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  • PDCurses TUI C++ Win32 console app - Access violation reading location

    - by Bach
    I have downloaded pdcurses source and was able to successfully include curses.h in my project, linked the pre-compiled library and all good. After few hours of trying out the library, I saw the tuidemo.c in the demos folder, compiled it into an executable and brilliant! exactly what I needed for my project. Now the problem is that it's a C code, and I am working on a C++ project in VS c++ 2008. The files I need are tui.c and tui.h How can I include that C file in my C++ code? I saw few suggestions here but the compiler was not too happy with 100's of warnings and errors. How can I go on including/using that TUI pdcurses includes!? Thanks EDIT: I added extern "C" statement, so my test looks like this now, but I'm getting some other type of error #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> using namespace std; extern "C" { #include <tui.h> } void sub0(void) { //do nothing } void sub1(void) { //do nothing } int main (int argc, char * const argv[]) { menu MainMenu[] = { { "Asub", sub0, "Go inside first submenu" }, { "Bsub", sub1, "Go inside second submenu" }, { "", (FUNC)0, "" } /* always add this as the last item! */ }; startmenu(MainMenu, "TUI - 'textual user interface' demonstration program"); return 0; } Although it is compiling successfully, it is throwing an Error at runtime, which suggests a bad pointer: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x021c52f9 at line startmenu(MainMenu, "TUI - 'textual user interface' demonstration program"); Not sure where to go from here. thanks again.

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  • Editing 8bpp indexed Bitmaps

    - by Pedro Sá
    hi, i'm trying to edit the pixels of a 8bpp. Since this PixelFormat is indexed i'm aware that it uses a Color Table to map the pixel values. Even though I can edit the bitmap by converting it to 24bpp, 8bpp editing is much faster (13ms vs 3ms). But, changing each value when accessing the 8bpp bitmap results in some random rgb colors even though the PixelFormat remains 8bpp. I'm currently developing in c# and the algorithm is as follows: (C#) 1- Load original Bitmap at 8bpp 2- Create Empty temp Bitmap with 8bpp with the same size as the original 3-LockBits of both bitmaps and, using P/Invoke, calling c++ method where I pass the Scan0 of each BitmapData object. (I used a c++ method as it offers better performance when iterating through the Bitmap's pixels) (C++) 4- Create a int[256] palette according to some parameters and edit the temp bitmap bytes by passing the original's pixel values through the palette. (C#) 5- UnlockBits. My question is how can I edit the pixel values without having the strange rgb colors, or even better, edit the 8bpp bitmap's Color Table? Regards, Pedro

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  • C# unit test code questions continue

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    more questions after questions in here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2714073/c-unit-test-code-questions I found the VS unit test testframe treat private and protected method in the same way but deferent with public method. The following is the generated code for a private method: /// <summary> ///A test for recordLogin ///</summary> [TestMethod()] [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] public void recordLoginTest() { User_Accessor target = new User_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Guid userId = new Guid(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string action = string.Empty; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Users user = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value AndeDBEntities db = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool expected = false; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool actual; actual = target.recordLogin(userId, action, user, db); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } questions: [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] is for private and protected methods, why needs it and what is it for? In my original class/file, if I point to the original method and try to "Find All References". The reference in the unit test class/file will not show up for private and protected methods but it will show up for all public methods. Why is that? Is it right? 3.

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  • stack and heap issue for iPhone memory management

    - by Forrest
    From this post I got know that the Objective-C runtime does not allow objects to be instantiated on the stack, but only on the heap; this means that you don’t have “automatic objects”, nor things like auto_ptr objects to help you manage memory; Someone give one example in post Objective C: Memory Allocation on stack vs. heap NSString* str = @"hello"; but this NSString is also not allocated in stack. Feel odd that this str is static. (Who can explain this ? ) Question here is that why there is no heap ? even mixing c++ together with Object C ? /////////////////////////////// Clear my question /////////////////////////////// I am confused , so questions are not clear. Let me put in this way. 1) All Object C objects should be alloc in stack ? ( I think yes ) 2)In C++, there are stack for memory, so for iOS app, also have stack ? ( I think yes ) 3) for iOS app, if only use Object C, so what is the usage of stack ? what kind of objects should use stack then ?

