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  • How to produce an HTTP 403-equivalent WCF Message from an IErrorHandler?

    - by Andras Zoltan
    I want to write an IErrorHandler implementation that will handle AuthenticationException instances (a proprietary type), and then in the implementation of ProvideFault provide a traditional Http Response with a status code of 403 as the fault message. So far I have my first best guess wired into a service, but WCF appears to be ignoring the output message completely, even though the error handler is being called. At the moment, the code looks like this: public class AuthWeb403ErrorHandler : IErrorHandler { #region IErrorHandler Members public bool HandleError(Exception error) { return error is AuthenticationException; } public void ProvideFault(Exception error, MessageVersion version, ref Message fault) { //first attempt - just a stab in the dark, really HttpResponseMessageProperty property = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); property.SuppressEntityBody = true; property.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.Forbidden; property.StatusDescription = "Forbidden"; var m = Message.CreateMessage(version, null); m.Properties[HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name] = property; fault = m; } #endregion } With this in place, I just get the standard WCF html 'The server encountered an error processing the request. See server logs for more details.' - which is what would happen if there was no IErrorHandler. Is this a feature of the behaviours added by WebServiceHost? Or is it because the message I'm building is simply wrong!? I can verify that the event log is indeed not receiving anything. My current test environment is a WebGet method (both XML and Json) hosted in a service that is created with the WebServiceHostFactory, and Asp.Net compatibility switched off. The service method simply throws the exception in question.

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  • Why is TransactionScope operation is not valid?

    - by Cragly
    I have a routine which uses a recursive loop to insert items into a SQL Server 2005 database The first call which initiates the loop is enclosed within a transaction using TransactionScope. When I first call ProcessItem the myItem data gets inserted into the database as expected. However when ProcessItem is called from either ProcessItemLinks or ProcessItemComments I get the following error. “The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction” I am running this in debug with VS 2008 on Windows 7 and have the MSDTC running to enable distributed transactions. The code below isn’t my production code but is set out exactly the same. The AddItemToDatabase is a method on a class I cannot modify and uses a standard ExecuteNonQuery() which creates a connection then closes and disposes once completed. I have looked at other posting on here and the internet and still cannot resolve this issue. Any help would be much appreciated. using (TransactionScope processItem = new TransactionScope()) { foreach (Item myItem in itemsList) { ProcessItem(myItem); } processItem.Complete(); } private void ProcessItem(Item myItem) { AddItemToDatabase(myItem); ProcessItemLinks(myItem); ProcessItemComments(myItem); } private void ProcessItemLinks(Item myItem) { foreach (Item link in myItem.Links) { ProcessItem(link); } } private void ProcessItemComments(Item myItem) { foreach (Item comment in myItem.Comments) { ProcessItem(comment); } } Here is top part of the stack trace. Unfortunatly I cant show the build up to this point as its company sensative information which I can not disclose. Hope this is enough information. at System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) at System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open()

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  • How to debug UrlRewriter.NET?

    - by vfilby
    I have looked at their help page it seems like I can register a debug logger that outputs information to the 'standard ASP.NET debug window'. My problem is I don't know what that means, if it means the debug output window in Visual Studio (where you see build output, debug output and more) I am not seeing any UrlRewriter debug output. The rules are working (mostly) I just want to get more debug output to fix issues. I added the register call to the rewriter section like this: <rewriter> <register logger="Intelligencia.UrlRewriter.Logging.DebugLogger, Intelligencia.UrlRewriter" /> .... </rewriter> I am hosting this website locally in IIS on Vista, to debug it I attach the debugger to the w3wp process. Other selected parts from the web.config" <compilation debug="true"> <assemblies> ... </assemblies> </compilation> <trace enabled="true"/> Where should I see the debug output from UrlRewriter.NET? If it is in the Visual Studio debug output window, any ideas why I am not seeing it there?

