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• Regular Expression to replace a pattern at runtime(C#3.0)

  - by deepak.kumar.goyal

  I have a requirement. I have some files in a folder among which some file names looks like say **EUDataFiles20100503.txt, MigrateFiles20101006.txt.** Basically these are the files that I need to work upon. Now I have a config file where it is mentioned as the file pattern type as EUDataFilesYYYYMMDD, MigrateFilesYYYYMMDD. Basically the idea is that, the user can configure the file pattern and based on the pattern mentioned, I need to search for those files that are present in the folder. i.e. at runtime the YYYYMMDD will get replaced by the Year Month and Date Values. It does not matter what dates will be there(but not with time stamp ; only dates)). And the EUDataFiles or MigrateFiles names will be there.(they are fixed) i.e. If the folder has a file name as EUDataFile20100504.txt(i.e. Year 2010, Month 05, Day 04) , I should ignore this file as it is not EUDataFiles20100504.txt (kindly note that the name is plural - File(s) and not file for which the system will ignore the file). Similarly, if the Pattern given as EUDataFilesYYYYMMDD and if the file present is of type EUDataFilesYYYYDDMM then also the system should ignore. How can I solve this problem? Is it doable using regular expression(Replacing the pattern at runtime)? If so can anyone be good enough in helping me out? I am using C#3.0 and dotnet framework 3.5. Thanks

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• My ifelse statement's result depends on the actions for true/false?

  - by Antal

  Currently I am building a route for a truck to drive inside my netlogo-land. When the truck is next to the shop-patch where it should deliver, the truck needs to change its actions. However my if or ifelse statement does not seem to respond well and the answer depends on the output. With some tests: turtles ifelse ((patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4) [write "11"] [write "22"] "11" turtles ifelse ((patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4) [write "111"] [write "122"] "122" turtles ifelse (patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4 [write "111"] [write "122"] "122" turtles ifelse (patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4 [write "11"] [write "12"] "12" turtles ifelse (patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4 [write "11"] [write "22"] "11" Please note that during this time I do not move my truck, I use the command center to ask these questions (from turtle truck perspective). I am very confused about this. As the only thing I change is the action (what to write). This should not impact the true/false statement itself. Does anybody have any clue what is going on here and why the ifelse responds strange?

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• Run a command as cron would but from the command line.

  - by BCS

  I have a script that I'm trying to run from cron. When I run it from bash, it work just fine. However when I let cron do it's thing, I get a: myscript.sh: line 122: syntax error: unexpected end of file What I want is a way to run a command as if it was a cron job, but do it in my shell. As a side note: does anyone know what would be differnt under cron? (the script already has a #!/bin/sh line) To answer my own question: I added this to my crontab: * * * * * bcs for ((i=1; i <= 55; i++)) ; do find ~/.crontemp/ -name '*.run' -exec "{}" ";" ; sleep 1; done` and created this script: #!/bin/sh tmp=$(mktemp ~/.crontemp/cron.XXXXX) mknod $tmp.pipe p mv $tmp $tmp.pre echo $* '>' $tmp.pipe '1>&2' >> $tmp.pre echo rm $tmp.run >> $tmp.pre chmod 700 $tmp.pre mv $tmp.pre $tmp.run cat $tmp.pipe rm $tmp.pipe With that, I can run an arbitrary command with a delay of not more than one second. (And yes, I know there are all kinds of security issue involved in that)

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• When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

  - by Ani

  I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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• Web pages that a long time to load keep on reloading, just on vista on my work n/w...

  - by Ralpharama

  I have a curious problem at work which I've been struggling with since the advent of Windows Vista. We send our own email newsletter out to 40,000+ people once a week. The sending code has been in place for years, it's in classic ASP/VBscript called through a browser and simply loops through each email address, sending it to them. The page takes 40 mins or more to run, so has a big timeout value to allow it to do so. All well and good, suddenly, after Windows Vista is installed on the work PCs, the email sending page behaved oddly - after a period of time it seems to reload the page, endlessly, so the first 20% of our users get multiple copies of the newsletter until we kill the process! If we run the code on an XP machine in the on the same office network, it works fine. If we run it on Vista outside the office, so, say, on my own ISP, then it also works fine! Note, same effect in IE and FF... So, something about my office network and Vista is causing this... I recently re-wrote the newsletter code so it would split the task into chunks of 100 users at a time, hoping this would fix it, but my most recent test shows that the office n/w vista machine once again reloads the same page over any over, even though it takes 1/10th of the time to run... Does anyone have any ideas what it might be, how I can prove it, or, better, how I can get round it? Thanks for your advice :)

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• Who's setting TCP window size down to 0, Indy or Windows?

