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  • Repeating a object that only occurs couple of times and has different values with htmlagilitypack c#.

    - by dtd
    I have a problem I cant seem to solve here. Lets say I have some html like beneth here that I want to parse. All this html is within one list on the page. And the names repeat themself like in the example I wrote. <li class = "seperator"> a date </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "seperator"> a new date </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "seperator"> a nother new date </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> I did manage to use htmlagility pack to parse every li object seperate, and almost formating it how I want. My print atm looks something like this: "a date" "some text" "some text" "some text" "some text" "a new date" "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" "some text" "some text" What I want to achive: "a date" "some text" "a date" "some text" "a date" "some text" "a date" "some text" "a new date" "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" But the problem is that beneath every seperator, the count of every lol object may vary. So one day, the webpage may have one lol object beneth date 1, and the next day it may have 10 lol objects. So I am woundering if there is an smart/easy way to somehow count the number of lol objects in between the seperators. Or if there is another way to figure this out? Within for example htmlagilitypack. And yes, I need the correct date in front of every lol object, not just infront the first one. This would have been a pice of cake if the seperator class would have ended beneath the last lol object, but sadly that is not the case... I dont think that I need to paste my code here, but basicly what I do is to parse the page, extract the seperators and lol objects and add them to a list, where I split them up to seperator and lol objects. Then I print it out to a file and since the seperator only occure 3 times(in the example) I will only get out 3 seperate dates.

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  • SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • iPad web app: Prevent input focus AFTER ajax call

    - by Mike Barwick
    So I've read around and can't for the life of me figure out of to solve my issue effectively. In short, I have a web app built for the iPad - which works as it should. However, I have an Ajax form which also submits as it should. But, after the callback and I clear/reset my form, the "iPad" automatically focuses on an input and opens the keyboard again. This is far from ideal. I managed to hack my way around it, but it's still not perfect. The code below is run on my ajax callback, which works - except there's still a flash of the keyboard quickly opening and closing. Note, my code won't work unless I use setTimeout. Also, from my understanding, document.activeElement.blur(); only works when there's a click event, so I triggered one via js. IN OTHER WORDS, HOW DO I PREVENT THE KEYBOARD FROM REOPENING AFTER AJAX CALL ON WEB APP? PS: Ajax call works fine and doesn't open the keyboard in Safari on the iPad, just web app mode. Here's my code: hideKeyboard: function () { // iOS web app only, iPad IS_IPAD = navigator.userAgent.match(/iPad/i) != null; if (IS_IPAD) { $(window).one('click', function () { document.activeElement.blur(); }); setTimeout(function () { $(window).trigger('click'); }, 500); } } Maybe it's related to how I'm clearing my forms, so here's that code. Note, all inputs have tabindex="-1" as well. clearForm: function () { // text, textarea, etc $('#campaign-form-wrap > form')[0].reset(); // checkboxes $('input[type="checkbox"]').removeAttr('checked'); $('#campaign-form-wrap > form span.custom.checkbox').removeClass('checked'); // radio inputs $('input[type="radio"]').removeAttr('checked'); $('#campaign-form-wrap > form span.custom.radio').removeClass('checked'); // selects $('form.custom .user-generated-field select').each(function () { var selection = $(this).find('option:first').text(), labelFor = $(this).attr('name'), label = $('[for="' + labelFor + '"]'); label.find('.selection-choice').html(selection); }); optin.hideKeyboard(); }

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  • Javascript problem with a global external link confirmation alert

    - by OverDrive
    Below is the code from a plugin for Joomla. It works on it's own and it's purpose is to detect external links on the page and force them into new browser windows using _blank. I've tried for about an hour (I don't know javascript well) but I can't seem to figure out how to get an onclick function working. End result, I want to add to this script the ability of a confirmation dialog, shown in the 2nd code section. An external link, when clicked, will pop up the confirmation dialog, and if it says yes, they will be able to get to the external URL, opening in a new window. Otherwise, it cancels, and does nothing. When I create a link with onclick="return ExitNotice(this.href);" within it it works perfectly, but since my website has multiple people submitting input, I'd like the confirmation box global. this.blankwin = function(){ var hostname = window.location.hostname; hostname = hostname.replace("www.","").toLowerCase(); var a = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); this.check = function(obj){ var href = obj.href.toLowerCase(); return (href.indexOf("http://")!=-1 && href.indexOf(hostname)==-1) ? true : false; }; this.set = function(obj){ obj.target = "_blank"; obj.className = "blank"; }; for (var i=0;i<a.length;i++){ if(check(a[i])) set(a[i]); }; }; this.addEvent = function(obj,type,fn){ if(obj.attachEvent){ obj['e'+type+fn] = fn; obj[type+fn] = function(){obj['e'+type+fn](window.event );} obj.attachEvent('on'+type, obj[type+fn]); } else { obj.addEventListener(type,fn,false); }; }; addEvent(window,"load",blankwin); Second Part /* ---------- OnClick External Link Notice ---------- */ function ExitNotice(link,site,ltext) { if(confirm("-----------------------------------------------------------------------\n\n" + "You're leaving the HelpingTeens.org website. HelpingTeens.org\ndoes not " + "control this site and its privacy policies may differ\nfrom our own. " + "Thank you for using our site.\n\nYou will now access the following link:\n" + "\n" + link + "\n\nPress \'OK\' to proceed, or press \'Cancel\' to remain here." + "\n\n-----------------------------------------------------------------------")) { return true; } history.go(0); return false; } A) Can anyone help me fix this problem? or B) Is there a better solution?

