it's parent (cascade)?

    Read the article

  • Tricky MySQL Query for messaging system in Rails - Please Help

    - by ole_berlin
    Hi, I'm writing a facebook style messaging system for a Rails App and I'm having trouble selecting the Messages for the inbox (with will_paginate). The messages are organized in threads, in the inbox the most recent message of a thread will appear with a link to it's thread. The thread is organized via a parent_id 1-n relationship with itself. So far I'm using something like this: class Message < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :sender, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => "sender_id" belongs_to :recipient, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => "recipient_id" has_many :children, :class_name => "Message", :foreign_key => "parent_id" belongs_to :thread, :class_name => "Message", :foreign_key => "parent_id" end class MessagesController < ApplicationController def inbox @messages = current_user.received_messages.paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 10, :order => "created_at DESC" end end That gives me all the messages, but for one thread the thread itself and the most recent message will appear (and not only the most recent message). I can also not use the GROUP BY clause, because for the thread itself (the parent so to say) the parent_id = nil of course. Anyone got an idea on how to solve this in an elegant way? I already thought about adding the parent_id to the parent itself and then group by parent_id, but I'm not sure if that works. Thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC2 and Browser Caching

    - by Dan
    Hi I have a web application that fetches a lot of content via ajax. For example when a user edits some data, the browser will send the changes using an ajax post and then do an ajax get to get fresh content and replace an existing div on the page with that content. This was working just find with MVC1, but in MVC2 I would get inconsistent results. I've found that MVC1 by default included an Expires item in the response headers set to the current time, but in MVC2 the Expires header is missing. This is a problem with some browsers (IE8) actually using the cached version of the ajax get instead of the fresh version. To deal with the problem I created a simple ActionFilterAttribute that sets the reponse cache to NoCache (see below), which works, but it seems kind of sillly to decorate every controller with this attribute. Is there a global way to set this for every controller? Is this a bug in MVC2 and it really should be setting the expires on every ActionResult/view/page? Don't most MVC programs deal with data entry where stale data is a very bad thing? Thanks Dan public class ResponseNoCachingAttribute : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnResultExecuted(ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { base.OnResultExecuted(filterContext); filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(System.Web.HttpCacheability.NoCache); } }

    Read the article

  • steps to fix a project that won't compile

    - by eco_bach
    Hi Pulling my hair out in trying to get a simple window based project to compile. I am running both 3.2.2 and 3.2.3 versions of Xcode. The latter is set up in a separate folder. Originally I used the latter to create and compile my project against the new 4.0 sdk. It compiled fine. Then I made the mistake of deleting some sdks I thought I no longer needed. Ever since I can no longer compile. Right now I get a dozen or so errors similar to the following "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CATransition", referenced from: objc-class-ref-to-CATransition in ViewTransitionsAppDelegate.o My active executable is the iphone simulator 4 and Base SDK is iPhone device 3.0. I tried reinstalling the xcode3.2.3 installer, no difference. I'm totally stymied, as my project WAS working and compiling fine, both to the simulator and external device. Are there any best practices or recommended steps in fixing or rebuilding a project when it won't compile? Any help welcome!

    Read the article

  • Boost Unit testing memory reuse causing tests that should fail to pass

    - by Knyphe
    We have started using the boost unit testing library for a large existing code base, and I have run into some trouble with unit tests incorrectly passing, seemingly due to the reuse of memory on the stack. Here is my situation: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } The first test passed correctly, initializing all the variables. The constructor in the second unit test did not correctly set EntityType or DataPosition, but the unit test passed. I was able to get it to fail by placing some variables on the stack in the second test, like so: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { int a, b; SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } If there is only one int, only the dataPos CHECK_EQUAL fails, but if there are two, both EntityType and DataPos fail, so it seems pretty clear that this is an issue with the variables being created on the same stack memory or some such. Is there a good way to clear the memory between each unit test, or am I potentially using the library incorrectly or writing bad tests? Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to choose light version of database system