  - by François

  We have an application server which have been observed sending headers with TCP window size 0 at times when the network had congestion (at a client's site). We would like to know if it is Indy or the underlying Windows layer that is responsible for adjusting the TCP window size down from the nominal 64K in adaptation to the available throughput. And we would be able to act upon it becoming 0 (nothing gets send, users wait = no good). So, any info, link, pointer to Indy code are welcome... Disclaimer: I'm not a network specialist. Please keep the answer understandable for the average me ;-) Note: it's Indy9/D2007 on Windows Server 2003 SP2. More gory details: The TCP zero window cases happen on the middle tier talking to the DB server. It happens at the same moments when end users complain of slowdowns in the client application (that's what triggered the network investigation). 2 major Network issues causing bottlenecks have been identified. The TCP zero window happened when there was network congestion, but may or may not be caused by it. We want to know when that happen and have a way to do something (logging at least) in our code. So where to hook (in Indy?) to know when that condition occurs?

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• how do I deconstruct COUNT()?

  - by user151841

  I have a view with some joins in it. I'm doing a select from that view with COUNT(*) as one of the columns of the select. I'm surprised by the number it's returning. Note that there is no GROUP BY nor aggregate column statement in the source view that the query is drawing from. How can I take it apart to see how it arrives at this number? I have three columns in the GROUP BY clause. SELECT column1, column2, column3, COUNT(*) FROM View GROUP BY column1, column2, column3 I get a result like +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | column1 | column2 | column3 | COUNT(*) | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value1 | valueA | value_a | 103 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value2 | valueB | value_b | 56 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ etc. I'd like to see how it arrives at that 103, 26, etc. In other words, I want to run a query that returns 103 rows of something, so that I know that I've expressed the query properly. I'm double-checking my work. I'm not saying that I think COUNT(*) doesn't work ( I know that "SELECT is not broken" ), what I want to double-check is exactly what I'm expressing in my query, because I think I've expressed the wrong thing, which would be why I'm getting unexpected values. I need to see more what I'm actually directing MySQL to count. So should I take them one by one, and try out each value in a WHERE clause? In other words, should I do SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' and see the row count returned matches the COUNT(*) value in the grouped results? Because of confidentiality, I won't be able to post any of the query or database structure. All I'm asking for is a general technique to see what COUNT(*) is actually counting.

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• When an NSWindow object has a delegate that is a NSWindow subclass, who is responsible to act on received events?

  - by spade78

  So I'm building a program that features the use of the IKImageBrowserView component as a subview in an NSWindow. As a side note, I have a controller object called ImageBrowserController which subclasses NSWindow and is set as the delegate of the NSWindow object of my app. I have sent IKImageBrowserView the message setCanControlQuickLookPanel:YES to enable it to automatically use the QuickLook functionality to preview image files when the IKImageBrowserView is a first responder to receive key events. Then it took me a while to figure out how to make the IKImageBrowserView a first responder which I finally got working by overriding acceptsFirstResponder inside my ImageBrowserController. Now I understand that as the delegate to the NSWindow, ImageBrowserController has a place in the responder chain after the event gets triggered on NSWindow. And I understand that as a subview of NSWindow, IKImageBrowserView is in line to be passed events for event handling. What I don't get is where the connection is between the ImageBrowserController being a first responder and the event somehow making it to the IKImageBrowserView. I didn't set NSWindow or IKImageBrowserView as first responders explicitly. So why isn't it necessary for me to implement event handling inside my ImageBrowserController? EDIT: So after reading the accepted answer and going back to my code I tried removing the acceptsFirstResponder override in my ImageBrowserController and the QuickLook functionality still triggered just like the accepted answer said it would. Commenting out the setCanControlQuickLookPanel:YES made the app beep at me when I tried to invoke QuickLook functionality via the spacebar. I'm getting the feeling that my troubles were caused by user error of XCode in hitting the RUN button instead of the BUILD button after making changes to my code (sigh).