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  • Using Oracle hint "FIRST_ROWS" to improve Oracle database performances

    - by bobetko
    I have a statement that runs on Oracle database server. The statement has about 5 joins and there is nothing unusual there. It looks pretty much like below: SELECT field1, field2, field3, ... FROM table1, table2, table3, table4, table5 WHERE table1.id = table2.id AND table2.id = table3.id AND ... table5.userid = 1 The problem (and what is interesting) is that statement for userid = 1 takes 1 second to return 590 records. Statement for userid = 2 takes around 30 seconds to return 70 records. I don't understand why is difference so big. It seems that different execution plan is chosen for statement with userid = 1 and different for userid = 2. After I implemented Oracle Hint FIRST_ROW, performance become significantly better. Both statements (for both ids 1 and 2) produce return in under 1 second. SELECT /*+ FIRST_ROWS */ field1, field2, field3, ... FROM table1, table2, table3, table4, table5 WHERE table1.id = table2.id AND table2.id = table3.id AND ... table5.userid = 1 Questions: 1) What are possible reasons for bad performance when userid = 2 (when hint is not used)? 2) Why would execution plan be different for one vs another statement (when hint is not used)? 3) Is there anything that I should be careful about when deciding to add this hint to my queries? Thanks

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  • .NET EventHandlers - Generic or no?

    - by Chris Marasti-Georg
    Every time I start in deep in a C# project, I end up with lots of events that really just need to pass a single item. I stick with the EventHandler/EventArgs practice, but what I like to do is have something like: public delegate void EventHandler<T>(object src, EventArgs<T> args); public class EventArgs<T>: EventArgs { private T item; public EventArgs(T item) { this.item = item; } public T Item { get { return item; } } } Later, I can have my public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; public event EventHandler<Bar> BarChanged; However, it seems that the standard for .NET is to create a new delegate and EventArgs subclass for each type of event. Is there something wrong with my generic approach? EDIT: The reason for this post is that I just re-created this in a new project, and wanted to make sure it was ok. Actually, I was re-creating it as I posted. I found that there is a generic EventHandler<TEventArgs, so you don't need to create the generic delegate, but you still need the generic EventArgs<T class, because TEventArgs: EventArgs. Another EDIT: One downside (to me) of the built-in solution is the extra verbosity: public event EventHandler<EventArgs<Foo>> FooChanged; vs. public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; It can be a pain for clients to register for your events though, because the System namespace is imported by default, so they have to manually seek out your namespace, even with a fancy tool like Resharper... Anyone have any ideas pertaining to that?

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  • How can I disable keep-alive on ASP.NET Web Service client requests?

    - by Matthew Brindley
    I have a few web servers behind an Amazon EC2 load balancer. I'm using TCP balancing on port 80 (rather than HTTP balancing). I have a client polling a Web Service (running on all web servers) for new items every few seconds. However, the client seems to stay connected to one server and polls that same server each time. I've tried using ServicePointManager to disable KeepAlive, but that didn't change anything. The outgoing connection still had its "connection: keep-alive" HTTP header, and the server kept the TCP connection open. I've also tried adding an override of GetWebRequest to the proxy class created by VS, which inherits from SoapHttpClientProtocol, but I still see the keep-alive header. If I kill the client's process and restart, it'll connect to a new server via the load balancer, but it'll continue polling that new server forever. Is there a way to force it to connect to a random server each time? I want the load from the one client to be spread across all of the web servers. The client is written in C# (as is the server) and uses a Web Reference (not a Service Reference), which points to the load balancer.

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  • Enable MEX in a Web.Config

    - by Conor
    Hi Folks, How do I enable/create a MEX endpoint in the below web config so I can view the service from my browser? I have tried a few variation from googling but VS always complains about it. (not a valid child element etc...) <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0" /> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"/> <services> <service name="MyApp.MyService" behaviorConfiguration="WebServiceBehavior"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="MyApp.IMyService" behaviorConfiguration="JsonBehavior"> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> </service> </services> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="JsonBehavior"> <webHttp/> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> Cheers, Conor

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  • Date since 1600 to NSDate?

