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• How do I add a URL parameter to redirected login page using JSF 2.0

  - by Big Al

  I have a question about session timeouts and JSF 2. I have my exception handler working exactly the way everyone prefers but I need to pass a value to the login page. For example, I have a typical login URL - www.acme.com/?companyId=company14 which in turn presents company14 with their own custom login page (using their logo). After they enter the application and do a bit of work, they read an email or 2. The session times out and a session timeout page is shown instructing the user to click Ok to proceed to the login page. How do I add ?companyId=company14 to the URL? I can hardcode it in the exception handler by using this: requestMap.put("companyId", "company14"); and then referring to it on the viewExpired.xhtml page: <h:panelGrid id="expiredGrid" columns="1"> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText id="outExpireMsg" value="Your session has expired"/> </f:facet> <h:outputText id="outReqMessage" value="Reloading the page will require login."/> <h:outputText value=""/> <h:button id="okButton" type="submit" value="Ok" outcome="login?companyId=#{companyId}"/> </h:panelGrid> The issue is I can't seem to save the companyId anywhere without it getting wiped out by the session timeout. I'd like to set the companyId in the exceptionhandler using this value. Any ideas?

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• Most efficient way to send images across processes

  - by Heinrich Ulbricht

  Goal Pass images generated by one process efficiently and at very high speed to another process. The two processes run on the same machine and on the same desktop. The operating system may be WinXP, Vista and Win7. Detailled description The first process is solely for controlling the communication with a device which produces the images. These images are about 500x300px in size and may be updated up to several hundred times per second. The second process needs these images to display them. The first process uses a third party API to paint the images from the device to a HDC. This HDC has to be provided by me. Note: There is already a connection open between the two processes. They are communicating via anonymous pipes and share memory mapped file views. Thoughts How would I achieve this goal with as little work as possible? And I mean both work for me and the computer. I am using Delphi, so maybe there is some component available for doing this? I think I could always paint to any image component's HDC, save the content to memory stream, copy the contents via the memory mapped file, unpack it on the other side and paint it there to the destination HDC. I also read about a IPicture interface which can be used to marshall images. What are your ideas? I appreciate every thought on this!

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• How do I set YUI2 paginator to select a page other than the first page?

  - by Jeremy Weathers

  I have a YUI DataTable (YUI 2.8.0r4) with AJAX pagination. Each row in the table links to a details/editing page and I want to link from that details page back to the list page that includes the record from the details page. So I have to a) offset the AJAX data correctly and b) tell YAHOO.widget.Paginator which page to select. According to my reading of the YUI API docs, I have to pass in the initialPage configuration option. I've attempted this, but it doesn't take (the data from AJAX is correctly offset, but the paginator thinks I'm on page 1, so clicking "next" takes me from e.g. page 6 to page 2. What am I not doing (or doing wrong)? Here's my DataTable building code: (function() { var columns = [ {key: "retailer", label: "Retailer", sortable: false, width: 80}, {key: "publisher", label: "Publisher", sortable: false, width: 300}, {key: "description", label: "Description", sortable: false, width: 300} ]; var source = new YAHOO.util.DataSource("/sales_data.json?"); source.responseType = YAHOO.util.DataSource.TYPE_JSON; source.responseSchema = { resultsList: "records", fields: [ {key: "url"}, {key: "retailer"}, {key: "publisher"}, {key: "description"} ], metaFields: { totalRecords: "totalRecords" } }; var LoadingDT = function(div, cols, src, opts) { LoadingDT.superclass.constructor.call( this, div, cols, src, opts); // hide the message tbody this._elMsgTbody.style.display = "none"; }; YAHOO.extend(LoadingDT, YAHOO.widget.DataTable, { showTableMessage: function(msg) { $('sales_table_overlay').clonePosition($('sales_table').down('table')). show(); }, hideTableMessage: function() { $('sales_table_overlay').hide(); } }); var table = new LoadingDT("sales_table", columns, source, { initialRequest: "startIndex=125&results=25", dynamicData: true, paginator: new YAHOO.widget.Paginator({rowsPerPage: 25, initialPage: 6}) }); table.handleDataReturnPayload = function(oRequest, oResponse, oPayload) { oPayload.totalRecords = oResponse.meta.totalRecords; return oPayload; }; })();