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• Lazy loading is not working for one to many

  - by Shire

  Any 1-M that use the primary key of the parent table, but any 1-M that uses a different column does not work. It generates the SQL correctly, but put the value of the key into the SQL instead of the column value I want. Example mapping: public TemplateMap() { Table("IMPORT"); LazyLoad(); Id(x => x.ImportId).Column("IMPORT_ID").GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.ImportSetId).Column("IMPORTSET_ID"); HasMany(x => x.GoodChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORT_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); HasMany(x => x.BadChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORTSET_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); } Lazy loading works for GoodChildren, but not for BadChildren. The SQL statement is correct for both children. But the wrong values are use. If the value of IMPORT_ID is 10 and the value of IMPORTSET_ID is 12. The value 10 will be used for the IMPORTSET_ID in the SQL for BadChildren instead of 12. Anyone have any ideas what I need to change to get BadChildren to work correctly? Note: GoodChildren links to IMPORT_ID on Template BadChildren links to IMPORTSET_ID on Template

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• Iterate through every node in a XML

  - by Rachel

  Hi I am trying to iterate through every node in a xml, be it the element node, text node or comment. With the below XSL in the very first statement prints the complete xml. How do i copy the very first node in $nodes and call the template process-nodes again removing teh first node in my next iteration? <?xml version='1.0'?> <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:call-template name="process-nodes"> <xsl:with-param name="nodes" select="//node()" as="node()*"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="process-nodes"> <xsl:param name="nodes" as="node()*" /> <xsl:copy-of select="$nodes[1]"/> <xsl:if test="$nodes"> <xsl:call-template name="process-nodes"> <xsl:with-param name="nodes" select="remove($nodes, 1)" /> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:if> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Note: I am looking for fixing the issue in this kind of implementation rather than changing the template match to <xsl:template match="@* | node()"> as I need to have some processing which requires this approach. Thanks.

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• where does a novice begin with error logging in asp.net c# ?

  - by korben

  i'm a novice teaching myself asp.net in c# via trial and error learn by doing, unfortunately this means lots of errors! i have a custom errors page now that is basically a 404 so that site visitors don't get that ugly application error message .NET throws, but i WOULD like to be able to see what's going wrong myself as people use the site. so i'm looking to build or learn from a fairly basic error logging c# class, that will send the same information given in a browser when hitting a .NET error, send this into a TXT file and email me the error at the same time would be great i don't know where to even begin, can someone give me some pointers? an open source class that does this already that i could plugin and play with would work as well. otherwise some links or guidance on where to start reading would be great too. i sort of have a mental block on understand msdn info-dump pages though, i'm hoping to find some articles on real people talking about implementing the same thing themselves or something like that please note i'm not looking to use some extensive or complicated third party service for this, i'm hoping to learn from the process of implementing a concise customized one

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• How can I get the type I want?

  - by Danny Chen

  There are a lot of such classes in my project (very old and stable code, I can't do many changes to them, maybe slight changes are OK) public class MyEntity { public long ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Salary { get; set; } public static GetMyEntity ( long ID ) { MyEntity e = new MyEntity(); // load data from DB and bind to this instance return e; } } For some reasons, now I need to do this: Type t = Type.GetType("XXX"); // XXX is one of the above classes' name MethodInfo staticM= t.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Static).FirstOrDefault();// I'm sure I can get the correct one var o = staticM.Invoke(...); //returns a object, but I want the type above! If I pass "MyEntity" at beginning, I hope I can get o as MyEntity! Please NOTE that I know the "name of the class" only. MyEntity e = staticM.Invoke(...) as MyEntity; can't be used here.

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• c# "==" operator : compiler behaviour with different structs

  - by Moe Sisko

  Code to illustrate : public struct MyStruct { public int SomeNumber; } public string DoSomethingWithMyStruct(MyStruct s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; else return "ok"; } private string DoSomethingWithDateTime(DateTime s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; // XX else return "ok"; } Now, "DoSomethingWithStruct" fails to compile with : "Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'MyStruct' and '<null>'". This makes sense, since it doesn't make sense to try a reference comparison with a struct, which is a value type. OTOH, "DoSomethingWithDateTime" compiles, but with compiler warning : "Unreachable code detected" at line marked "XX". Now, I'm assuming that there is no compiler error here, because the DateTime struct overloads the "==" operator. But how does the compiler know that the code is unreachable ? e.g. Does it look inside the code which overloads the "==" operator ? (This is using Visual Studio 2005 in case that makes a difference). Note : I'm more curious than anything about the above. I don't usually try to use "==" on structs and nulls.

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• What is the benefit of using ONLY OpenID authentication on a site?