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  • help with generating models from database for many to many in doctrine

    - by ajsie
    im using doctrine and i have set up some test tables to be generated into models: I want a many-to-many relationship models (3 tables converted into 3 models) (things are simplified to make the point clear) mysql tables: user: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR group: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR user_group: user_id INT // primary and foreign key to user.id group_id INT // primary and foreign key to group.id i thought that it would generate these models (from the documentation): // User.php class User extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('Group as Groups', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'group_id' ) ); } } // Group.php class Group extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('User as Users', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'user_id' ) ); } } // UserGroup.php class UserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id') ); $this->hasColumn('group_id') ); } } but it generated this: // User.php abstract class BaseUser extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'user_id')); } } // Group.php abstract class BaseGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'group_id')); } } // UserGroup.php abstract class BaseUserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id'); $this->hasColumn('group_id'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasOne('User', array( 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); $this->hasOne('Group', array( 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); } } as you can see, there is no 'refClass' in the 'User' and 'Group' models pointing to the 'UserGroup'. the 'UserGroup' table in this case is just another table from Doctrine's perspective not a reference table. I've checked my table definitions in mysql. They are correct. user_group has 2 columns (primary keys and foreign keys), each one pointing to the primary key in either User or Group. But i want the standard many-to-many relationship models in Doctrine models. I'd appreciate some help. I have struggled to figure it out for a half day now. What is wrong? Thanks!

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  • TestNG - Factories and Dataproviders

    - by Tim K
    Background Story I'm working at a software firm developing a test automation framework to replace our old spaghetti tangled system. Since our system requires a login for almost everything we do, I decided it would be best to use @BeforeMethod, @DataProvider, and @Factory to setup my tests. However, I've run into some issues. Sample Test Case Lets say the software system is a baseball team roster. We want to test to make sure a user can search for a team member by name. (Note: I'm aware that BeforeMethods don't run in any given order -- assume that's been taken care of for now.) @BeforeMethod public void setupSelenium() { // login with username & password // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page } @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String playerName, String searchTerm) { // search for "searchTerm" // browse through results // pass if we find playerName // fail (Didn't find the player) } This test case assumes the following: The user has already logged on (in a BeforeMethod, most likely) The user has already navigated to the search page (trivial, before method) The parameters to the test are associated with the aforementioned login The Problems So lets try and figure out how to handle the parameters for the test case. Idea #1 This method allows us to associate dataproviders with usernames, and lets us use multiple users for any specific test case! @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String user, String pass, String name, String search) { // login with user/pass // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page // ... } ...but there's lots of repetition, as we have to make EVERY function accept two extra parameters. Not to mention, we're also testing the acknowledge announcements feature, which we don't actually want to test. Idea #2 So lets use the factory to initialize things properly! class BaseTestCase { public BaseTestCase(String user, String password, Object[][] data); } class SomeTest { @Factory public void ... } With this, we end up having to write one factory per test case... Although, it does let us have multiple users per test-case. Conclusion I'm about fresh out of ideas. There was another idea I had where I was loading data from an XML file, and then calling the methods from a program... but its getting silly. Any ideas?

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  • Sending string to wcf service using jquery ajax. why can i only send strings of numbers?

    - by Robodude
    Hi Guys, For some reason, I'm only able to pass strings containing numbers to my web service when using jquery ajax. This hasn't been an issue so far because I was always just passing IDs to my wcf service. But I'm trying to do something more complex now but I can't figure it out. In my interface: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(string json); My webservice: public DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(string json) { DataTableOutput x = new DataTableOutput(); x.iTotalDisplayRecords = 9; x.iTotalRecords = 50; x.sColumns = "1"; x.sEcho = "1"; x.aaData = null; return x; } Javascript/Jquery: var x = "1"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: "Services/Service1.svc/GetDataTableOutput", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: x, dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); The above code WORKS perfectly. But when I change x to "t" or even to "{'test':'test'}" I get a Error 400 Bad Request error in Firebug. Thanks, John EDIT: Making some progress! data: JSON.stringify("{'test':'test'}"), Sends the string to my function! EDIT2: var jsonAOData = JSON.stringify(aoData); $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: sSource, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: "{'Input':" + jsonAOData + "}", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); EDIT3: I modified the code block I put in EDIT2 up above. Swapping the " and ' did the trick! $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: sSource, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: '{"Input":' + jsonAOData + '}', dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); However, I have a new problem: public DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(DataTableInputOverview Input) { The input here is completely null. The values I passed from jsonAOData didn't get assigned to the DataTableInputOverview Input variable. :(

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  • New to MVC. Actionscript 3.0 Appreciate your help.

    - by Combustion007
    Hello Everyone, I am new to design patterns and am trying to learn the MVC implementation. I have written four classes: DataModel DataView DataController Main Main serves as the application facade. The main FLA is called HelloWorld. I have a symbol called "Box" in HelloWorld. I just would like to add an instance of the "Box" on the stage. Eventually I would like to place a button and when the button is clicked, the Box instance color will be changed. I would appreciate any help, please help me figure out what am I doing wrong. Here are my Classes: DATAMODEL CLASS: package { import flash.events.*; public class DataModel extends EventDispatcher { public static const UPDATE:String = "modelUpdate"; private var _color:Number = (Math.round(Math.random()* 0xffffff)); public function DataModel() { trace("DATA MODEL INIT"); } public function get color():Number { return _color; } public function set color(p:Number):void { _color = p; notifyObserver(); } public function notifyObserver():void { dispatchEvent(new Event(DataModel.UPDATE)); } } } //DATACONTROLLER CLASS: package { import flash.events.; import flash.display.; import flash.errors.*; public class DataController { private var _model:DataModel; public function DataController(m:DataModel) { trace("DATACONTROLLER INIT"); _model = m; } } } DATAVIEW CLASS: package { import flash.events.; import flash.display.; import flash.errors.*; public class DataView extends Sprite { private var _model:DataModel; private var _controller:DataController; private var b:Box; public function DataView(m:DataModel, c:DataController) { _model = m; _controller = c; b = new Box(); b.x = b.y = 100; addChild(b); } } } And Finally THE FACADE: package { import flash.display.; import flash.events.; import flash.text.; import flash.errors.; public class Main extends Sprite { private var _model:DataModel; private var _controller:DataController; private var _view:DataView; public function Main(m:DataModel, c:DataController, v:DataView) { _model = m; _controller = c; _view = v; addChild(v); } } } When I test the movie: I get this error: ArgumentError: Error #1063: Argument count mismatch on Main(). Expected 3, got 0. Thanks alot.