    - by Steven Fisher
    I have a date that's stored as a number of days since January 1, 1600 that I need to deal with. This is a legacy date format that I need to read many, many times in my application. Previously, I'd been creating a calendar, empty date components and root date like this: self.gregorian = [[[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier: NSGregorianCalendar ] autorelease]; id rootComponents = [[[NSDateComponents alloc] init] autorelease]; [rootComponents setYear: 1600]; [rootComponents setMonth: 1]; [rootComponents setDay: 1]; self.rootDate = [gregorian dateFromComponents: rootComponents]; self.offset = [[[NSDateComponents alloc] init] autorelease]; Then, to convert the integer later to a date, I use this: [offset setDay: theLegacyDate]; id eventDate = [gregorian dateByAddingComponents: offset toDate: rootDate options: 0]; (I never change any values in offset anywhere else.) The problem is I'm getting a different time for rootDate on iOS vs. Mac OS X. On Mac OS X, I'm getting midnight. On iOS, I'm getting 8:12:28. (So far, it seems to be consistent about this.) When I add my number of days later, the weird time stays. OS | legacyDate | rootDate | eventDate ======== | ========== | ==========================|========================== Mac OS X | 143671 | 1600-01-01 00:00:00 -0800 | 1993-05-11 00:00:00 -0700 iOS | 143671 | 1600-01-01 08:12:28 +0000 | 1993-05-11 07:12:28 +0000 In the previous release of my product, I didn't care about the time; now I do. Why the weird time on iOS, and what should I do about it? (I'm assuming the hour difference is DST.) I've tried setting the hour, minute and second of rootComponents to 0. This has no impact. If I set them to something other than 0, it adds them to 8:12:28. I've been wondering if this has something to do with leap seconds or other cumulative clock changes. Or is this entirely the wrong approach to use on iOS?

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  • Anybody seen this behavior with Sql Server Reporting Services, a 64bit OS and an Oracle datasource?

    - by dkackman
    I'm working on a Sql Server Reporting Services solution that queries across both a Sql Server data source and an Oracle 10g data source. My dev box is Windows 7 64bit with Sql Server 2008R2 and I'm hosting IIS7 and SSRS on that system for development; using VS.NET for designing the reports. I have been having errors when running the report where SSRS complains about loading the 32 bit Oracle client in a 64bit process. There a number of threads out there about how to solve that. The thing is, they all come down to making sure you have the 64bit Oracle, client which I do. The weird chain of events I have goes like this: Create initial Oracle datasource and wire up report (it works) Edit Oracle datasource connection (it stops working with BadImageFormatException 32bit/64bit error message) uninstall and reinstall Oracle client (it works) Edit Oracle connection again (it stops working with BadImageFormatException 32bit/64bit error message) So short of reinstalling the client every time I change the connection string I am at a complete loss. Has anybody seen this sort of behavior? And if so what the heck am I doing wrong?

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  • Altering URLs and mapping - path_prefix? - Ruby on Rails...

    - by bgadoci
    Ok, so I am working on a blog application of sorts. Thus far, it allows for a user to sign up for their own account, create posts, tags, comments, etc. I have just implemented the ability to use www.myapp.com/brandon to set @user to find by username and therefore correctly display the users information at each url. So when you go to www.myapp.com/brandon you see all Brandon's posts, tags, and comments associated with those posts, etc. Works great. I implementing this URL mapping through the routes.rb file by adding the following: map.username_link '/:username', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'index' And then just setting the @user variable in the PostController and corresponding views to find_by_username. Now the issue is this. Once at www.myapp.com/brandon when you click on a post title, it sends to myapp.com/posts/id without the username in the URL which blows up my view because nothing is being set for the @user variable. How do I tell Rails to create the link reading www.myapp.com/brandon/posts/id vs www.myapp.com/posts/id and then map that action? I am assuming this will involve some code in the view, and then adding another line in the routes.rb file, map.subdomain_link '/:username/posts/:id', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'show' and adding the @user variable to the PostController#show action, but not totally sure if this is even the right approach. UPDATE: I have been reading about :path_prefix and seems like it might be what I am looking for. I have tried to implement simply by adding map.resources :posts, :path_prefix => '/:user_username/:post_id' to the routes.rb file but not working (even after server restart). I am sure this is not correct but wanted to let you know what I have tried.