  - by Peter

  From my experience with OpenID, I see a number of significant downsides: Adds a Single Point of Failure to the site It is not a failure that can be fixed by the site even if detected. If the OpenID provider is down for three days, what recourse does the site have to allow its users to login and access the information they own? Takes a user to another sites content and every time they logon to your site Even if the OpenID provider does not have an error, the user is re-directed to their site to login. The login page has content and links. So there is a chance a user will actually be drawn away from the site to go down the Internet rabbit hole. Why would I want to send my users to another company's website? [ Note: my provider no longer does this and seems to have fixed this problem (for now).] Adds a non-trivial amount of time to the signup To sign up with the site a new user is forced to read a new standard, chose a provider, and signup. Standards are something that the technical people should agree to in order to make a user experience frictionless. They are not something that should be thrust on the users. It is a Phisher's Dream OpenID is incredibly insecure and stealing the person's ID as they log in is trivially easy. [ taken from David Arno's Answer below ] For all of the downside, the one upside is to allow users to have fewer logins on the Internet. If a site has opt-in for OpenID then users who want that feature can use it. What I would like to understand is: What benefit does a site get for making OpenID mandatory?

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• Any useful suggestions to figure out where memory is being free'd in a Win32 process?

  - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat

  An application I am working with is exhibiting the following behaviour: During a particular high-memory operation, the memory usage of the process under Task Manager (Mem Usage stat) reaches a peak of approximately 2.5GB (Note: A registry key has been set to allow this, as usually there is a maximum of 2GB for a process under 32-bit Windows) After the operation is complete, the process size slowly starts decreasing at a rate of 1MB per second. I am trying to figure out the easiest way to quickly determine who is freeing this memory, and where it is being free'd. I am having trouble attaching a memory profiler to my code, and I don't particularly want to override the new/delete operators to track the allocations/deallocations (IOW, I want to do this without re-compiling my code). Can anyone offer any useful suggestions of how I could do this via the Visual Studio debugger? Update I should also mention that it's a multi-threaded application, so pausing the application and analysing the call stack through the debugger is not the most desirable option. I considered freezing different threads one at a time to see if the memory stops reducing, but I'm fairly certain this will cause the application to crash.

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• Spring Integration 1.0 RC2: Streaming file content?

  - by gdm

  I've been trying to find information on this, but due to the immaturity of the Spring Integration framework I haven't had much luck. Here is my desired work flow: New files are placed in an 'Incoming' directory Files are picked up using a file:inbound-channel-adapter The file content is streamed, N lines at a time, to a 'Stage 1' channel, which parses the line into an intermediary (shared) representation. This parsed line is routed to multiple 'Stage 2' channels. Each 'Stage 2' channel does its own processing on the N available lines to convert them to a final representation. This channel must have a queue which ensures no Stage 2 channel is overwhelmed in the event that one channel processes significantly slower than the others. The final representation of the N lines is written to a file. There will be as many output files as there were routing destinations in step 4. *'N' above stands for any reasonable number of lines to read at a time, from [1, whatever I can fit into memory reasonably], but is guaranteed to always be less than the number of lines in the full file. How can I accomplish streaming (steps 3, 4, 5) in Spring Integration? It's fairly easy to do without streaming the files, but my files are large enough that I cannot read the entire file into memory. As a side note, I have a working implementation of this work flow without Spring Integration, but since we're using Spring Integration in other places in our project, I'd like to try it here to see how it performs and how the resulting code compares for length and clarity.

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• Classical task-scheduling assignment

  - by Bruno

  I am working on a flight scheduling app (disclaimer: it's for a college project, so no code answers, please). Please read this question w/ a quantum of attention before answering as it has a lot of peculiarities :( First, some terminology issues: You have planes and flights, and you have to pair them up. For simplicity's sake, we'll assume that a plane is free as soon as the flight using it prior lands. Flights are seen as tasks: They have a duration They have dependencies They have an expected date/time for beginning Planes can be seen as resources to be used by tasks (or flights, in our terminology). Flights have a specific type of plane needed. e.g. flight 200 needs a plane of type B. Planes obviously are of one and only one specific type, e.g., Plane Airforce One is of type C. A "project" is the set of all the flights by an airline in a given time period. The functionality required is: Finding the shortest possible duration for a said project The earliest and latest possible start for a task (flight) The critical tasks, with basis on provided data, complete with identifiers of preceding tasks. Automatically pair up flights and planes, so as to get all flights paired up with a plane. (Note: the duration of flights is fixed) Get a Gantt diagram with the projects scheduling, in which all flights begin as early as possible, showing all previously referred data graphically (dependencies, time info, etc.) So the questions is: How in the world do I achieve this? Particularly: We are required to use a graph. What do the graph's edges and nodes respectively symbolise? Are we required to discard tasks to achieve the critical tasks set? If you could also recommend some algorithms for us to look up, that'd be great.