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• Modify Executing Jar file

  - by pinkynobrain

  Hello Stack Overflow friends. I have a simple problem which i fear doesnt have a simple solution and i need advice as to how to proceed. I am developing a java application packaged as and executable JAR but it requires to modify some of its JAR file contents during execution. At this stage i hit a problem because some OS lock the file preventing writes to it. It is essential that the user sees an updated version of the jar file by the time the application exits allthough i can be pretty flexible as to how to achieve this. A clean and efficient solution is obviously prefereable but portability is the only hard requirement. The following are three approaches i can see to solving the problem, feel free to comment on them or suggest others. Tell Java to unlock the JAR file for writing(this doesnt seem possible but it would be the easyest solution) Copy the executable class files to a tempory file on application startup, use a class loader to load these files and unload the ones from the initial JAR file.(Not had much experience with the classloaders but hopefully the JVM would then be smart enough to realize that the original JAR is nolonger in use and so unlock it) Put a Second executable JAR File inside the First, on startup extract the inner jar to e temporaryfile, invoke a new java process and pass it the location of the Outer JAR, first process exits, second process modifys the Outer jar unincumbered.(This will work but im not sure there is a platform independant way of one java app invoking another) I know this is a weird question but any help would be appreciated.

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• Mocking View with RhinoMocks

  - by blu

  We are using MVP (Supervising Controller) for ASP.NET WebForms with 3.5 SP1. What is the preferred way to check the value of a view property that only has the a set operation with RhinoMocks? Here is what we have so far: var service = MockRepository.GenerateStub<IFooService>(); // stub some data for the method used in OnLoad in the presenter var view = MockRepository.GenerateMock<IFooView>(); var presenter = new FooPresenter(view, service); view.Raise(v => v.Load += null, this, EventArgs.Empty); Assert.IsTrue(view.Bars.Count == 10); // there is no get on Bars Should we use Expects or another way, any input would be great. Thanks Update based on Darin Dimitrov's reply. var bars = new List<Bar>() { new Bar() { BarId = 1 } }; var fooService = MockRepository.GenerateStub<IFooService>(); // this is called in OnLoad in the Presenter fooService.Stub(x => x.GetBars()).Return(bars); var view = MockRepository.GenerateMock<IFooView>(); var presenter = new FooPresenter(view, fooService); view.Raise(v => v.Load += null, this, EventArgs.Empty); view.AssertWasCalled(x => x.Bars = bars); // this does not pass This doesn't work. Should I be testing it this way or is there a better way?

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• Using NHibernate to select entities based on activity of children entities

  - by mannish

  I'm having a case of the Mondays... I need to select blog posts based on recent activity in the post's comments collection (a Post has a List<Comment> property and likewise, a Comment has a Post property, establishing the relationship. I don't want to show the same post twice, and I only need a subset of the entities, not all of the posts. First thought was to grab all posts that have comments, then order those based on the most recent comment. For this to work, I'm pretty sure I'd have to limit the comments for each Post to the first/newest Comment. Last I'd simply take the top 5 (or whatever max results number I want to pass into the method). Second thought would be to grab all of the comments, ordered by CreatedOn, and filter so there's only one Comment per Post. Then return those top (whatever) posts. This seems like the same as the first option, just going through the back door. I've got an ugly, two query option I've got working with some LINQ on the side for filtering, but I know there's a more elegant way to do it in using the NHibernate API. Hoping to see some good ideas here.