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  • finding "line-breaks" in textarea that is word-wrapping ARABIC text

    - by Irfan jamal
    I have a string of text that I display in a textarea (right-to-left orientation). The user can resize the textarea dynamically (I use jquery for this) and the text will wrap as necessary. When the user hits submit, I will take that text and create an image using PHP, BUT before submitting I would like to know where the "line-breaks" or rather "word-wraps" occur. Everywhere I have looked so far only shows me how to process line-breaks on the php side. I want to make it clear that there ARE NO LINE-BREAKS. What I have is one LONG string that will be word-wrapped in different ways based on the width of the textarea set by the user. I can't use "columns" or any other standard width representation because I have a very complex arabic font that is actually composed of glyphs (characters) of numerous different widths. If anyone knows of a way of accessing where the word wraps occur (either in a textarea or a div if need-be), I'd really like to know. My only other solution is to actually store (in my DB) the width of every single character (somewhat tedious since there are over 200 characters in 600 different fonts, for a total of...some huge number). My hopes aren't high, but I thought I would ask. Thanks i. jamal

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  • Navigating between pages in a Facebook Platform iframe application

    - by Jimmy Cuadra
    I'm working on a Facebook Platform application that runs in iframe mode, and I'm having trouble understanding how to navigate between pages within the app. Let's say the first page that is loaded within the iframe at my canvas URL is one.html. Within that page, there is a link to two.html that just changes the source of the iframe and doesn't reload the Facebook chrome. When I do this, all the Facebook fb_sig_* query string parameters that Facebook passes to the original page aren't included, and so two.html has no awareness of the connection to Facebook and no ability to make API calls to generate the content for the page. One possible solution would be to manually extract all the Facebook parameters from one.html and append it to the link to two.html myself. This seems really ugly and I figured there had to be a cleaner way. For reference, my application is written in Perl and uses the WWW::Facebook::API module as a client library. I didn't see anything in it that I can use to easily reconstruct the Facebook parameters for use with links in iframe apps. Another possible solution would be to store all the Facebook parameters in a session on my server on the first page load, and just use the values in that session on subsequent page views. But what happens if the data I've stored no longer matches what Facebook would have sent if it were a completely new request (i.e. something in the user's Facebook session changed)? Is there something obvious I'm missing? What is the standard approach to navigating between pages within an iframe app? Facebook's documentation is atrocious and I haven't been able to find anything that clearly explains how this works. I also realize this wouldn't be an issue with an app using FBML instead of an iframe, but my understanding is that iframe apps are now encouraged over FBML apps, though again this seems ambiguous since so much of Facebook's documentation is outdated and contradictory.

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  • Android: ListActivity design - changing the content of the List Adapter

    - by Rob
    Hi, I would like to write a rather simple content application which displays a list of textual items (along with a small pic). I have a standard menu in which each menu item represents a different category of textual items (news, sports, leisure etc.). Pressing a menu item will display a list of textual items of this category. Now, having a separate ListActivity for each category seems like an overkill (or does it?..) Naturally, it makes much more sense to use one ListActivity and replace the data of its adapter when each category is loaded. My concern is when "back" is pressed. The adapter is loaded with items of the current category and now I need to display list of the previous category (and enable clicking on list items too...). Since I have only one activity - I thought of backup and load mechanism in onPause() and onResume() functions as well as making some distinction whether these function are invoked as a result of a "new" event (menu item selected) or by a "back" press. This seems very cumbersome for such a trivial usage... Am I missing something here? Thanks, Rob

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  • Calculating Nearest Match to Mean/Stddev Pair With LibSVM