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• What issues might I have in opening .NET 2.0 Projects in Visual Studio 2010?

  - by Ben McCormack

  The small software team I work on recently got approved to upgrade to Visual Studio 2010 (we're currently using VS 2005). We have several ASP.NET 2.0 and WinForms (in .NET 2.0) projects in production. I've been tasked with downloading VS 2010 and seeing how well it plays with our current projects. What issues should I be aware of when targeting older applications in VS 2010? If I open a VS 2005 project in VS 2010, will it still place nicely when my teammate goes back to open the project in VS 2005? Will we have to upgrade projects to work in VS 2010 (assuming the projects themselves aren't upgraded to .NET 4)? Can I use VS 2010 to edit legacy VB6 apps (just kidding)? I'm excited to work with the newest software, but we're concerned about running into development snags on production applications that are already working just fine. NOTE: I started a bounty in hopes of getting a more detailed answer to this question. Perhaps the answer really is as simple as those already provided, but I'm interested in more feedback regarding our options to transition from using VS 2005 to VS 2010.

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• Why are my connections not closed even if I explicitly dispose of the DataContext?

  - by Chris Simpson

  I encapsulate my linq to sql calls in a repository class which is instantiated in the constructor of my overloaded controller. The constructor of my repository class creates the data context so that for the life of the page load, only one data context is used. In my destructor of the repository class I explicitly call the dispose of the DataContext though I do not believe this is necessary. Using performance monitor, if I watch my User Connections count and repeatedly load a page, the number increases once per page load. Connections do not get closed or reused (for about 20 minutes). I tried putting Pooling=false in my config to see if this had any effect but it did not. In any case with pooling I wouldn't expect a new connection for every load, I would expect it to reuse connections. I've tried putting a break point in the destructor to make sure the dispose is being hit and sure enough it is. So what's happening? Some code to illustrate what I said above: The controller: public class MyController : Controller { protected MyRepository rep; public MyController () { rep = new MyRepository(); } } The repository: public class MyRepository { protected MyDataContext dc; public MyRepository() { dc = getDC(); } ~MyRepository() { if (dc != null) { //if (dc.Connection.State != System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) //{ // dc.Connection.Close(); //} dc.Dispose(); } } // etc } Note: I add a number of hints and context information to the DC for auditing purposes. This is essentially why I want one connection per page load

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• Alternatives to static methods on interfaces for enforcing consistency

  - by jayshao

  In Java, I'd like to be able to define marker interfaces, that forced implementations to provide static methods. For example, for simple text-serialization/deserialization I'd like to be able to define an interface that looked something like this: public interface TextTransformable<T>{ public static T fromText(String text); public String toText(); Since interfaces in Java can't contain static methods though (as noted in a number of other posts/threads: here, here, and here this code doesn't work. What I'm looking for however is some reasonable paradigm to express the same intent, namely symmetric methods, one of which is static, and enforced by the compiler. Right now the best we can come up with is some kind of static factory object or generic factory, neither of which is really satisfactory. Note: in our case our primary use-case is we have many, many "value-object" types - enums, or other objects that have a limited number of values, typically carry no state beyond their value, and which we parse/de-parse thousands of time a second, so actually do care about reusing instances (like Float, Integer, etc.) and its impact on memory consumption/g.c. Any thoughts?

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• How to extract ALL typedefs and structs and unions from c++ source

  - by Michael Wells

  I have inherited a Visual Studio project that contains hundreds of files. I would like to extract all the typedefs, structs and unions from each .h/.cpp file and put the results in a file). Each typdef/struct/union should be on one line in the results file. This would make sorting much easier. typdef int myType; struct myFirstStruct { char a; int b;...}; union Part_Number_Serial_Number_Part_2_Response_Message_Type {struct{Message_Response_Head_Type Head; Part_Num_Serial_Num_Part_2_Report_Array Part_2_Report; Message_Tail_Type Tail;} Data; BYTE byData[140];}myUnion; struct { bool c; int d;...}mySecondStruct; My problem is, I do not know what to look for (grammar of typedef/structs/unions) using a regular expression. I cannot believe that nobody has done this before (I googled and have not found anything on this). Does anyone know the regular expressions for these? (Note some are commented out using // others /* */) Or a tool to accomplish this. Edit: I am toying with the idea of autogenerating source code and/or dialogs for modifying messages that use the underlying typedef/struct/union. I was going to use the output to generate an XML file that could be used for this reason. The source for these are in C/C++ and used in almost all my projects. These projects are usually NOT in C/C++. By using the XML version I would only need to update/add the typedef/struct/union only in one place and all the projects would be able to autogen the source and/or dialogs.