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• Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

  - by Andrew

  We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

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• Passing two variables to separate table...associations problem

  - by bgadoci

  I have developed an application and I seem to be having some problems with my associations. I have the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic has_many :questions, :dependent => :destroy has_many :sites , :dependent => :destroy end Questions class Question < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :sites, :dependent => :destroy has_many :notes, :through => :sites belongs_to :user end Sites (think of this as answers to questions) class Site < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_voteable :vote_counter => true belongs_to :question belongs_to :user has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy has_attached_file :photo, :styles => { :small => "250x250>" } validates_presence_of :name, :description end When a Site (answer) is created I am successfully passing the question_id to the Sites table but I can't figure out how to also pass the user_id. Here is my SitesController#create def create @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) @site = @question.sites.create!(params[:site]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(@question) } format.js end end

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• Converting UnicodeString to PAnsiChar in Delphi XE

  - by moodforaday

  In Delphi XE I am using the BASS audio library, which contains this function: function BASS_StreamCreateURL(url: PAnsiChar; offset: DWORD; flags: DWORD; proc: DOWNLOADPROC; user: Pointer):HSTREAM; stdcall; external bassdll; The 'url' parameter is of type PAnsiChar, so in my code I do a cast: FStreamHandle := BASS_StreamCreateURL(PAnsiChar( url ) [...] The compiler emits a warning on this line: "suspicious typecast of string to PAnsiChar". In trying to eliminate the warning, I found that the recommended way is to use a double cast: FStreamHandle := BASS_StreamCreateURL(PAnsiChar( AnsiString( url )) [...] This does eliminate the warning, but the BASS function now returns error code 2 ("cannot open file"), which tells me the URL string it receives is somehow broken. I cannot see what the bass DLL actually receives, but using a breakpoint in the debugger the string looks good: var s : PAnsiChar; begin s := PAnsiChar( AnsiString( url )); At this point string s appears fine, but the BASS function fails when I pass it. My initial code: PAnsiChar( url ) works well with BASS, but emits a warning. So what's the correct way of getting from UnicodeString to PAnsiChar without a warning?

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• Why is "rake tests" running an empty suite when I use shoulda?

  - by ryeguy

  So here is my test suite: class ReleaseTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase should_not_allow_values_for :title, '', 'blah', 'blah blah' should_allow_values_for :title, 'blah - bleh', 'blah blah - bleh bleh' def test_something assert true end end Shoulda's macros generate 5 tests, and then I have test_something below (just to see if that would matter), totalling 6 tests. They all pass as you can see below, but then it runs a 0-test suite. This happens even if I completely empty out ReleaseTest. This problem only exists if I have config.gem 'shoulda' in my environment.rb. If I explicitly do require 'shoulda' at the top of my tests, everything works fine. What would be causing this? /usr/bin/ruby -e STDOUT.sync=true;STDERR.sync=true;load($0=ARGV.shift) /var/lib/gems/1.9.1/bin/rake test Testing started at 6:58 PM ... (in /home/rlepidi/projects/rails/testproject) /usr/bin/ruby1.9.1 -I"lib:test" "/var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/unit/release_test.rb" Loaded suite /var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader Started ...... Finished in 0.029335778 seconds. 6 tests, 6 assertions, 0 failures, 0 errors, 0 pendings, 0 omissions, 0 notifications 100% passed /usr/bin/ruby1.9.1 -I"lib:test" "/var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" /usr/bin/ruby1.9.1 -I"lib:test" "/var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" Loaded suite /var/lib/gems/1.9.1/bin/rake Started Finished in 0.000106717 seconds. 0 tests, 0 assertions, 0 failures, 0 errors, 0 pendings, 0 omissions, 0 notifications 0% passed Empty test suite.

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• How can I 'transpose' my data using SQL and remove duplicates at the same time?

  - by Remnant

  I have the following data structure in my database: LastName FirstName CourseName John Day Pricing John Day Marketing John Day Finance Lisa Smith Marketing Lisa Smith Finance etc... The data shows employess within a business and which courses they have shown a preference to attend. The number of courses per employee will vary (i.e. as above, John has 3 courses and Lisa 2). I need to take this data from the database and pass it to a webpage view (asp.net mvc). I would like the data that comes out of my database to match the view as much as possible and want to transform the data using SQl so that it looks like the following: LastName FirstName Course1 Course2 Course3 John Day Pricing Marketing Finance Lisa Smith Marketing Finance Any thoughts on how this may be achieved? Note: one of the reasons I am trying this approach is that the original data structure does not easily lend itself to be iterated over using the typical mvc syntax: <% foreach (var item in Model.courseData) { %> Because of the duplication of names in the orignal data I would end up with lots of conditionals in my View which I would like to avoid. I have tried transforming the data using c# in my ViewModel but have found it tough going and feel that I could lighten the workload by leveraging SQL before I return the data. Thanks.