    - by Chris S
    I'm new to SVMs, and I'm trying to use the Python interface to libsvm to classify a sample containing a mean and stddev. However, I'm getting nonsensical results. Is this task inappropriate for SVMs or is there an error in my use of libsvm? Below is the simple Python script I'm using to test: #!/usr/bin/env python # Simple classifier test. # Adapted from the svm_test.py file included in the standard libsvm distribution. from collections import defaultdict from svm import * # Define our sparse data formatted training and testing sets. labels = [1,2,3,4] train = [ # key: 0=mean, 1=stddev {0:2.5,1:3.5}, {0:5,1:1.2}, {0:7,1:3.3}, {0:10.3,1:0.3}, ] problem = svm_problem(labels, train) test = [ ({0:3, 1:3.11},1), ({0:7.3,1:3.1},3), ({0:7,1:3.3},3), ({0:9.8,1:0.5},4), ] # Test classifiers. kernels = [LINEAR, POLY, RBF] kname = ['linear','polynomial','rbf'] correct = defaultdict(int) for kn,kt in zip(kname,kernels): print kt param = svm_parameter(kernel_type = kt, C=10, probability = 1) model = svm_model(problem, param) for test_sample,correct_label in test: pred_label, pred_probability = model.predict_probability(test_sample) correct[kn] += pred_label == correct_label # Show results. print '-'*80 print 'Accuracy:' for kn,correct_count in correct.iteritems(): print '\t',kn, '%.6f (%i of %i)' % (correct_count/float(len(test)), correct_count, len(test)) The domain seems fairly simple. I'd expect that if it's trained to know a mean of 2.5 means label 1, then when it sees a mean of 2.4, it should return label 1 as the most likely classification. However, each kernel has an accuracy of 0%. Why is this? On a side note, is there a way to hide all the verbose training output dumped by libsvm in the terminal? I've searched libsvm's docs and code, but I can't find any way to turn this off.

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  • WCF RIA Silverlight deployment issues

    - by Handleman
    It seems the world is awash with people having problems deploying RIA WCF services, and now I'm one too. I've already tried a bunch of things, but to no avail. I need WCF RIA to support a Silverlight 3 application I've built. The short story is, using the new WCF RIA services (Nov 09?) I open VS 2008, create new project (silverlight application), enabling ".NET RIA services". Add new item to web project - Linq2SQL dbml file (from SQL 2005 DB prepared earlier) and compile. I add a new item to the web project - domain service (link the tables I need) and compiled. Using the domain context I "Load" data with a standard RIA get query in the MainPage and add a TextBlock to display returned data. Build & run (cassini) - success. Using VS to publish to IIS on local PC - success. Using VS to publish to test server (IIS6) - browse to location and the Silverlight app loads but Fiddler tells me I've got a 404 on all the the WCF .svc requests. Use Fiddler to "launch IE" on the service request and it's true - 404. I have already run aspnet_regiis, ServiceModelReg and added mime types for .xap, .xaml, .xbap and .svc. I have included the System.Web.Ria and System.Web.DomainServices DLL with copy local true. I need help with either a) a solution b) an approach to find a solution

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  • ASP MVC Ajax Controller pattern?

    - by Kevin Won
    My MVC app tends to have a lot of ajax calls (via JQuery.get()). It's sort of bugging me that my controller is littered with many tiny methods that get called via ajax. It seems to me to be sort of breaking the MVC pattern a bit--the controller is now being more of a data access component then a URI router. I refactored so that I have my 'true' controller for a page just performing standard routing responses (returing ActionResponse objects). So a call to /home/ will obviously kick up the HomeController class that will respond in the canonical controller fashion by returning a plain-jane View. I then moved my ajax stuff into a new controller class whose name I'm prefacing with 'Ajax'. So, for example, my page might have three different sections of functionality (say shopping cart or user account). I have an ajax controller for each of these (AjaxCartController, AjaxAccountController). There is really nothing different about moving the ajax call stuff into its own class--it's just to keep things cleaner. on client side obviously the JQuery would then use this new controller thusly: //jquery pseudocode call to specific controller that just handles ajax calls $.get('AjaxAccount/Details'.... (1) is there a better pattern in MVC for responding to ajax calls? (2) It seems to me that the MVC model is a bit leaky when it comes to ajax--it's not really 'controlling' stuff. It just happens to be the best and least painful way of handling ajax calls (or am I ignorant)? In other words, the 'Controller' abstraction doesn't seem to play nice with Ajax (at least from a patterns perspective). Is there something I'm missing?