    - by adopilot
    I am starting one POS (Point of sale) project. Targeting system is going to be written in C# .NET 2 WinForms and as main database server We are going to use MS-SQL Server. As we have a lot of POS devices in chain for one store I will love to have backend local data base system on each POS device. Scenario are following: When main server goes down!! POS application should continue working "off-line" with local database, until connection to main server come up again. Now I am in dilemma which local database is going to be most adoptable for me. Here is some notes for helping me point me in right direction: To be Light "My POS devices art usually old and suffering with performances" To be Free "I have a lot of devices and I do not wont additional cost beside main SQL serer" One day Ill love to try all that port on Mono and Linux OS. Here is what I've researched so far: Simple XML "Light but I am afraid of performance, My main table of items is average of 10K records" SQL-Express "I am afraid that my POS devices is poor with hardware for SQLExpress, and also hard to install on each device and configure" Less known Advantage Database Server have free distribution of offline ADT system. DBF with extended Library,"Respect for good old DBFs but that era is behind Me with clipper and DBFs" MS Access Sqlite "Mostly like for now, but I am afraid how it is going to pair with MS SQL do they have same Data types". I know that in this SO is a lot of subjective data, but at least can someone recommended some others lite database system, or things that I shod most take attention before I choice database.

    Read the article

  • Django does not load internal .css files

    - by Rubén Jiménez
    I have created a Django project in local which runs without any kind of problem. But, after an annoying and difficult Cherokee + uWSGI installation on Amazon AWS, my project does not show Django .css internal files. http://f.cl.ly/items/2Q2W3I3R0X1n2X3v0q2P/django_error.jpg <-- /Admin/ looks like The image is a screen of my /admin/, which should have a different style, but .css files are not loaded. [pid: 23206|app: 0|req: 19/19] 83.49.10.217 () {56 vars in 1121 bytes} [Sun Apr 15 05:50:24 2012] GET /static/admin/css/base.css = generated 2896 bytes in 6 msecs (HTTP/1.1 404) 1 headers in 51 bytes (1 switches on core 0) [pid: 23206|app: 0|req: 20/20] 83.49.10.217 () {56 vars in 1125 bytes} [Sun Apr 15 05:50:24 2012] GET /static/admin/css/login.css = generated 2899 bytes in 5 msecs (HTTP/1.1 404) 1 headers in 51 bytes (1 switches on core 0) This is a log from Cherokee. I don't understand why it is looking for the .css files in that path. Cherokee should be searching the files in Django original directory so i didn't change .css files in my project. Any advice? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ?

    - by Ernst de Haan
    How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ? I have an open-source project that I am converting from Ant to Maven, including its unit tests. Here's the project source repository with the Maven project: http://github.com/znerd/logdoc My question pertains to the primary module, called "base". This module has a unit test that tests the behaviour of the static method getVersion() in the class org.znerd.logdoc.Library. This method returns: Library.class.getPackage().getImplementationVersion() The getImplementationVersion() method returns a value of a setting in the manifest file. So far, so good. I have tested this in the past and it works well, as long as the manifest is indeed available on the classpath at the path META-INF/MANIFEST.MF (either on the file system or inside a JAR file). Now my challenge is that the manifest file is not available when I run the unit tests: mvn test Surefire runs the unit tests, but my unit test fails with a mesage indicating that Library.getVersion() returned null. When I want to check the JAR, I find that it has not even been generated. Maven/Surefire runs the unit tests against the classes, before the resources are added to the classpath. So can I either run the unit tests against the JAR (implicitly requiring the JAR to be generated first) or can I make sure the resources (including the manifest file) are generated/copied under target/classes before the unit tests are run? Note that I use Maven 2.2.0, Java 1.6.0_17 on Mac OS X 10.6.2, with JUnit 4.8.1.

    Read the article

  • How do I run a universal app on the iPhone 3.1.3 simulator?