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• Broadcasting an intent to a specific component.

  - by Nic Strong

  I have an activity that is starting a background operation in another service. This activity receives various notifications from this service. As part of the intent I use to initiate the background operation I pass extra data with the context of my activity so the background service can broadcast intents back to me (the download service is a good example of this usage). So in the activity I use the following to attach the context: intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_PACKAGE, IntentTestActivity.this.getPackageName()); intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_CLASS, IntentTestActivity.class.getCanonicalName()); intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_EXTRAS, myContext); I register for the notifications in the activity: IntentFilter intentFilter = new IntentFilter(); intentFilter.addAction(Intents.ACTION_NOTIFICATION); intentFilter.addCategory(Intents.CATEGORY_COMPLETION); intentFilter.addCategory(Intents.CATEGORY_PROGRESSS); Intent intent = registerReceiver(receiver, intentFilter); In the background service I send notifications with the following code: void broadcastNotification(String action, String category, String packageName, String className, String extras, int operationResult) { Intent intent = new Intent(action); intent.addCategory(category); intent.setClassName(packageName, className); if (extras != null) { intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_EXTRAS, extras); } intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_OPERATION_RESULT, operationResult); context.sendBroadcast(intent); } My problem is that the above broadcast will never be received. If however I comment out the line intent.setClassName(packageName, className); Then the broadcast is received. Is it a problem with my filter? Do I have to specify intents intended for a specific component? Or cannot I not use such fine grain control over the delivery of broadcasts. Thanks, Nic

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• IValidator.Validate method and adding error message to a custom type

  - by user102533

  I have several server controls that implement the IValidator interface. As such, they have their own Validate() methods that look like this. public void Validate() { this.IsValid = true; if (someConditionFails()) { ErrorMessage = "Condition failed!"; this.IsValid = false; } } I understand that these Validate() methods are executed on postback before the load completed event that is executed before the save button's event handler. What I would like to do is pass in a reference to an instance of a custom class that collects all the error messages that I can access from Save button event handler. In other words, I would like to do something like this: public void Validate(ref SummaryOfErrorMessages sum) I guess I can't do this as the signature is different from what the IValidator interface has. The other option I can think of is on Load Completed event, I would iterate through all the validators on page, get the ones with IsValid = false and create my SummaryOfErrorMessages there. Does this sound right? Is there a better way of doing it?

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• Flexible design - customizable entity model, UI and workflow

  - by Ngm

  Hi All, I want to achieve the following aspects in the software I am building: 1. Customizable entity model 2. Customizable UI 3. Customizable workflow I have thought about an approach to achieve this, I want you to review this and make suggestions: Entity objects should be plain objects and will hold just data Separate Entity model and DB Schema by using an framework (like NHibernate?). This will allow easy modification of entity objects. Business logic to fetch/modify entities has to be granular enough so that they can be invoked as part of the workflow. Business objects should not hold any state, and hence will contain only static methods The workflow will decide depending upon the "state" of an entity/entities which methods on business object/objects to invoke. The workflow should obtain the results of the processing and then pass on the business objects to the appropriate UI screen. The UI screen has to contain instructions about how to display a given entity/entites. Possibly the UI has to be generated dynamically based on a set of UI instructions. (like XUL) What do you think about this approach? Suggest which existing frameworks (like NHiberante, Window Workflow) fit into this model, so that I will not spend time on coding these frameworks Also suggest is there any asp.net framework that can generate dynamic asp.net ajax pages based on a set of UI instructions (like Mozilla XUL)? I have recently been exploring Apache Ofbiz and was impressed by its ability to customize most areas of the application: UI, workflow, entities. Is there any similar (not necessarily an ERP system) application developed in C#/.Net which offers a similar level of customization? I am looking for examples of applications developed in C# that are highly customizable in terms of UI, Workflow and Entity Model