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  • Making a grid on iPhone using Opengl

    - by TheGambler
    I'm trying to make a grid similar to what you would see in these geo games(geoDefense/geometry wars). I'm wanting to apply separate transformation matrixes to each to create different effects. So, it makes since to me that I need to draw each square separately to that I can apply a different transformation to each one. The problem I'm having is mapping these grids out or connecting the squares. The coordinate systems is still confusing to me. I know it would be easy just to create a huge triangle strip but I'm not able to figure out a way to apply separate transformations to each square( quad ) if I use triangle strips. So first question: Can you apply different transformations to quads if you use a triangle strip to draw a huge grid? If so, any tips suggestions on how to do so? If not, how does one usually connect textures without using triangle strips? Here is my coord setup: const GLfloat zNear = 0.01, zFar = 1000.0, fieldOfView = 45.0; GLfloat size; glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); size = zNear * tanf(DEGREES_TO_RADIANS(fieldOfView) / 2.0); CGRect rect = view.bounds; glFrustumf(-size, size, -size / (rect.size.width / rect.size.height), size / (rect.size.width / rect.size.height), zNear, zFar); glViewport(0, 0, rect.size.width, rect.size.height); Here is my draw: - (void)drawView:(GLView*)view; { int loop; //glColor4f(1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 0.5); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); //Grid Loop for( loop = 0; loop < kNumberSectionsInGrid; loop++ ) { //glLoadIdentity(); static Matrix3D shearMatrix; Matrix3DSetShear(shearMatrix, 0.2, 0.2); static Matrix3D finalMatrix; //Matrix3DMultiply(temp2Matrix, shearMatrix, finalMatrix); glLoadMatrixf(shearMatrix); glTranslatef(-1.0f,(float)loop,-3.0f); glScalef(0.1, 0.1, 0.0); Vertex3D vertices[] = { {-1.0, 1.0, 0.5}, { 1.0, 1.0, 0.5}, { -1.0, -1.0, 0.5}, { 1.0, -1.0, 0.5} }; static const Vector3D normals[] = { {0.0, 0.0, 1.0}, {0.0, 0.0, 1.0}, {0.0, 0.0, 1.0}, {0.0, 0.0, 1.0}, }; GLfloat texCoords[] = { 0.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0, 0.0 }; glEnableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glEnableClientState(GL_NORMAL_ARRAY); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texture[0]); glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, vertices); glNormalPointer(GL_FLOAT, 0, normals); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, texCoords); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, 4); glDisableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glDisableClientState(GL_NORMAL_ARRAY); glDisableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); } } glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW);

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  • Calling back a functions value

    - by Jason Kelly
    I need your help, I cannot, for the life of me, figure this out. I've had my head wrapped around it only to no avail. Ideally, i'd like to setup two functions. 1 function: select_date() to interact with the user to select a date from the jQuery Date picker. If the dialog is closed then return as null. Then a second function: test() to check wether or not a date was picked/selected.' Here's my delema, when the function test() is executed, an alert box pops up and says "undefined" which means, I never get to select a date and it always being "undefined" I dont see what I am doing wrong here and everything seems logical to me. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <link href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.21/themes/base/jquery-ui.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css"/> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.2/jquery.js"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.21/jquery-ui.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function select_date() { var sdate $('#dd').dialog({ autoOpen: true, modal: true, overlay: { opacity: 0.5, background: 'black' }, title: "title", height: 265, width: 235, draggable: false, resizable: false }); $('#d1').datepicker({ onSelect: function () { $("#dd").dialog("close"); } }); return sdate } function test() { var x = select_date() alert(x) } </script> <style type="text/css"> #d1 {font-size:64%;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="dd"> <div id="d1"> </div> </div> <a href="javascript:test()">test</a> </body> </html>

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  • circles and triangles problem

    - by Faken
    Hello everyone, I have an interesting problem here I've been trying to solve for the last little while: I have 3 circles on a 2D xy plane, each with the same known radius. I know the coordinates of each of the three centers (they are arbitrary and can be anywhere). What is the largest triangle that can be drawn such that each vertice of the triangle sits on a separate circle, what are the coordinates of those verticies? I've been looking at this problem for hours and asked a bunch of people but so far only one person has been able to suggest a plausible solution (though i have no way of proving it). The solution that we have come up with involves first creating a triangle about the three circle centers. Next we look at each circle individually and calculate the equation of a line that passes through the circle's center and is perpendicular to the opposite edge. We then calculate two intersection points of the circle. This is then done for the next two circles with a result of 6 points. We iterate over the 8 possible 3 point triangles that these 6 points create (the restriction is that each point of the big triangle must be on a separate circle) and find the maximum size. The results look reasonable (at least when drawn out on paper) and it passes the special case of when the centers of the circles all fall on a straight line (gives a known largest triangle). Unfortunate i have no way of proving this is correct or not. I'm wondering if anyone has encountered a problem similar to this and if so, how did you solve it? Note: I understand that this is mostly a math question and not programming, however it is going to be implemented in code and it must be optimized to run very fast and efficient. In fact, I already have the above solution in code and tested to be working, if you would like to take a look, please let me know, i chose not to post it because its all in vector form and pretty much impossible to figure out exactly what is going on (because it's been condensed to be more efficient). Lastly, yes this is for school work, though it is NOT a homework question/assignment/project. It's part of my graduate thesis (abet a very very small part, but still technically is part of it). Thanks for your help.