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  • Jquery Form ajaxSubmit not submitting

    - by Gazler
    Hi, I am using the JQuery Form extension to submit a form with AJAX. I have the following code: var options = { beforeSubmit: showRequest, // pre-submit callback success: showResponse, // post-submit callback // other available options: //url: url // override for form's 'action' attribute //type: 'post', // 'get' or 'post', override for form's 'method' attribute //dataType: null // 'xml', 'script', or 'json' (expected server response type) clearForm: true, // clear all form fields after successful submit //resetForm: true // reset the form after successful submit // $.ajax options can be used here too, for example: timeout: 3000 }; $('#composeForm').submit(function() { // inside event callbacks 'this' is the DOM element so we first // wrap it in a jQuery object and then invoke ajaxSubmit $(this).find(':disabled').removeAttr('disabled'); $(this).ajaxSubmit(options); // !!! Important !!! // always return false to prevent standard browser submit and page navigation return false; }); The problem is that the form doesn't appear to be submitting, or atleast the success function is not being called. If I remove the return false, then the submission works, but the page navigates away. Is there a problem in my code that could be causing this? Cheers, Gazler.

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  • HttpWebRequest does has empty response requesting a search from Bing

    - by Jarrod Maxwell
    I have the following code that sends a HttpWebRequest to Bing. When I request the url below though it returns what appears to be an empty response when it should be returning a list of results. var response = string.Empty; var httpWebRequest = WebRequest.Create("http://www.bing.com/search?q=stackoverflow&count=100") as HttpWebRequest; httpWebRequest.Method = WebRequestMethods.Http.Get; httpWebRequest.Headers.Add("Accept-Language", "en-US"); httpWebRequest.UserAgent = "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Win32)"; httpWebRequest.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.AcceptEncoding, "gzip,deflate"); using (var httpWebResponse = httpWebRequest.GetResponse() as HttpWebResponse) { Stream stream = null; using (stream = httpWebResponse.GetResponseStream()) { if (httpWebResponse.ContentEncoding.ToLower().Contains("gzip")) stream = new GZipStream(stream, CompressionMode.Decompress); else if (httpWebResponse.ContentEncoding.ToLower().Contains("deflate")) stream = new DeflateStream(stream, CompressionMode.Decompress); var streamReader = new StreamReader(stream, Encoding.UTF8); response = streamReader.ReadToEnd(); } } Its pretty standard code for requesting and receiving a web page. Any ideas why the response is empty? Thanks in advance. EDIT I left off a query string parameter in the url. I also had &count=100 which I have now corrected. It seems to work for values of 50 and below but returns nothing when larger. This works ok when in the browser, but not for this web request. It makes me think the issue is that the response is large and HttpWebResponse is not handling that for me the way I have it set up. Just a guess though.

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  • Bluetooth on 2.0+

    - by awiden
    I'm doing bluetooth development for connecting with a PC. I've basicly used the BTChatExample and changed the UUID to the standard PC SPP-profile. Trying to close a bluetooth application during a blocking read, by closing the BluetoothSocket will leave the Bluetooth stack in a unusable state. This can only be fixed by disabling and enabling bluetooth and restarting the application. Checking logcat, you can see that some of the internal methods are failing, leaving a open port. Any information on this? First of all there seams to be differences on how bluetooth is implemented on N1 and HTC Legend/Desire both running 2.1, do you know anything about this? Connecting isn't 100% reliable, sometimes I get a warning saying ~PortSystemContext init: FAILED. This leaves bluetooth unusable, and restarting is needed. Am I right in assuming that SPP is the only profile supported for use with the APIs? That's what the docs on the BluetoothAdapter says. I would love to discuss issues on bluetooth with a developer and iron out these bugs so that Android can have good proper BT support it deserves.