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  • What is the correct way to pass an object to WebApi RC controller

    - by Diver Dan
    I have a webapi project running rc I have a very basic controlller like [System.Web.Http.HttpPost] public void Update(Business business) { //if (business.Id == Guid.Empty) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business ID not provided", HttpStatusCode.BadRequest); //} _repository.Update(business); //if (!isUpdated) //{ // throw new HttpResponseException("Business not found", HttpStatusCode.NotFound); //} } I found an example using HttpClient however it doesnt work with rc using (var client = new HttpClient()) { try { string url = string.Format("{0}{1}", ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ApiBaseUrl"].ToString(),apiMethod); HttpRequestMessage request = new HttpRequestMessage(); MediaTypeFormatter[] formatter = new MediaTypeFormatter[] { new JsonMediaTypeFormatter() }; var content = request.CreateContent<Business>( business, MediaTypeHeaderValue.Parse("application/json"), formatter, new FormatterSelector()); HttpResponseMessage response = client.PostAsync(url, content).Result; return response.Content.ToString(); } catch (Exception ex) { return null; } } I get an error Method not found: 'Void System.Net.Http.Headers.HttpHeaders.AddWithoutValidation(System.String, System.String)'. Passing the data from jquery is a piece of cake however I need call the api from code behind vs client side. Can someone point me in the right direction for calling the webapi? Thank you

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  • ifstream Open function not working

    - by Dave Swersky
    I've been all over the ifstream questions here on SO and I'm still having trouble reading a simple text file. I'm working with Visual Studio 2008. Here's my code: // CPPFileIO.cpp : Defines the entry point for the console application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include <fstream> #include <conio.h> #include <iostream> #include <string> using namespace std; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { ifstream infile; infile.open("input.txt", ifstream::in); if (infile.is_open()) { while (infile.good()) cout << (char) infile.get(); } else { cout << "Unable to open file."; } infile.close(); _getch(); return 0; } I have confirmed that the input.txt file is in the correct "working directory" by checking the value of argv[0]. The Open method just won't work. I'm also having trouble debugging- should I not be able to set a watch on "infile.good()" or "infile.is_open()"? I keep getting "Error: member function not present." EDIT: Updated code listing with full code from .CPP file. UPDATE: The file was NOT in the Current Working Directory. This is the directory where the project file is located. Moved it there and it works when debugging in VS.NET.

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  • Visual Studio code metrics misreporting lines of code

    - by Ian Newson
    The code metrics analyser in Visual Studio, as well as the code metrics power tool, report the number of lines of code in the TestMethod method of the following code as 8. At the most, I would expect it to report lines of code as 3. [TestClass] public class UnitTest1 { private void Test(out string str) { str = null; } [TestMethod] public void TestMethod() { var mock = new Mock<UnitTest1>(); string str; mock.Verify(m => m.Test(out str)); } } Can anyone explain why this is the case? Further info After a little more digging I've found that removing the out parameter from the Test method and updating the test code causes LOC to be reported as 2, which I believe is correct. The addition of out causes the jump, so it's not because of braces or attributes. Decompiling the DLL with dotPeek reveals a fair amount of additional code generated because of the out parameter which could be considered 8 LOC, but removing the parameter and decompiling also reveals generated code, which could be considered 5 LOC, so it's not simply a matter of VS counting compiler generated code (which I don't believe it should do anyway).

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  • Reduce number of config files to as few as possible

    - by Scott
    For most of my applications I use iBatis.Net for database access/modeling and log4Net for logging. In doing this, I need a number of *.config files for each project. For example, for a simple application I need to have the following *.config files: app.config ([AssemblyName].[Extention].config) [AssemblyName].SqlMap.config [AssemblyName].log4Net.config [AssemblyName].SqlMapProperties.config providers.config When these applications go from DEV to TEST to PRODUCTION environments, the settings contained in these files change depending on the environment. When the number of files get compounded by having 5-10 (or more) supporting executables per project, the work load on the infrastructure team (the ones doing the roll-outs to the different environments) gets rather high. We also have a high risk of one of the config files being missed, or a mistype in the config file. What is the best way to avoid these risks? Should I combine all of the config files into one file? (is that possible with iBatis?) I know that with VisualStudio 2010 they introduce transforms for these config files that allow the developer to setup all the settings for the different environments and then dynamically (depending on the build kicked off) the config files get updated to the correct versions. (VS 2010 - transforms) Thank you for any help that you can provide.