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• Handling events from user control containing a WPF textbox

  - by Tom

  I've been successful in putting a WPF textbox into an existing windows form using ElementHost and a user control. It looks like the following: Public Class MyUserControl Private _elementHost as ElementHost = New ElementHost Private _wpfTextbox as System.Windows.Controls.Textbox = New System.Windows.Controls.Textbox Public Sub New() Me.Controls.Add(_elementHost) _elementHost.Dock = DockStyle.Fill _elementHost.Child = _wpfTextbox _wpfTextbox.SpellCheck.IsEnabled = True End Sub End Class Now, when I put this user control onto a windows form, it accepts keyboard input and the form itself can get text from the textbox. However, when I try to handle keypress (or keydown, keyup) events from the user control, nothing happens. I've looked into this problem and did a bit of research but now I'm a little confused as to what I really need to be looking at. The following are the topics that I am somewhat confused about. HwndSource Relaxed delegates WPF routed events If I am interpreting everything correctly, input from WPF textboxes are handled differently compared to regular form textboxes. It seems like both aren't compatible with each other but there must be some way to "pass" keys from one to another? I'd appreciate any help.

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• asp:repeater events - how to postback

  - by Kieran

  Hello I have an ASP:Repeater Which I would like to display a list of check boxes in. These check boxes are related to a list of user preferences and the users resulting answer. See Code Bellow. I would like to add do one of the following if possible Option 1: It would be great if I could use the Event in the Repeater:OnItemCommand(...) to fire if any of the items change. It would seem to me that this event will only fire if there is a Button | LinkButton | ImageButton item in the list. IE it will not fire if I put in a check box with AutopostBack="True" Option 2: Is there a way I could attach a method to an Event of CheckBox:CheckChanged I would need to pass this method a parameter saying which question/answer combo to change. Option 3: Its your answer if you know an easier way that would be awesome. The Code: <asp:Repeater ID="RPTprefs" runat="server" DataSourceID="getAnswers" OnItemCommand="RPTprefs_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <li><asp:CheckBox ID='questionID' runat="server" Checked='<%# Eval("pr.up_is_selected") %>' Text='<%# Eval("prp.prefs_question") %>' AutoPostBack="true" OnCheckedChanged="CheckChanged" /></li> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Thanks in advance

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• SharePoint 2010 / ASP.Net Integration - Looking for advice

  - by jpennal

  I have been Googling a problem that I have with trying to integrate the web application that I am working on with SharePoint 2010. The web application is a wiki style tool that allows users to log in via forms authentication or WIA against Active Directory and create content for themselves and others. What we would like to do is to allow a user have a page with the content they have created in our web application mixed in with content that they have living on the SharePoint server. For example, they may want to see a list of documents that they have on the SharePoint server mixed in with some of their content. To accomplish this, we would like to take the credentials the user has logged into our web application with (for example MYDOMAIN\jsmith) and be able to query SharePoint for the documents of that same user (MYDOMAIN\jsmith) WITHOUT the user being prompted to re-enter their credentials to access the SharePoint server (we are trying to avoid the double-hop problem) We have come up with some options for how we want to do this, but we are unsure of what the best approach is. For example, we could - Have a global user, shared by all users to get information we need from SharePoint. The downside is that we cannot filter SharePoint content to a particular user - We could store the users credentials when they log in, but that would only work for users authenticating via forms auth and would be a security issue that some users/clients would not like - Writing a SharePoint extension using WCF to allow us to access the information we need, however we'd still have the issue of figuring out how to impersonate the user we want. Neither of these options are ideal and in our investigation we came across the Claims Authentication/STS option which seems like it is trying to solve the problem we are having. So my question is, based on what I have written, is Claims/STS the best approach for us? We have not been able to find much direction on how to use this method to call into SharePoint from a Web Application and pass along the existing credentials. Does anyone have any experience with any of these issues?