    - by bpapa
    I'm working on a new app that I want to be universal for the iPhone and iPad. I started out with the "Create a Window-based app" wizard, and it created separate app delegates in "iPhone" and "iPad" groups. Since I already was quite familiar with iPhone dev, I did that part of my project, and now I'm ready to do some iPad stuff. So... I started out by adding a UISplitViewController to my iPad delegate, switch the Active SDK to 3.2, and it works! But when I switch back to 3.1.3, and try to run it in the simulator, Build and Go fails. For starters, I see: ...path.../iPad/AppDelegate_Pad.h:13: error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'UISplitViewController' I've got my Base SDK set to 3.2 and my Deployment Target set to 3.1.3. I thought that was enough. But I also have found in the documentation this method to conditionally compile: #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 MyIPadViewController* vc; // Create the iPad view controller #else MyIPhoneViewController* vc; // Create the iPhone view controller #endif So do I need to do this everywhere? It seems like an awful lot of code to add (that I'll be getting rid of in a short time for 4.0 anyway) so I feel like I must be doing something wrong. And, I don't even have any idea how this works for things like @property or @synthesize declarations. tl;dr version of the question - did I miss a setting somewhere?

    Read the article

  • How to pass a function in a function?

    - by SoulBeaver
    That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

    Read the article

  • wordpress extended_valid_elements for script tag?

    - by John
    Can someone tell me how to tell Wordpress' tinymce editor to NOT strip out script tags? I looked in wp-admin/includes/post.php and added 'extended_valid_elements'=>'script[charset|defer|language|src|type]', to the $initArray. When I do a view source on the CMS post editor, I see taht it does show up like so: <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ tinyMCEPreInit = { base : "http://dev.esolar.ca/wp-includes/js/tinymce", suffix : "", query : "ver=327-1235", mceInit : {mode:"specific_textareas", editor_selector:"theEditor", width:"100%", theme:"advanced", skin:"wp_theme", theme_advanced_buttons1:"bold,italic,strikethrough,|,bullist,numlist,blockquote,|,justifyleft,justifycenter,justifyright,|,link,unlink,wp_more,|,spellchecker,fullscreen,wp_adv", theme_advanced_buttons2:"formatselect,underline,justifyfull,forecolor,|,pastetext,pasteword,removeformat,|,charmap,|,outdent,indent,|,undo,redo,wp_help", theme_advanced_buttons3:"", theme_advanced_buttons4:"", language:"en", spellchecker_languages:"+English=en,Danish=da,Dutch=nl,Finnish=fi,French=fr,German=de,Italian=it,Polish=pl,Portuguese=pt,Spanish=es,Swedish=sv", theme_advanced_toolbar_location:"top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align:"left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location:"bottom", theme_advanced_resizing:"1", theme_advanced_resize_horizontal:"", dialog_type:"modal", relative_urls:"", remove_script_host:"", convert_urls:"", apply_source_formatting:"", remove_linebreaks:"1", gecko_spellcheck:"1", entities:"38,amp,60,lt,62,gt", accessibility_focus:"1", tabfocus_elements:"major-publishing-actions", media_strict:"", paste_remove_styles:"1", paste_remove_spans:"1", paste_strip_class_attributes:"all", wpeditimage_disable_captions:"", plugins:"safari,inlinepopups,spellchecker,paste,wordpress,media,fullscreen,wpeditimage,wpgallery,tabfocus"}, load_ext : function(url,lang){var sl=tinymce.ScriptLoader;sl.markDone(url+'/langs/'+lang+'.js');sl.markDone(url+'/langs/'+lang+'_dlg.js');} }; /* ]]> */ </script> But for some reason ,my editor still doesn't save <script> tags. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Problem using Lazy<T> from within a generic abstract class

    - by James Black
    I have a generic class that all my DAO classes derive from, which is defined below. I also have a base class for all my entities, but that is not generic. The method GetIdOrSave is going to be a different type than how I defined SabaAbstractDAO, as I am trying to get the primary key to fulfill the foreign key relationships, so this function goes out to either get the primary key or save the entity and then get the primary key. The last code snippet has a solution on how it will work if I get rid of the generic part, so I think this can be solved by using variance, but I can't figure out how to write an interface that will compile. public abstract class SabaAbstractDAO<T> { ... public K GetIdOrSave<K>(K item, Lazy<SabaAbstractDAO<BaseModel>> lazyitemdao) where K : BaseModel { if (item != null && item.Id.IsNull()) { var itemdao = lazyitemdao.Value; item.Id = itemdao.retrieveID(item); if (item.Id.IsNull()) { return itemdao.SaveData(item); } } return item; } } I am getting this error, when I try to compile: Argument 2: cannot convert from 'System.Lazy<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Dao.SabaCourseDAO>' to 'System.Lazy<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Dao.SabaAbstractDAO<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Models.BaseModel>>' I am trying to call it this way: GetIdOrSave(input.OfferingTemplate, new Lazy<SabaCourseDAO>( () => { return new SabaCourseDAO() { Dao = Dao }; }) ); If I change the definition to this, it works. public K GetIdOrSave<K>(K item, Lazy<SabaCourseDAO> lazyitemdao) where K : BaseModel { So, how can I get this to compile using variance (if needed) and generics, so I can have a very general method that will only work with BaseModel and AbstractDAO<BaseModel>? I expect I should only need to make the change in the method and perhaps abstract class definition, the usage should be fine.