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  • Vote on Pros and Cons of Java HTML to XML cleaners

    - by George Bailey
    I am looking to allow HTML emails (and other HTML uploads) without letting in scripts and stuff. I plan to have a white list of safe tags and attributes as well as a whitelist of CSS tags and value regexes (to prevent automatic return receipt). I asked a question: Parse a badly formatted XML document (like an HTML file) I found there are many many ways to do this. Some systems have built in sanitizers (which I don't care so much about). This page is a very nice listing page but I get kinda lost http://java-source.net/open-source/html-parsers It is very important that the parsers never throw an exception. There should always be best guess results to the parse/clean. It is also very important that the result is valid XML that can be traversed in Java. I posted some product information and said Community Wiki. Please post any other product suggestions you like and say Community Wiki so they can be voted on. Also any comments or wiki edits on what part of a certain product is better and what is not would be greatly appreciated. (for example,, speed vs accuracy..) It seems that we will go with either jsoup (seems more active and up to date) or TagSoup (compatible with JDK4 and been around awhile). A +1 for any of these products would be if they could convert all style sheets into inline style on the elements.

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  • Delete record in Linq to Sql

    - by Anders Svensson
    I have Linq2Sql classes User, Page, and UserPage (from a junction table), i.e. a many-to-many relationship. I'm using a gridview to show all Users, with a dropdownlist in each row to show the Pages visited by each user. Now I want to be able to delete records through the gridview, so I have added a delete button in the gridview by setting "Enable deleting" on it. Then I tried to use the RowDeleting event to specify how to delete the records since it doesn't work by default. And because its a relationship I know I need to delete the related records in the junction table before deleting the user record itself, so I added this in the RowDeleting event: protected void GridView2_RowDeleting(object sender, GridViewDeleteEventArgs e) { int id = (int)((DataKey)GridView2.DataKeys[e.RowIndex]).Value; UserPageDBDataContext context = new UserPageDBDataContext(); var userPages = from userPage in context.UserPages where userPage.User.UserID == id select userPage; foreach (var userPage in userPages) context.UserPages.DeleteOnSubmit(userPage); context.SubmitChanges(); var user = context.Users.Single(u => u.UserID == id); context.Users.DeleteOnSubmit(user); context.SubmitChanges(); } This actually seems to delete records, because the record with the id in question does indeed disappear, but strangely, a new record seems to be added at the end...! So, say I have 3 records in the gridview: 1 Jack stackoverflow.com 2 Betty stackoverflow.com/questions 3 Joe stackoverflow.com/whatever Now, if I try to delete user 1 (Jack), record number 1 will indeed disappear in the gridview, but the same record will appear at the end with a new id: 2 Jack stackoverflow.com 3 Betty stackoverflow.com/questions 4 Joe stackoverflow.com/whatever I have tried searching on how to delete records using Linq, and I believe I'm doing exacly as the examples I have read (e.g. the second example here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/Bb386925%28v=VS.100%29.aspx). I have read that you can also set cascade delete on the relationship in the database, but I wanted to do it this way in code, as your supposed to be able to. So what am I doing wrong?

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  • Synchronize DataGrid and DataForm in Silverlight 3

    - by SpiralGray
    I've been banging my head against the wall for a couple of days on this and it's time to ask for help. I've got a DataGrid and DataForm on the same UserControl. I'm using an MVVM approach so there is a single ViewModel for the UserControl. That ViewModel has a couple of properties that are relevant to this discussion: public ObservableCollection<VehicleViewModel> Vehicles { get; private set; } public VehicleViewModel SelectedVehicle { get { return selectedVehicle; } private set { selectedVehicle = value; OnPropertyChanged( "SelectedVehicle" ); } } In the XAML I've got the DataGrid and DataForm defined as follows: <data:DataGrid SelectionMode="Single" ItemsSource="{Binding Vehicles}" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedVehicle, Mode=TwoWay}" AutoGenerateColumns="False" IsReadOnly="True"> <dataFormToolkit:DataForm CurrentItem="{Binding SelectedVehicle}" /> So as the SelectedItem changes on the DataGrid it should push that change back to the ViewModel and when the ViewModel raises the OnPropertyChanged the DataForm should refresh itself with the information for the newly-selected VehicleViewModel. However, the setter for SelectedVehicle is never being called and in the Output window of VS I'm seeing the following error: System.Windows.Data Error: ConvertBack cannot convert value 'xxxx.ViewModel.VehicleViewModel' (type 'xxxx.ViewModel.VehicleViewModel'). BindingExpression: Path='SelectedVehicle' DataItem='xxxx.ViewModel.MainViewModel' (HashCode=31664161); target element is 'System.Windows.Controls.DataGrid' (Name=''); target property is 'SelectedItem' (type 'System.Object').. System.MethodAccessException: xxxx.ViewModel.MainViewModel.set_SelectedVehicle(xxxx.ViewModel.VehicleViewModel) It sounds like it's having a problem converting from a VehicleViewModel to an object (or back again), but I'm confused as to why that would be (or even if I'm on the right track with that assumption). Each row/item in the DataGrid should be a VehicleViewModel (because the ItemsSource is bound to an ObservableCollection of that type), so when the SelectedItem changes it should be dealing with an instance of VehicleViewModel. Any insight would be appreciated.