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  • Update table columns bound to NSArrayController

    - by Loz
    Hi, I'm fairly new to the world of bindings in cocoa, and I'm having some troubles (perhaps/probably due to a misunderstanding). I have a singleton that contains an NSMutableArray called plugins, containing objects of class Plugin. It has a method called loadPlugins which adds objects to the plugins array. This may be called at any point. It's been added as an instance in Interface Builder. Also in IB is an NSObjectController, whose content outlet is connected to the singleton. There is also an NSArrayController, whose contentArray is bound to the NSObjectController (controller key is 'selection', model key path is 'plugins', object class name is 'Plugin'). And finally I have a table view with 2 columns, the values of which are bound to the NSArrayController's arrangedObjects, using keys of properties in the Plugin class. So far so standard (as far as I can tell from tutorials at least). My trouble is that when the loadPlugins method is called in the singleton, and objects are added to the plugins array, the table doesn't update to show the objects (unless loadPlugins is called before the nib is loaded). -reloadData called on the tableView doesn't do anything. Is there a way to tell the NSArrayController that the referenced array has been updated? I understand there is the -add: method for NSArrayController, which could be used in the loadPlugins, but this isn't desirable as I want to keep the singleton totally separate from the display aspect. This seems related to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1623396/refresh-cocoa-binding-nsarraycontroller-combobox The line: "editing the array behind the controller's back" seems to perhaps pinpoint the problem, but I would hope that it would be possible to have the singleton not know about the controller. Thanks in advance.

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  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS NSUrlConnection

    - by Lars
    Hi all, i got an EXC_BAD_ACCESS when i perform the last line of the function (webData). -(void)requestSoap{ NSString *requestUrl = @"http://www.website.com/webservice.php"; NSString *soapMessage = @"the soap message"; //website and soapmessage are valid in original code. NSError **error; NSURLResponse *response; //Convert parameter string to url NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:requestUrl]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringCacheData timeoutInterval:10]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMessage length]]; //Create an XML message for webservice [theRequest addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody: [soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSData *webData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:theRequest returningResponse:&response error:error]; } I tried not to release a thing, because what i read on the net is it's almost always a memory thing. When i debug the code (NSZombieEnabled = YES) this is what i get: [Session started at 2010-05-31 15:56:13 +0200.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1461.2) (Fri Mar 5 04:43:10 UTC 2010) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "x86_64-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 19856. test(19856) malloc: recording malloc stacks to disk using standard recorder test(19856) malloc: enabling scribbling to detect mods to free blocks test(19856) malloc: process 19832 no longer exists, stack logs deleted from /tmp/stack-logs.19832.test.w9Ek4L.index test(19856) malloc: stack logs being written into /tmp/stack-logs.19856.test.URRpQF.index Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. Does anybody have a clue?? Thanks a lot! Lars

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  • Workflow Foundation (WF) -- Why does Visual Studio's designer not use my custom ActivityDesignerThem

    - by stakx
    Problem: I am trying to customize a custom Workflow Foundation activity (called CustomActivity) so that it will display with a specific background color. What I've got so far: First, I'm defining a custom ActivityDesignerTheme as follows: public class CustomActivityTheme : ActivityDesignerTheme { public CustomActivityTheme(WorkflowTheme theme) : base(theme) { this.BackColorStart = Color.FromArgb(0xff, 0xf4, 0xf4, 0xf4); this.BackColorEnd = Color.FromArgb(0xff, 0xc0, 0xc0, 0xc0); this.BackgroundStyle = LinearGradientMode.Horizontal; } } Then, I am applying this theme to a custom ActivityDesigner (apparently the theme must be applied to a designer, and not to an activity): [ActivityDesignerTheme(typeof(CustomActivityTheme))] public class CustomActivityDesigner : SequentialActivityDesigner { ... } Ultimately, I am applying the custom designer to my custom Activity: [Designer(typeof(CustomActivityDesigner))] public partial class CustomActivity : SequenceActivity { ... } Now, according to some code examples that I've seen, this should do the trick. However, when I include an instance of my CustomActivity in a workflow, my custom theme is not applied and it is displayed in the Visual Studio Designer as any standard activity would (white background etc.). I tried re-compiling and even re-starting Visual Studio a couple of times, just to make sure the used assembly is up-to-date, but to no avail. My question: What am I missing? Why does Visual Studio's Workflow Designer not respect the CustomActivityTheme when it displays a CustomActivity?