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  • Java compiler rejects variable declaration with parameterized inner class

    - by Johansensen
    I have some Groovy code which works fine in the Groovy bytecode compiler, but the Java stub generated by it causes an error in the Java compiler. I think this is probably yet another bug in the Groovy stub generator, but I really can't figure out why the Java compiler doesn't like the generated code. Here's a truncated version of the generated Java class (please excuse the ugly formatting): @groovy.util.logging.Log4j() public abstract class AbstractProcessingQueue <T> extends nz.ac.auckland.digitizer.AbstractAgent implements groovy.lang.GroovyObject { protected int retryFrequency; protected java.util.Queue<nz.ac.auckland.digitizer.AbstractProcessingQueue.ProcessingQueueMember<T>> items; public AbstractProcessingQueue (int processFrequency, int timeout, int retryFrequency) { super ((int)0, (int)0); } private enum ProcessState implements groovy.lang.GroovyObject { NEW, FAILED, FINISHED; } private class ProcessingQueueMember<E> extends java.lang.Object implements groovy.lang.GroovyObject { public ProcessingQueueMember (E object) {} } } The offending line in the generated code is this: protected java.util.Queue<nz.ac.auckland.digitizer.AbstractProcessingQueue.ProcessingQueueMember<T>> items; which produces the following compile error: [ERROR] C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\digitizer\target\generated-sources\groovy-stubs\main\nz\ac\auckland\digitizer\AbstractProcessingQueue.java:[14,96] error: improperly formed type, type arguments given on a raw type The column index of 96 in the compile error points to the <T> parameterization of the ProcessingQueueMember type. But ProcessingQueueMember is not a raw type as the compiler claims, it is a generic type: private class ProcessingQueueMember <E> extends java.lang.Object implements groovy.lang.GroovyObject { ... I am very confused as to why the compiler thinks that the type Queue<ProcessingQueueMember<T>> is invalid. The Groovy source compiles fine, and the generated Java code looks perfectly correct to me too. What am I missing here? Is it something to do with the fact that the type in question is a nested class? (in case anyone is interested, I have filed this bug report relating to the issue in this question) Edit: Turns out this was indeed a stub compiler bug- this issue is now fixed in 1.8.9, 2.0.4 and 2.1, so if you're still having this issue just upgrade to one of those versions. :)

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  • DFS Backtracking with java

    - by Cláudio Ribeiro
    I'm having problems with DFS backtracking in an adjacency matrix. Here's my code: (i added the test to the main in case someone wants to test it) public class Graph { private int numVertex; private int numEdges; private boolean[][] adj; public Graph(int numVertex, int numEdges) { this.numVertex = numVertex; this.numEdges = numEdges; this.adj = new boolean[numVertex][numVertex]; } public void addEdge(int start, int end){ adj[start-1][end-1] = true; adj[end-1][start-1] = true; } List<Integer> visited = new ArrayList<Integer>(); public Integer DFS(Graph G, int startVertex){ int i=0; if(pilha.isEmpty()) pilha.push(startVertex); for(i=1; i<G.numVertex; i++){ pilha.push(i); if(G.adj[i-1][startVertex-1] != false){ G.adj[i-1][startVertex-1] = false; G.adj[startVertex-1][i-1] = false; DFS(G,i); break; }else{ visited.add(pilha.pop()); } System.out.println("Stack: " + pilha); } return -1; } Stack<Integer> pilha = new Stack(); public static void main(String[] args) { Graph g = new Graph(6, 9); g.addEdge(1, 2); g.addEdge(1, 5); g.addEdge(2, 4); g.addEdge(2, 5); g.addEdge(2, 6); g.addEdge(3, 4); g.addEdge(3, 5); g.addEdge(4, 5); g.addEdge(6, 4); g.DFS(g, 1); } } I'm trying to solve the euler path problem. the program solves basic graphs but when it needs to backtrack, it just does not do it. I think the problem might be in the stack manipulations or in the recursive dfs call. I've tried a lot of things, but still can't seem to figure out why it does not backtrack. Can somebody help me ?

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  • get attributes from xml tree using linq

    - by nelsonwebs
    I'm working with an xml file that looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element1 xmlns="http://namespace1/"> <element2> <element3> <element4 attr1="2009-11-09"> <element5 attr2="NAME1"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="1" attr5="5.5" attr6="3.4"/> </element6> </element5> <element5 attr2="NAME2"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="3" attr5="4" attr6="4.5"/> </element6> </element5> </element4> </element3> </element2> </element1> Where I need to loop through element5 and retrieve the attributes in an Ienumberable like this: attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 using linq to xml and c#. I can loop through the element5 and get all the attribute2 info using but I can't figure out how to get the parent or child attributes I need. UPDATE: Thanks for the feeback thus far. For clarity, I need to do a loop through attribute5. So basically, what I have right now (which isn't much) is . . . XElement xel = XElement.Load(xml); IEnumberable<XElement> cList = from el in xel.Elements(env + "element2").Element (n2 + "element3").Elements(n2 + "element4").Elements(ns + "element5") select el; foreach (XElement e in cList) Console.WriteLine(e.Attribute("attr2").Value.ToString()); This will give me the value all the attr 2 in the loop but I could be going about this all wrong for what I'm trying to acheive. I also need to collect the other attributes mentioned above in a collection (the Console reference is just me playing with this right now but the end result I need is a collection). So the end results would be a collection like attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 2009-11-09, name1, 1, 1, 5.5, 3.4 2009-11-09, name2, 1, 3, 4, 4.5 Make Sense?