    Read the article

  • XML Schema: How to specify an attribute with a custom 'simpleType' type?

    - by mackenir
    In my XML schema definition, I'm trying to restrict the value of an attribute to be an integer between 0 and 100. With reference to the sample schema below, I want attribute 'attr' on element 'root' to have this restriction. To achieve this I define a simpleType 'Percentage' and set this as the 'type' of 'attr'. However, my XML schema editor (VS 2008) flags the attribute up as having a problem: "Type 'Percentage' is not declared or is not a simple type". <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema elementFormDefault="qualified" id="test" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="http://testtttt"> <xs:simpleType name="Percentage"> <xs:restriction base="xs:integer"> <xs:minInclusive value="0"/> <xs:maxInclusive value="100"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> <xs:element name="root"> <xs:complexType> <xs:attribute name="attr" type="Percentage" use="optional" /> </xs:complexType> </xs:element>

    Read the article

  • WebService Stubs WSDL Axis2

    - by tt0686
    Good afternoon in my timezone. I have a wsdl file with the following snippet of code: <schema targetNamespace="http://util.cgd.pt" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <import namespace="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" /> <complexType name="Attribute"> <sequence> <element name="fieldType" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> <element name="dataType" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> <element name="name" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> <element name="value" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> </sequence> </complexType> <complexType name="ArrayOffAttribute"> <complexContent> <restriction base="soapenc:Array"> <attribute ref="soapenc:arrayType" wsdl:arrayType="tns3:Attribute[]" /> </restriction> </complexContent> </complexType> When i use jax-rpc or Axis1 to generate the stubs the type Attribute is generated, but when i use Axis2 the type Attribute is not generated and a new type is created ArrayOffAttribute, this new type extends the axis2.databinding.types.soapencoding.Array and permits to add elements through the array.addObject(object), my question is, i am migrating one Java EE application from webservices using jax-rpc to start using Axis2, and the methods are using the Attribute type to fullfill attributes fields, now in Axis2 and do not have attribute type , what should i use in the ArrayOffAttribute.addObject(?) ? Could be something wrong with Axis2 ? i am stop here :( Thanks in advance Best regards

    Read the article

  • Fun with "The remote server returned an error: NotFound" - Silverlight4 Out of Browser

    - by Scott Silvi
    Hey all - I'm running SL4 on VS2010. I've got an app that authenticates via a web service to SPROC in my db. Unfortunately this is not WCF/WCF RIA, as I'm inheriting the DB/services from my client. This works perfectly inside of a browser. I'm attempting to move this OOB, and it's at this point that my authentication fails. Here's the steps I took... 1) SL App Properties Enable running app Out of Browser 2) SL App Properties Out of Browser Settings Require elevated trust when running OOB If i set a breakpoint on my logon button click, I see the service call is being made. However, if I step through it (or set a breakpoint on the actual logon web service), the code never gets that far. Here's the block it fails on: public LogonSVC.LogonResponse EndLogon(System.IAsyncResult result) { object[] _args = new object[0]; LogonSVC.LogonResponse _result = ((LogonSVC.LogonResponse)(base.EndInvoke("Logon", _args, result))); return _result; } I know using Elevated Trust means the crossdomain.xml isn't necessary. I dropped one in that allows everything, just to test, and that still fails. here's the code that calls the service: private void loginButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string Username = txtUserName.Text; string Password = txtPassword.Password; Uri iSilverlightServiceUriRelative = new Uri(App.Current.Host.Source, "../Services/Logon.asmx"); EndpointAddress iSilverlightServiceEndpoint = new EndpointAddress(iSilverlightServiceUriRelative); BasicHttpBinding iSilverlightServiceBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport);// Transport if it's HTTPS:// LogonService = new LogonSVC.LogonSoapClient(iSilverlightServiceBinding, iSilverlightServiceEndpoint); LogonService.LogonCompleted += new EventHandler<LogonSVC.LogonCompletedEventArgs>(LogonService_LogonCompleted); LogonService.LogonAsync(Username, Password); } My LogonService_LogonCompleted doesn't fire either (which makes sense, just a heads up). I don't know how to fiddler this, as this is running OOB with the site served via localhost/IIS. I know this works though in browser, so I'm curious what would break it OOB. Thank you, Scott