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  • jQuery autopopulate select drop down from JSON issues

    - by Jonathon Joyce
    I have an issue regarding to auto populating a select dropdown from jQuery/JSON data which is return from a ColdFusion CFC, the code is below: $(function(){ $("#licences-add").dialog({autoOpen:false,modal:true,title:'Add Licences',height:250,width:380}); }); function openAddLicence(intInstanceID,szName,szDatasourceName){ $.getJSON('/ASPAdmin/billing/handler.cfc?method=ListLicenceTypes&queryformat=column',{szInstanceDatasource:szDatasourceName}, function(data){ $.each(data,function(){ $('<option></option>').val(data.DATA.UUIDLICENCETYPE).text(data.DATA.SZLICENCETYPE).appendTo('#uuidLicenceType'); }); }); $("#intInstanceID").attr('value', intInstanceID); $('span#szInstanceName').text(szName); $("#licences-add").dialog('open');}; The json returned is: {"ROWCOUNT":1,"COLUMNS":["UUIDLICENCETYPE","SZLICENCETYPE"],"DATA":{"UUIDLICENCETYPE":["480CE560-BCD3-C7AC-AF50B3C71BBCC473"],"SZLICENCETYPE":["Standard"]}} However i get the following error: $("").val(this.UUIDLICENCETYPE).text is not a function Any ideas? HTML: <tr> <td><label for="uuidLicenceType" title="Select the licence type (required).">Licence Type</label> <span class="req">*</span></td> <td> <select name="uuidLicenceType" id="uuidLicenceType" class="bmSelect"> <option value=""></option> </select> </td> </tr>

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  • Understanding Flash SWC's imported into Flex Builder 3 and key framed animation

    - by Hank Scorpio
    I am trying to understand what is going on in a SWC that I am importing from Flash CS4 into Flex Builder 3. Specifically I am using a SWC supplied by a Designer as the animation for a custom preloader (a subclassed DownloadProgressBar). The issue I am trying to understand is, once the FlexEvent.INIT_COMPLETE is fired, I cleanup by removing the swc by running this : removeChild(myPreloader); myPreloader = null; though even after I have removed this (which is successful, as I have checked by comparing this.numChildren before and after the call) the key framed animation still continues to run (not visibly). This has been detected by the Designer placing a trace in the time line of the animation (in Flash). Can anyone tell me why is it, that even after I have removed the animation from the subclassed DownloadProgressBar, it still keeps running ? Also, is it standard practice when importing SWCs to manage the cleanup of resources from the Flash side of things (much like releasing memory in obj-c). I find it counter intuitive that removing the child from the Flex side does not stop the animation. Any clues to this would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Questions regarding ordering of catch statements in catch block - compiler specific or language stan

    - by Andy
    I am currently using Visual Studio Express C++ 2008, and have some questions about catch block ordering. Unfortunately, I could not find the answer on the internet so I am posing these questions to the experts. I notice that unless catch (...) is placed at the end of a catch block, the compilation will fail with error C2311. For example, the following would compile: catch (MyException) { } catch (...) { } while the following would not: catch (...) { } catch (MyException) { } a. Could I ask if this is defined in the C++ language standard, or if this is just the Microsoft compiler being strict? b. Do C# and Java have the same rules as well? c. As an aside, I have also tried making a base class and a derived class, and putting the catch statement for the base class before the catch statement for the derived class. This compiled without problems. Are there no language standards guarding against such practice please?

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  • POSIX AIO Library and Callback Handlers