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  • actionscript 2.0 input text box

    - by user1769760
    So, here's what I'm trying to do, and I, frankly, believe it should be obvious, but I can't figure it out. I am creating a very simple Artificial Intelligence simulation. And in this simulation there's an input box at the bottom of the screen (called "input" exactly). "input" has a variable in its properties that is called "inbox" (exactly). Using a key listener the script calls up a function when the enter button is pressed. This function has 2 if statements and an else statement which dictate the responses of the AI (named "nistra"). The problem is this, When I type in what I want to say, and hit enter, it always uses the second response ("lockpick" in the code below). I have tried variations on the code but I still don't see the solution. I believe the problem is that the "typein" variable holds all the format information from the text box as well as the variable, but I could be wrong, that information is in here as well, underneath the code itself. Any help I can get would be greatly appreciated. var typein = ""; //copies the text from inbox into here, this is what nistra responds to var inbox = ""; //this is where the text from the input text box goes var respond = ""; //nistra's responses go here my_listener = new Object(); // key listener my_listener.onKeyDown = function() { if(Key.isDown(13)) //enter button pressed { typein = inbox; // moves inbox into typein nistraresponse(); // calles nistra's responses } //code = Key.getCode(); //trace ("Key pressed = " + code); } Key.addListener(my_listener); // key listener ends here nistraresponse = function() // nistra's responses { trace(typein); // trace out what "typein" holds if(typein = "Hello") // if you type in "Hello" { respond = "Hello, How are you?"; } if(typein = "lockpick") // if you type in "lockpick" { respond = "Affirmative"; } else // anything else { respond = "I do not understand the command, please rephrase"; } cntxtID = setInterval(clearnistra, 5000); // calls the function that clears out nistra's response box so that her responses don't just sit there } clearnistra = function() // clears her respond box { respond = ""; clearInterval(cntxtID); } // "typein" traces out the following <TEXTFORMAT LEADING="2"><P ALIGN="CENTER"><FONT FACE="Times New Roman" SIZE="20" COLOR="#FF0000" LETTERSPACING="0" KERNING="0">test</FONT></P></TEXTFORMAT>

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  • Are there any modern GUI toolkits which implement a heirarchical menu buffer zone?

    - by scomar
    In Bruce Tognazzini's quiz on Fitt's Law, the question discussing the bottleneck in the hierarchical menu (as used in almost every modern desktop UI), talks about his design for the original Mac: The bottleneck is the passage between the first-level menu and the second-level menu. Users first slide the mouse pointer down to the category menu item. Then, they must carefully slide the mouse directly across (horizontally) in order to move the pointer into the secondary menu. The engineer who originally designed hierarchicals apparently had his forearm mounted on a track so that he could move it perfectly in a horizontal direction without any vertical component. Most of us, however, have our forarms mounted on a pivot we like to call our elbow. That means that moving our hand describes an arc, rather than a straight line. Demanding that pivoted people move a mouse pointer along in a straight line horizontally is just wrong. We are naturally going to slip downward even as we try to slide sideways. When we are not allowed to slip downward, the menu we're after is going to slam shut just before we get there. The Windows folks tried to overcome the pivot problem with a hack: If they see the user move down into range of the next item on the primary menu, they don't instantly close the second-level menu. Instead, they leave it open for around a half second, so, if users are really quick, they can be inaccurate but still get into the second-level menu before it slams shut. Unfortunately, people's reactions to heightened chance of error is to slow down, rather than speed up, a well-established phenomenon. Therefore, few users will ever figure out that moving faster could solve their problem. Microsoft's solution is exactly wrong. When I specified the Mac hierarchical menu algorthm in the mid-'80s, I called for a buffer zone shaped like a <, so that users could make an increasingly-greater error as they neared the hierarchical without fear of jumping to an unwanted menu. As long as the user's pointer was moving a few pixels over for every one down, on average, the menu stayed open, no matter how slow they moved. (Cancelling was still really easy; just deliberately move up or down.) This just blew me away! Such a simple idea which would result in a huge improvement in usability. I'm sure I'm not the only one who regularly has the next level of a menu slam shut because I don't move the mouse pointer in a perfectly horizontal line. So my question is: Are there any modern UI toolkits which implement this brilliant idea of a < shaped buffer zone in hierarchical menus? And if not, why not?!

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  • Why doesn't the .click() not work in this instance?