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  • Javascript: Collision detection

    - by jack moore
    Hello, could someone please help me to understand how collision detection works in JS? I can't use jQuery or gameQuery - already using prototype - so, I'm looking for something very simple. Not asking for complete solution, just point me to the right direction. Let's say there's: <div id="ball"></div> and <div id="someobject0"></div> Now the ball is moving (any direction). "Someobject"(0-X) is already pre-defined and there's 20-60 of them randomly positioned like this: #someobject {position: absolute; top: RNDpx; left: RNDpx;} I can create an array with "someobject(X)" positions and test collision while the "ball" is moving... Something like: for(var c=0; c<objposArray.length; c++){ ........ and code to check ball's current position vs all objects one by one.... } But I guess this would be a "noob" solution and it looks pretty slow. Is there anything better?

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  • Migrating to web application with AjaxControlToolkit

    - by Chris
    Hi All, We are currently migrating our ASP.NET website to a web application in Visual Studio 2008. Most of the process has been fairly straight forward, but I have hit one block that is driving me a bit nuts. We are using the AjaxControlToolkit for some functionality, specifically an AutoControlExtender. When this is run locally through VS's development server the extender (dropdown) does not render after the service returns the resultset. However if I deploy the migrated solution to our UAT server the extender functions correctly. I have ensured the Ajax Control Toolkit is properly installed locally on my dev machine (and the dll available in the bin directory), and using debugging have ensured the service is called correctly and runs through without error (which it does). The web application was taken from a server running IIS7. Can anyone confirm if Visual Studio 2008 development server requires a different configuration to IIS 7 (as I believe IIS 6 requires a different configuration to IIS 7), and if there is a resource that provides more info? My own searches have turned up very little in this area. On the other hand, if I am looking in the wrong area any other tips would be appreciated. Thanks Chris

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  • How to exclude R*.class files from a proguard build

    - by Jeremy Bell
    I am one step away from making the method described here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2761443/targeting-android-with-scala-2-8-trunk-builds work with a single project (vs one project for scala and one for android). I've come across a problem. Using this input file (arguments to) proguard: -injars bin;lib/scala-library.jar(!META-INF/MANIFEST.MF,!library.properties) -outjar lib/scandroid.jar -libraryjars lib/android.jar -dontwarn -dontoptimize -dontobfuscate -dontskipnonpubliclibraryclasses -dontskipnonpubliclibraryclassmembers -keepattributes Exceptions,InnerClasses,Signature,Deprecated, SourceFile,LineNumberTable,*Annotation*,EnclosingMethod -keep public class org.scala.jeb.** { public protected *; } -keep public class org.xml.sax.EntityResolver { public protected *; } Proguard successfully builds scandroid.jar, however it appears to have included the generated R classes that the android resource builder generates and compiles. In this case, they are located in bin/org/jeb/R*.class. This is not what I want. The android dalvik converter cannot build because it thinks there is a duplicate of the R class (it's in scandroid and also the R*.class files). How can I modify the above proguard arguments to exclude the R*.class files from the scandroid.jar so the dalvik converter is happy? Edit: I should note that I tried adding ;bin/org/jeb/R.class;etc... to the -libraryjars argument, and that only seemed to cause it to complain about duplicate classes, and in addition proguard decided to exclude my scala class files too.

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  • Visual studio not detecting that exe is out of date after perforce revert

    - by CHaskell2
    This is a bit of an odd situation. Here's what's happening. So, we have a VS2008 project which outputs to a number of files under perforce control. These files have the always writable flag set. I compile the project in VS, which gives me up to date binaries on my machine. If I then revert those binaries via perforce, I have the version of the binaries that were up on perforce (ie, old ones.) Despite this, compiling the project again at this point detects no changes and will not remake those binaries. In a way, this makes sense, since none of the code or obj files have changed, but it's not really what I want to happen. This comes up in an edge case on our automated build server. I can think of tons of different little hacks I could do to fix this, but I'm thinking I could be missing something fundamental here. The actual build process uses the Unreal build tool, so there is a bit of magic going on behind the scenes that I'm not entirely familiar with too. Edit: This is a C/C++ project, forgot to mention that.