    - by Charles Salvia
    According to the documentation on aio_read/write, there are basically 2 ways that the AIO library can inform your application that an async file I/O operation has completed. Either 1) you can use a signal, 2) you can use a callback function I think that callback functions are vastly preferable to signals, and would probably be much easier to integrate into higher-level multi-threaded libraries. Unfortunately, the documentation for this functionality is a mess to say the least. Some sources, such as the man page for the sigevent struct, indicate that you need to set the sigev_notify data member in the sigevent struct to SIGEV_CALLBACK and then provide a function handler. Presumably, the handler is invoked in the same thread. Other documentation indicates you need to set sigev_notify to SIGEV_THREAD, which will invoke the callback handler in a newly created thread. In any case, on my Linux system (Ubuntu with a 2.6.28 kernel) SIGEV_CALLBACK doesn't seem to be defined anywhere, but SIGEV_THREAD works as advertised. Unfortunately, creating a new thread to invoke the callback handler seems really inefficient, especially if you need to invoke many handlers. It would be better to use an existing pool of threads, similar to the way most network I/O event demultiplexers work. Some versions of UNIX, such as QNX, include a SIGEV_SIGNAL_THREAD flag, which allows you to invoke handlers using a specified existing thread, but this doesn't seem to be available on Linux, nor does it seem to even be a part of the POSIX standard. So, is it possible to use the POSIX AIO library in a way that invokes user handlers in a pre-allocated background thread/threadpool, rather than creating/destroying a new thread everytime a handler is invoked?

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  • db4o Replication System: NullReferenceException?

    - by virtualmic
    Hi, I am trying to do standard bi-directional replication as follows. However, I get a NullReferenceException. This is a separate replication project. I did import the classes involved in the original project (such as Item, Category etc.) in this replication project. What am I doing wrong? (If I debug using VS, I can see that changedObjects does have all the changed objects; there seems to be some problem inside Replicate function) IObjectContainer local = Db4oFactory.OpenFile(@"G:\Work\School\MIS\VINMIS\Inventory\bin\Debug\vin.db4o"); IObjectContainer far = Db4oFactory.OpenFile(@"\\crs-lap\c$\vinmis\vin.db4o"); ; IReplicationSession replication = Replication.Begin(local, far); IObjectSet changedObjects = replication.ProviderA().ObjectsChangedSinceLastReplication(); while(changedObjects.HasNext()) replication.Replicate(changedObjects.Next()); // Exception!!! replication.Commit(); changedObjects = replication.ProviderB().ObjectsChangedSinceLastReplication(); while (changedObjects.HasNext()) replication.Replicate(changedObjects.Next()); replication.Commit(); Regards, Saurabh.

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  • C++ Exceptions and Inheritance from std::exception

    - by fbrereto
    Given this sample code: #include <iostream> #include <stdexcept> class my_exception_t : std::exception { public: explicit my_exception_t() { } virtual const char* what() const throw() { return "Hello, world!"; } }; int main() { try { throw my_exception_t(); } catch (const std::exception& error) { std::cerr << "Exception: " << error.what() << std::endl; } catch (...) { std::cerr << "Exception: unknown" << std::endl; } return 0; } I get the following output: Exception: unknown Yet simply making the inheritance of my_exception_t from std::exception public, I get the following output: Exception: Hello, world! Could someone please explain to me why the type of inheritance matters in this case? Bonus points for a reference in the standard.

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  • Working around MySQL error "Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction"

    - by Anon Guy
    Hi all: I have a MySQL table with about 5,000,000 rows that are being constantly updated in small ways by parallel Perl processes connecting via DBI. The table has about 10 columns and several indexes. One fairly common operation gives rise to the following error sometimes: DBD::mysql::st execute failed: Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276. The SQL statement that triggers the error is something like this: UPDATE file_table SET a_lock = 'process-1234' WHERE param1 = 'X' AND param2 = 'Y' AND param3 = 'Z' LIMIT 47 The error is triggered only sometimes. I'd estimate in 1% of calls or less. However, it never happened with a small table and has become more common as the database has grown. Note that I am using the a_lock field in file_table to ensure that the four near-identical processes I am running do not try and work on the same row. The limit is designed to break their work into small chunks. I haven't done much tuning on MySQL or DBD::mysql. MySQL is a standard Solaris deployment, and the database connection is set up as follows: my $dsn = "DBI:mysql:database=" . $DbConfig::database . ";host=${DbConfig::hostname};port=${DbConfig::port}"; my $dbh = DBI->connect($dsn, $DbConfig::username, $DbConfig::password, { RaiseError => 1, AutoCommit => 1 }) or die $DBI::errstr; I have seen online that several other people have reported similar errors and that this may be a genuine deadlock situation. I have two questions: What exactly about my situation is causing the error above? Is there a simple way to work around it or lessen its frequency? For example, how exactly do I go about "restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276"? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to implement DisplayMemberPath for my Wpf UserControl?