    - by Deshiknaves
    Basically what this does is fadeIn pre-existing divs and then loads an image. When the image is loaded it then appends that into one of the pre-existing divs. Then it appends a new div with an id of xButton. Then later it $('#xButton').click() should hide the 3 divs. However it just doesn't work. If I change the click() to either #modalImage or #overlay, it works but just not for the #xButton. I would really like to figure out why its not working and how I should be doing this instead. Thanks. $(function(){ $('#container a').click(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var id = $(this).attr('href'), img = new Image(); $('#overlay').fadeIn(function(){ $('#modalImage').fadeIn(); }); $(img).load(function(){ $(this).hide(); $('#modalImage').removeClass('loader').append(this); $(this).fadeIn(function(){ var ih = $(this).outerHeight(), iw = $(this).outerWidth(), newH = ($(window).height()/10)*7, newW = ($(window).width()/10)*7; if (ih >= iw && ih >= newH) { $(this).css('height',newH + 'px'); $(this).css('width', 'auto'); } else if (ih >= iw && newH > ih) { $(this).css('height', ih + 'px'); $(this).css('width', 'auto'); } else if (iw > ih && iw >= newW) { if ((newW / (iw / ih)) > newH) { $(this).css('width', 'auto'); $(this).css('height', newH + 'px'); } else { $(this).css('width', newW + 'px'); $(this).css('height', 'auto'); } } else { $(this).css('width', iw + 'px'); $(this).css('height', 'auto'); } var padW = ($(window).width() - $(this).outerWidth()) / 2, padH = ($(window).height() - $(this).outerHeight()) / 2; console.log (padH + ' ' + padW); $(this).css('top', padH); $(this).css('left', padW); if($('#overlay').is(":visible") == true) { ih = ih + 4; $('<div id="xButton">x</div>').appendTo('#modalImage'); if (padH >= 0) { $('#xButton').css('top', padH - 4).css('right', padW - 65); } else { $('#xButton').css('top', '20px').css('right', padW - 65); } } }); }).attr('src', id); }); $('#xButton').click(function(){ $(this).hide(); $('#overlay').fadeOut(function(){ $('#modalImage img').css('top', '-9999px').remove(); $('#xButton').remove(); $('#modalImage').addClass('loader'); }); }); });

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  • Adding the text area input to a list with jquery

    - by amylynn83
    I am making a shopping list app. When an item is added to the text input, it should be converted into a list item with a class of "tile" and added to the beginning of the list with a class of ".shopping_item_list". Here is my HTML: <section> <h1 class="outline">Shopping List Items</h1> <ul class="shopping_item_list"> <li class="tile">Flowers<span class="delete">Delete</span></li> </ul> </section> My jQuery: $("input[name='shopping_item']").change(function() { var item = $(this).val(); $("<li class='tile'>+ item +</li>").prependTo(".shopping_item_list"); $(".tile").removeClass("middle"); $(".shopping_item_list li:nth-child(3n+2)").addClass("middle"); }); This isn't working, and I can't figure out why. I'm new to jQuery. Also, I need to add the "delete" span to the list item and am not sure how. Thanks for any help you can offer! Edited to add: Thanks to the feedback here, I was able to make it work with: $("input[name='shopping_item']").change(function() { var item = $(this).val(); $("<li class='tile'>" + item + "<span class='delete'>Delete</span>" + " </li>").prependTo(".shopping_item_list"); $(".tile").removeClass("middle"); $(".shopping_item_list li:nth-child(3n+2)").addClass("middle"); }); However, in my jquery, I have functions for the classes "tile" and "delete" that are not working for newly added items. // hide delete button $(".delete").hide(); // delete square $(".tile").hover(function() { $(this).find(".delete").toggle(); }); $(".tile").on("click", ".delete", function() { $(this).closest("li.tile").remove(); $(".tile").removeClass("middle"); $(".shopping_item_list li:nth-child(3n+2)").addClass("middle"); }); // cross off list $(".tile").click(function() { $(this).toggleClass("deleteAction"); }); The new items, which have these classes applied aren't using these functions at all. Do I need to add the functions below the add item? Does the order in which they appear in my js file matter? Do I need to add some kind of function?

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  • Update Statement Updates 0 Rows via the C# Winform Application?

    - by peace
    First of all, please help me out! I can not take this anymore. I could not find where the error is located. Here is my problem: I'm trying to update a row via c# winform application. The update query generated from the application is formatted correctly. I tested it in the sql server environment, it worked well. When i run it from the application i get 0 rows updated. Here is the snippet that generates the update statement using reflection - don't try to figure it out. Carry on reading after the code portion: public void Update(int cusID) { SqlCommand objSqlCommand = new SqlCommand(); Customer cust = new Customer(); string SQL = null; try { if ((cusID != 0)) { foreach (PropertyInfo PropertyItem in this.GetType().GetProperties()) { if (!(PropertyItem.Name.ToString() == cust.PKName)) { if (PropertyItem.Name.ToString() != "TableName") { if (SQL == null) { SQL = PropertyItem.Name.ToString() + " = @" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(); } else { SQL = SQL + ", " + PropertyItem.Name.ToString() + " = @" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(); } } else { break; } } } objSqlCommand.CommandText = "UPDATE " + this.TableName + " SET " + SQL + " WHERE " + cust.PKName + " = @cusID AND PhoneNumber = " + "'" + "@phNum" + "'"; foreach (PropertyInfo PropertyItem in this.GetType().GetProperties()) { if (!(PropertyItem.Name.ToString() == cust.PKName)) { if (PropertyItem.Name.ToString() != "TableName") { objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(), PropertyItem.GetValue(this, null)); } else { break; } } } objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@cusID", cusID); objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@phNum", this.PhoneNumber); DAL.ExecuteSQL(objSqlCommand); } else { //AppEventLog.AddWarning("Primary Key is not provided for Update.") } } catch (Exception ex) { //AppEventLog.AddError(ex.Message.ToString) } } This part below: objSqlCommand.CommandText = "UPDATE " + this.TableName + " SET " + SQL + " WHERE " + cust.PKName + " = @cusID AND PhoneNumber = " + "'" + "@phNum" + "'"; generates dml: UPDATE CustomerPhone SET PhoneTypeID = @PhoneTypeID, PhoneNumber = @PhoneNumber WHERE CustomerID = @cusID AND PhoneNumber = '@phNum' @PhoneTypeID and @PhoneNumber are gotten from two properties. We assigned the value to these properties in the presentation layer from the user input text box. The portion below where fetches the values: objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(), PropertyItem.GetValue(this, null)); The code below fills the values of WHERE: objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@cusID", cusID); objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@phNum", this.PhoneNumber); The final code should look as: UPDATE CustomerPhone SET PhoneTypeID = 7, PhoneNumber = 999444 WHERE CustomerID = 500 AND PhoneNumber = '911'; Phone type id is 7 - user value that is taken from text box Phone number is 999444 - user value that is taken from text box The above final update statement works on the sql environment, but when running via the application, the execute non query runs ok and gets 0 rows updated! I wonder why?