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• one page filter results in new page in javascript

  - by Jake

  I have links set up on one page and the relationship between the links is a parent child relationship. (For example: Parent: All, Children: Software; Hardware) These links of course lead the user to a new page that shows the results from a table that is populated. Currently these links are all Similar destinations, but just a filter in the url. But the problem is that there is a javascript filter on the page that gives the user to choose between All, Software, or Hardware. Understand basically that if the url is still reading that there on the software page but they just filtered on the page to be Hardware that doesn't look good IMO. So what I was trying to do was make the links on the inital page all go the the exact same destination and somehow still know on the new page which link was clicked and run the javascript filter from knowing which link was clicked on that page. Is there a way to found that out from javascript? I guess a way to pass that value to the new page and retrieving it in javascript without showing it in the url so I can filter the table for the user based on that value?

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• Resolve sibling folder in JavaScript Function

  - by Jamen Chu

  Hi, I am trying to pass into an JavaScript function two paths for an XML and XSLT. It would appear that in the sample HTML below that the use of "../xsl/filename" does not work for me in the xslt() function. If I specify the path as being "./filename" though this does work. Does anyone know how I can work around this or find some way that I can specify a sibling folder without an absolute path reference? I would prefer not to have to change my file paths as my development environment is set up with the xslt's, sample data and source code structured in a particular way. Thanks in advance Jamen <html> <head> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="../lib/jsunit/app/jsUnitCore.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../lib/jquery-1.2.3.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../lib/jquery.xslt.js"></script> </head> <body> <div id="bla"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#bla').xslt("../sampledata/response1.xml", "../xslt/resultFormatter.xsl"); //function testjQuery() { // $('#bla').xslt("../sampledata/response1.xml", "../xslt/resultFormatter.xsl"); //} </script> </body> </html>

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• secure rest API for running user "apps" in an iframe

  - by Brian Armstrong

  I want to let users create "apps" (like Facebook apps) for my website, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to make it secure. I have a REST api i want to run the user apps in an iframe on my own site (not a safe markup language like FBML) I was first looking at oAuth but this seems overkill for my solution. The "apps" don't need to be run on external sites or in desktop apps or anything. The user would stay on my site at all times but see the user submitted "app" through the iframe. So when I call the app the first time through the iframe, I can pass it some variables so it knows which logged in user is using it on my site. It can then use this user session in it's own API calls to customize the display. If the call is passed in the clear, I don't want someone to be able to intercept the session and impersonate the user. Does anyone know a good way to do this or good write up on it? Thanks!

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• Need some help/advice on WCF Per-Call Service and NServiceBus interop.

  - by Alexey

  I have WCF Per-Call service wich provides data for clients and at the same time is integrated with NServiceBus. All statefull objects are stored in UnityContainer wich is integrated into custom service host. NServiceBus is configured in service host and uses same container as service instances. Every client has its own instance context(described by Juval Lowy in his book in chapter about Durable Services). If i need to send request over bus I just use some kind of dispatcher and wait response using Thread.Sleep().Since services are per-call this is ok afaik. But I am confused a bit about messages from bus, that service must handle and provide them to clients. For some data like stock quotes I just update some kind of statefull object and and then, when clients invoke GetQuotesData() just provide data from this object. But there are numerous service messages like new quote added and etc. At this moment I have an idea to implement something like "Postman daemon" =)) and store this type of messages in instance context. Then client will invoke "GetMail()",recieve those messages and parse them. Problem is that NServiceBus messages are "Interface based" and I cant pass them over WCF, so I need to convert them to types derieved from some abstract class. Dunno what is best way to handle this situation. Will be very gratefull for any advice on this. Thanks in advance.