    Read the article

  • How to bundle extension methods requiring configuration in a library

    - by Greg
    Hi, I would like to develop a library that I can re-use to add various methods involved in navigating/searching through a graph (nodes/relationships, or if you like vertexs/edges). The generic requirements would be: There are existing classes in the main project that already implement the equivalent of the graph class (which contains the lists of nodes / relationships), node class and relationship class (which links nodes together) - the main project likely already has persistence mechanisms for the info (e.g. these classes might be built using Entity Framework for persistance) Methods would need to be added to each of these 3 classes: (a) graph class - methods like "search all nodes", (b) node class - methods such as "find all children to depth i", c) relationship class - methods like "return relationship type", "get parent node", "get child node". I assume there would be a need to inform the library with the extending methods the class names for the graph/node/relationships table (as different project might use different names). To some extent it would need to be like how a generics collection works (where you pass the classes to the collection so it knows what they are). Need to be a way to inform the library of which node property to use for equality checks perhaps (e.g. if it were a graph of webpages the equality field to use might be the URI path) I'm assuming that using abstract base classes wouldn't really work as this would tie usage down to have to use the same persistence approach, and same class names etc. Whereas really I want to be able to, for a project that has "graph-like" characteristics, the ability to add graph searching/walking methods to it.

    Read the article

  • Problem with LINQ in C#

    - by David Bonnici
    I am encountering a problem when using LINQ in C#, I am constantly getting "Specified cast is not valid". This is what I am trying to do. I create a class in which I declare all the columns of the table. [Table(Name="tbl_Aff")] public class Affiliate { [Column] public string name; [Column] public string firstname; [Column] public string surname; [Column] public string title; } I then declare a strongly typed DataContext in which I declare all Table collections as members of the context. public partial class Database : DataContext { public Table affiliate; public Database() : base(Settings.getConnectionString()) { } //This method gets the connection string by reading from an XML file. } public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Database database = new Database(); try { var q = from a in database.affiliate select a; foreach (var aff in q) // Here I get the error "Specified cast is not valid" { lblMessage.InnerHtml += aff.name + ""; } } catch (Exception ex) { System.Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } }

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio Linked Files Directory Structure

    - by jeffn825
    I have two versions of a project. One for Silverlight and one for .NET. The SL project has the vast majority of the code base in it. I want to globally add all files from the SL project into the .NET version as linked files. I've managed to do so successfully like this in the csproj file for the .NET version: <Compile Include="..\MyProj.Common.SL\**\*.cs" Exclude="..\MyProj.Common\Properties\**"> Unfortunately, this adds all the files right to the root of my project... so I end up with a long unreadable list of linked files in the .NET project. I really really really don't want to have to maintain an entire duplicate directory structure by hand and deal with directory name changes and file name changes and whatnot. So, is there any way to have Visual Studio preserve the directory structure when adding linked files in the wildcard manner above? Or is there at least a way of making it group all the linked files together under a directory in the .NET project like MyProj.Common.SL.Links? The very closest I've come is to set the <Visible>false</Visible> under the <Compile> tag, which effectively removes the long unreadable list of 300+ files....but unfortunately this screws up Resharper, which no longer sees those files as valid and it goes crazy on all the projects that reference the .NET project. If I could figure out a way of making Resharper not get all messed up, that would be an acceptable solution too... Any suggestions? Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428  | Next Page >