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  • Improved way to build nested array of unique values in javascript

    - by dualmon
    The setup: I have a nested html table structure that displays hierarchical data, and the individual rows can be hidden or shown by the user. Each row has a dom id that is comprised of the level number plus the primary key for the record type on that level. I have to have both, because each level is from a different database table, so the primary key alone is not unique in the dom. example: id="level-1-row-216" I am storing the levels and rows of the visible elements in a cookie, so that when the page reloads the same rows the user had open are can be shown automatically. I don't store the full map of dom ids, because I'm concerned about it getting too verbose, and I want to keep my cookie under 4Kb. So I convert the dom ids to a compact json object like this, with one property for each level, and a unique array of primary keys under each level: { 1:[231,432,7656], 2:[234,121], 3:[234,2], 4:[222,423], 5:[222] } With this structure stored in a cookie, I feed it to my show function and restore the user's previous disclosure state when the page loads. The area for improvement: I'm looking for better option for reducing my map of id selectors down to this compact format. Here is my function: function getVisibleIds(){ // example dom id: level-1-row-216-sub var ids = $("tr#[id^=level]:visible").map(function() { return this.id; }); var levels = {}; for(var i in ids ) { var id = ids[i]; if (typeof id == 'string'){ if (id.match(/^level/)){ // here we extract the number for level and row var level = id.replace(/.*(level-)(\d*)(.*)/, '$2'); var row = id.replace(/.*(row-)(\d*)(.*)/, '$2'); // *** Improvement here? *** // This works, but it seems klugy. In PHP it's one line (see below): if(levels.hasOwnProperty(level)){ if($.inArray(parseInt(row, 10) ,levels[level]) == -1){ levels[level].push(parseInt(row, 10)); } } else { levels[level] = [parseInt(row, 10)]; } } } } return levels; } If I were doing it in PHP, I'd build the compact array like this, but I can't figure it out in javascript: foreach($ids as $id) { if (/* the criteria */){ $level = /* extract it from $id */; $row = /* extract it from $id */; $levels[$level][$row]; } }

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  • PHP Based session variable not retaining value. Works on localhost, but not on server.

    - by Foo
    I've been trying to debug this problem for many hours, but to no avail. I've been using PHP for many years, and got back into it after long hiatus, so I'm still a bit rusty. Anyways, my $_SESSION vars are not retaining their value for some reason that I can't figure out. The site worked on localhost perfectly, but uploading it to the server seemed to break it. First thing I checked was the PHP.ini server settings. Everything seems fine. In fact, my login system is session based and it works perfectly. So now that I know $_SESSIONS are working properly and retaining their value for my login, I'm presuming the server is setup and the problem is in my script. Here's a stripped version of the code that's causing a problem. $type, $order and $style are not being retained after they are set via a GET variable. The user clicks a link, which sets a variable via GET, and this variable is retained for the remainder of their session. Is there some problem with my logic that I'm not seeing? <?php require_once('includes/top.php'); //first line includes a call to session_start(); require_once('includes/db.php'); $type = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 't', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $order = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'o', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $style = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 's', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); /* According to documentation, filter_input returns a NULL when variables are undefined. So, if t, o, or s are not set via URL, $type, $order and $style will be NULL. */ print_r($_SESSION); /* All other sessions, such as the login session, etc. are displayed here. After the sessions are set below, they are displayed up here to... simply with no value. This leads me to believe the problem is with the code below, perhaps? */ // If $type is not null (meaning it WAS set via the get method above) // or it's false because the validation failed for some reason, // then set the session to the $type. I removed the false check for simplicity. // This code is being successfully executed, and the data is being stored... if(!is_null($type)) { $_SESSION['type'] = $type; } if(!is_null($order)) { $_SESSION['order'] = $order; } if(!is_null($style)) { $_SESSION['style'] = $style; } $smarty->display($template); ?> If anyone can point me in the right direction, I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

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  • How do I use JDK 7 on Mac OSX?

    - by Yko
    OK. This is a newbie question but I can't figure it out... I would like to use the WatchService API as mentioned in this link: http://download.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/essential/io/notification.html After reading around, I found out that WatchService is part of the NIO class which is scheduled for JDK 7. So, it is in beta form. It's fine. http://jdk7.java.net/download.html has the JDK which I downloaded and extracted. I got a bunch of folders. I don't know what to do with them. Then, I read around some more and found that some nice group of people created JDK 7 as a binary so someone like me can install it easily. It is called Open JDK: http://code.google.com/p/openjdk-osx-build/ So, I downloaded the .dmg file and instal it. Then I open "Java Preference" and see that OpenJDK7 is available. So, now I feel that I can start trying out WatchService API. From the tutorial in the first link, the author gave a .java file to test it out first and make sure that it is running. Here is the link to the file: http://download.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/essential/io/examples/WatchDir.java So, I boot up Eclipse (actually I use STS) and create a new Java project and choose JaveSE-1.7 in the "use an execution environment JRE:". Under the src folder, I copy pasted the WatchDir.java file. And I still see tons of squiggly red lines. All the "import.java.nio.*" are all red and I cannot run it as a Java app. If you read this far, thanks a lot. So, now... What do I need to do? Thanks. EDIT: I actually did not pursue using Java 7 but there are a lot of interest in it and it seems like people keep answering this question. What should I do to make it more relevant to people who search for it? Let me know by PMing me. Thanks.