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  • Need advice on OOP philosophy

    - by David Jenings
    I'm trying to get the wheels turning on a large project in C#. My previous experience is in Delphi, where by default every form was created at applicaton startup and form references where held in (gasp) global variables. So I'm trying to adapt my thinking to a 100% object oriented environment, and my head is spinning just a little. My app will have a large collection of classes Most of these classes will only really need one instance. So I was thinking: static classes. I'm not really sure why, but much of what I've read here says that if my class is going to hold a state, which I take to mean any property values at all, I should use a singleton structure instead. Okay. But there are people out there who for reasons that escape me, think that singletons are evil too. None of these classes is in danger of being used anywhere except in this program. So they could certainly work fine as regular objects (vs singletons or static classes) Then there's the issue of interaction between objects. I'm tempted to create a Global class full of public static properties referencing the single instances of many of these classes. I've also considered just making them properties (static or instance, not sure which) of the MainForm. Then I'd have each of my classes be aware of the MainForm as Owner. Then the various objects could refer to each other as Owner.Object1, Owner.Object2, etc. I fear I'm running out of electronic ink, or at least taxing the patience of anyone kind enough to have stuck with me this long. I hope I have clearly explained my state of utter confusion. I'm just looking for some advice on best practices in my situation. All input is welcome and appreciated. Thanks in advance, David Jennings

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  • Problem with apostrophes and other special characters when using aspell in windows

    - by Loftx
    Hi there, We seem to be having a problem with the spell checker on our content management system where it marks the ve part of We’ve as a misspelling. The spellchecker uses aspell which is called from a script on the server which executes the cmd.exe and uses it to pipe a file into aspell (it's a long winded way I know, but our server side programming langauge (ColdFusion) doesn't support writing to stdin for executables). Aspell is called by executing: c:\windows\system32\cmd.exe /c type d:\path_to_file\file.txt | "C:\Program Files\Aspell\bin\aspell" --lang=en -a Where file.txt contains the text to be spelled e.g. ^Oh have We’ve (the carat is added to prevent piping problems I believe). Aspell then output: @(#) International Ispell Version 3.1.20 (but really Aspell 0.50.3) * * * & ve 62 12: vie, voe, V, v, veg, vet, Be, Ce, be, Ev, E, e, vex, VA, VI, Va, Vi, vi, we, VD, VF, VG, VJ, VP, VT, Vt, vb, vs, DE, De, Fe, GE, Ge, He, IE, Le, ME, Me, NE, Ne, OE, PE, Re, SE, Se, Te, Xe, he, me, re, ye, Ave, Eve, Ive, ave, eve, VAR, var, veer, vier, view, vow However, we have a dev site, with the same version of Aspell, and when the same file is used it outputs with no misspellings. Both servers are running Aspell 0.50.3 on Windows server 2003, but there could be other differences in configuration: @(#) International Ispell Version 3.1.20 (but really Aspell 0.50.3) I'm wondering if the problem is to do with the piping part of the process or something different in the Aspell configuration. Does anyone have any ideas? Cheers, Tom

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  • SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services and the Report Viewer

    - by Kendra
    I am having an issue embedding my report into an aspx page. Here's my setup: 1 Server running SQL Server 2005 and SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services 1 Workstation running XP and VS 2005 The server is not on a domain. Reporting Services is a default installation. I have one report called TestMe in a folder called TestReports using a shared datasource. If I view the report in Report Manager, it renders fine. If I view the report using the http ://myserver/reportserver url it renders fine. If I view the report using the http ://myserver/reportserver?/TestReports/TestMe it renders fine. If I try to view the report using http ://myserver/reportserver/TestReports/TestMe, it just goes to the folder navigation page of the home directory. My web application is impersonating somebody specific to get around the server not being on a domain. When I call the report from the report viewer using http ://myserver/reportserver as the server and /TestReports/TestMe as the path I get this error: For security reasons DTD is prohibited in this XML document. To enable DTD processing set the ProhibitDtd property on XmlReaderSettings to false and pass the settings into XmlReader.Create method. When I change the server to http ://myserver/reportserver? I get this error when I run the report: Client found response content type of '', but expected 'text/xml'. The request failed with an empty response. I have been searching for a while and haven't found anything that fixes my issue. Please let me know if there is more information needed. Thanks in advance, Kendra

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