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• F# passing an operator with arguments to a function

  - by dan

  Can you pass in an operation like "divide by 2" or "subtract 1" using just a partially applied operator, where "add 1" looks like this: List.map ((+) 1) [1..5];; //equals [2..6] // instead of having to write: List.map (fun x-> x+1) [1..5] What's happening is 1 is being applied to (+) as it's first argument, and the list item is being applied as the second argument. For addition and multiplication, this argument ordering doesn't matter. Suppose I want to subtract 1 from every element (this will probably be a common beginners mistake): List.map ((-) 1) [1..5];; //equals [0 .. -4], the opposite of what we wanted 1 is applied to the (-) as its first argument, so instead of (list_item - 1), I get (1 - list_item). I can rewrite it as adding negative one instead of subtracting positive one: List.map ((+) -1) [1..5];; List.map (fun x -> x-1) [1..5];; // this works too I'm looking for a more expressive way to write it, something like ((-) _ 1), where _ denotes a placeholder, like in the Arc language. This would cause 1 to be the second argument to -, so in List.map, it would evaluate to list_item - 1. So if you wanted to map divide by 2 to the list, you could write: List.map ((/) _ 2) [2;4;6] //not real syntax, but would equal [1;2;3] List.map (fun x -> x/2) [2;4;6] //real syntax equivalent of the above Can this be done or do I have to use (fun x -> x/2)? It seems that the closest we can get to the placeholder syntax is to use a lambda with a named argument.

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• Using wildcards in prepared statement - MySQLi

  - by Michael Irwin

  Hi! I'm trying to run the following query, and I'm having trouble with the wildcard. function getStudents() { global $db; $users = array(); $query = $db->prepare("SELECT id, adminRights FROM users WHERE classes LIKE ? && adminRights='student'"); $query->bind_param('s', '%' . $this->className . '%'); $query->execute(); $query->bind_result($uid, $adminRights); while ($query->fetch()) { if (isset($adminRights[$this->className]) && $adminRights[$this->className] == 'student') $users[] = $uid; } $query->close(); return $users; } I'm getting an error that states: Cannot pass parameter 2 by reference. The reason I need to use the wildcard is because the column's data contains serialized arrays. I guess, if there's an easier way to handle this, what could I do? Thanks in advance!

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• how to know location of return address on stack c/c++

  - by Dr Deo

  i have been reading about a function that can overwrite its return address. void foo(const char* input) { char buf[10]; //What? No extra arguments supplied to printf? //It's a cheap trick to view the stack 8-) //We'll see this trick again when we look at format strings. printf("My stack looks like:\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n% p\n\n"); //%p ie expect pointers //Pass the user input straight to secure code public enemy #1. strcpy(buf, input); printf("%s\n", buf); printf("Now the stack looks like:\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n\n"); } It was sugggested that this is how the stack would look like Address of foo = 00401000 My stack looks like: 00000000 00000000 7FFDF000 0012FF80 0040108A <-- We want to overwrite the return address for foo. 00410EDE Question: -. Why did the author arbitrarily choose the second last value as the return address of foo()? -. Are values added to the stack from the bottom or from the top? apart from the function return address, what are the other values i apparently see on the stack? ie why isn't it filled with zeros Thanks.

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• php curl login problem

  - by user331329

  <?php // create a new CURL resource $file_path = '/mail'; define("COOKIE_FILE", "c:\cookie.txt"); $ch = curl_init(); // set URL and other appropriate options curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "https://mail.gov.in/iwc/signin"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, FALSE); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1.6) Gecko/20070725 Firefox/2.0.0.6"); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 60); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIESESSION, TRUE); session_write_close(); $strCookie = 'PHPSESSID=d095af0e30afc021dd3652734009' . $_COOKIE['PHPSESSID'] . '; path=/mail'; curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_COOKIE, $strCookie ); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, COOKIE_FILE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, COOKIE_FILE); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,'fromLogin=true&domainName=nic.in&username=&password=&button=Sign%20In'); $url = curl_getinfo($ch); // grab URL and pass it to the browser $data = curl_exec($ch); echo $data."<pre>"; echo "<pre>"; print_r($url); // close CURL resource, and free up system resources curl_close($ch); ?> whats wrong with my code why i am not able to login directly in their mail

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