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  • PHP getting Twitter API JSON file contents without OAuth (Almost have it)

    - by DexCurl
    Hey guys, I have this script working fine with OAuth, but I accidentally nuked my 350 API hits with a stupid while statement :( I'm trying to get data from the Twitter API without OAuth, I can't figure it out (still pretty new), heres what I have <html> <body> <center> <hr /> <br /> <table border="1"> <tr><td>ScreenName</td><td>Followed back?</td></tr> <?php //twitter oauth deets $consumerKey = 'x'; $consumerSecret = 'x'; $oAuthToken = 'x'; $oAuthSecret = 'x'; // Create Twitter API objsect require_once("twitteroauth.php"); $oauth = new TwitterOAuth($consumerKey, $consumerSecret, $oAuthToken, $oAuthSecret); //get home timeline tweets and it is stored as an array $youfollow = $oauth->get('http://api.twitter.com/1/friends/ids.json?screen_name=lccountdown'); $i = 0; //start loop to print our results cutely in a table while ($i <= 20){ $youfollowid = $youfollow[$i]; $resolve = "http://api.twitter.com/1/friendships/exists.json?user_a=".$youfollow[$i]."&user_b=jwhelton"; $followbacktest = $oauth->get($resolve); //$homedate= $hometimeline[$i]->created_at; //$homescreenname = $hometimeline[$i]->user->screen_name; echo "<tr><td>".$youfollowid."</td><td>".$followbacktest."</td></tr>"; $i++; } ?> </table> </center> </body> </html> Neither of the two Twitter functions require authentication, so how can I get the same results? Thanks guys, Dex

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  • Application not showing up in Google Play for 4.x devices

    - by Zargle
    I recently posted about the Play store not letting me publish my app without a minSdkVersion, but whenever I set it to anything above "1" my app just doesn't work (minSdkVersion breaking program). So this guy suggested to just set my minSdkVersion to 1, which worked. But now when I submitted my app even though the developer site says: API level: 1-16+ Supported screens: normal-xlarge OpenGL textures: all But the app only shows it supports Android under 4.x, I developed it on my 4.0.4 device. I tried searching around and I found that some people have problems with services messing up the phones it supports, so I deleted all of my services, because I don't really need any for this version of the app to submit. And it still didn't work. So I don't know what else to do, here is my AndroidManifest.xml if it helps... I've been trying to figure out why my application isn't working for a week now, still nothing. I have tried setting a targetSdkVersion to something like 14, my application still breaks. I cleaned out my code, taking everything out of the already short, 200 lines, application, and it still isn't working. Is there something I can't use in an android application 4.0 that I am using in my application? or is it just my AndroidManifest? Thank you so much! <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.unparalleledsoftware.app.list" android:versionCode="5" android:versionName="2.02" > <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="1" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/ic_launcher" android:label="@string/app_name" android:theme="@style/AppTheme" > <activity android:name=".MainActivity" android:label="@string/title_activity_main" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> I should note,I am using the Theme.Holo.Light, but even if I change it to DeviceDefault it doesn't work. Edit: I googled the app on my friends Samsung Galaxy S3 (it didn't show up in the Play Store on his phone), when I installed by googling the app and hitting the "install" button on google and it opened in the Google Play store and was able to install. When I did the same on my phone, Galaxy Note, it opened in the Google Play Store, but then said "Not compatible." Why? They are both on the same version of OS. Why is mine not compatible, nor the One X compatible, but the Samsung Galaxy S3 worked...? Edit: I get these errors/problems when compiling with a targetSdkVersion, http://pastebin.com/mxgWNLdM

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  • Difference in displaying inner div between IE and Chrome

    - by Gaara
    I have this code that has one "outerDIV" that contains an "innerDIV". On chrome the "innerDIV" size is 491px, whereas on IE it is 425px (same as outerDIV). Hence, on Chrome I can see the first two children of "innerdiv": "My test string #1" and "test2". But for IE I can only see the first child. I am not quite sure what the "right" behavior should be, as firefox does the same as IE. However I would like to have IE do the same as Chrome. I have been experimenting with some css styles (mainly overflow and display), but still can't make it right: IE will expand its height instead of its width to make the elements fit. Can you guys help me figure out a way to change the css so that IE will wraps the div elements inline? As a restriction though, I cannot change the width on the HTML. As a benefit, I am using a css that only loads for IE to patch these kind of IE inconsistencies. The same css will NOT load for chrome, so I don't need to worry about messing with chrome when changing the IE CSS. Thanks in advance! <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> <!-- body { font-family: helvetica; } .myContainer { overflow: hidden; border: 1px solid rgba(0, 0, 0, .5); font-size: 14pt; height: 49px; line-height: 49px; overflow: hidden; display: block; } .myContainer > DIV { float: left; white-space: nowrap; display: block; } .myContainer .item:first-child { padding-left: 10px; } .myContainer .item { float: left; padding-right: 32px; } --> </style> </head> <body> <div id="outerDIV" class="myContainer" style="display: block; width: 425px;"> <div id="innerDIV"> <div class="item"> --------My test string #1-------- </div> <div class="item"> ------test2------- </div> <div class="item"> test </div> </div> </div> </body> </html>

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