    - by Bevan
    I'm writing a WPF User Control for my application, wrapping a ListBox and a few other items. The ListBox has a new ItemTemplate that presents four pieces of information for each item in my list. I can hard code each of the four bindings to specific properties on my list items and they display fine. However, I want my UserControl to be a bit more flexible. On ListBox and ComboBox there is a property DisplayMemberPath (inherited from ItemsControl) that seems to "inject" the appropriate property binding into the standard ItemTemplate. How do I achieve the same result with my user control? I'd like to set up four new properties to allow configuration of the information displayed: public string LabelDisplayPath { get; set; } public string MetricDisplayPath { get; set; } public string TitleDisplayPath { get; set; } public string SubtitleDisplayPath { get; set; } Reviewing ItemsControl.DisplayMemberPath with Reflector seems to go down the rabbit hole, I haven't been able to fathom how it works. Also, if I'm completely off course - and there's another, more "WPF" technique that I should be using instead, please point me in that direction.

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  • Separation of multipage tiff with compression "CCITT T.6" very slow

    - by Alex
    I need to separate multiframe tiff files, and use the following method: public static Image[] GetFrames(Image sourceImage) { Guid objGuid = sourceImage.FrameDimensionsList[0]; FrameDimension objDimension = new FrameDimension(objGuid); int frameCount = sourceImage.GetFrameCount(objDimension); Image[] images = new Image[frameCount]; for (int i = 0; i < frameCount; i++) { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); sourceImage.SelectActiveFrame(objDimension, i); sourceImage.Save(ms, ImageFormat.Tiff); images[i] = Image.FromStream(ms); } return images; } It works fine, but if the source image was encoded using the CCITT T.6 compression, separating a 20-frame-file takes up to 15 seconds on my 2,5ghz CPU.(edit: One core is at 100% during the process) When saving the images afterward to a single file using standard compression (LZW), the separation time of the LZW-file is under 1 second. Saving with CCITT compression also takes very long. Is there a way to speed up the process?

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  • Using MSADO15.DLL and C++ with MinGW/GCC on Windows Vista

    - by Eugen Mihailescu
    INTRODUCTION Hi, I am very new to C++, is my 1st statement. I have started initially with VC++ 2008 Express, I've notice that GCC becomes kind of standard so I am trying to make the right steps event from the beginning. I have written a piece of code that connects to MSSQL Server via ADO, on VC++ it's working like a charm by importing MSADO15.dll: #import "msado15.dll" no_namespace rename("EOF", "EndOfFile") Because I am going to move from VC++ I was looking for an alternative (eventually multi-platform) IDE, so I stick (for this time) with Code::Block (I'm using last nightly buil, SVN 6181). As compiler I choose to use GCC 3.4.5 (ported via MinGW 5.1.6), under Vista. I was trying to compile a simple "hello world" application with GCC that use/import the same msado15.dll (#import "c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll" no_namespace rename("EOF", "EndOfFile")) and I was surprised to see a lot of compile-time errors. I was expected that the #import compiler's directive will generate a library from "msado15.dll" so it can link to it later (link-edit time or whatever). Instead it was trying to read it as a normal file (like a header file,if you like) because it was trying to interprete each line in the DLL (which has a MZ signature): Example: Compiling: main.cpp E:\MyPath\main.cpp:2:64: warning: extra tokens at end of #import directive In file included from E:\MyPath\main.cpp:2: c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll:1: error: stray '\144' in program In file included from E:\MyPath\main.cpp:2: c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll:1:4: warning: null character(s) ignored c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll:1: error: stray '\3' in program c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll:1:6: warning: null character(s) ignored c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll:1: error: stray '\4' in program ... and so on. MY QUESTION Well, it is obvious that under this version of GCC the #import directive does not do the expected job (perhaps #import is not supported anymore by GCC), so finally my question: how to use the ADO to access MSSQL database on a C++ program compiled with GCC (v3.4.5)?

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