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• Sorting XML file through multiple attributes

  - by jbugeja

  I want to sort a 'free-form' XML file through multiple attributes (first by T and then by L). The XML is a bit complex and it is structured as shown below: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <wb xmlns:cf="http://www.macromedia.com/2004/cfform" xmlns:a="urn:dummy"> <a:form name="chart"> <a:fieldset FIELD="a" FIELDNAME="FieldSet1"> <a:select1 FIELDNUMBER="01" L="1" T="2" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="02" INDEX="4" L="200" T="1" /> </a:fieldset> <a:fieldset FIELD="b" FIELDNAME="FieldSet1"> <a:select1 FIELDNUMBER="03" T="3" L="1" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="04" INDEX="7" T="4" L="200" /> <a:fieldset FIELD="c" FIELDNAME="FieldSet1"> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="05" T="10" INDEX="6" L="400" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="06" T="8" INDEX="8" L="200" /> </a:fieldset> </a:fieldset> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="08" INDEX="3" L="3" T="5" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="09" INDEX="2" L="2" T="4" /> </a:form> </wb> PS: The root element is wb and this is always followed by a:form The L and T are always found in elements that have a tag in the namespace a, the only exception being a:fieldset which does not have L and T a:fieldset could have multiple children of the namespace a including another a:fieldset We can also assume that L denotes Left and T denotes Top. So, the idea of this is that when I view the transformed XML I can immediately note which elements precede what. What's your take on this?

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• CSS to create curved corner between two elements?

  - by Tauren

  My UI has an unordered list on the left. When a list item is selected, a div appears on the right of it. I'd like to have a curved outer corner where the <li> and the <div> meet. See the white arrow in the image below. To extend the blue <li> to the edge of the <ul>, I'm planning to do something like this: li { right-margin: 2em; border-radius: 8px; } li.active { right-margin: 0; border-bottom-right-radius: 0; border-top-right-radius: 0; } Is there a better way to extend the <li> to the edge of the <ul>? Obviously, I'll include the webkit and mozilla border radius CSS as well. The main thing I'm unsure about is that outer corner underneath the bottom right corner of the active <li>. I have some ideas, but they seem like hacks. Any suggestions? NOTE that the <ul> is indicated in grey, but it would be white in the real design. Also, I'm planning to use Javascript to position the <div> correctly when an <li> is selected.

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• JQuery use variable by name of divID

  - by Russell Parrott

  Just a quick question, that I cannot fathom out, hope you guys and girls can help. I have a div (with ID) that when clicked opens a new div - great works well, what I really want is to "populate" the new div with predefined text based on the clicked div's ID. example: <div class="infobox" id="help_msg1">Click me</div> I may have say 3 (actually more but...) of these div's This opens: <div id="helpbox">text in here</div> In/on my .js page I have doc ready etc then: var help_msg1 ='text that is a help message'; var help_msg2 ='text that is another help message'; var help_msg3 ='text that is yet another help message'; Then $('.infobox').live('click',function() { $('#helpbox').remove(); $('label').css({'font-weight': '400'}); $(this).next('label').css({'font-weight': '900'}); var offset = $(this).next().next().offset(); var offsetby = $(this).next().next().width(); var leftitby = offset.left+offsetby+10; $('body').append('text in here'); $('#helpbox').css( { 'left': leftitby, 'top': offset.top } ); }); Note I remove each #helpbox before appending the new one and the .next().next() identifies the appropriate text input that lot all works. What I need is how do I put var help_msg1 into the append when id="help_msg1" is clicked or var help_msg2 when id="help_msg2" is clicked etc. I have tried

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• JDialog setResizable(false) is not working in Window Title Bar Menu

  - by jolonaleur

  JDialog setResizable(false) is not working in Window Title Bar Menu Windows XP SP2 Java JRE 1.6.0_11-b03 Behavior varies. Sometimes, the Maximize and Minimize item on the window menu is disabled and sometimes enabled. Steps to reproduce enabled Maximize and Minimize button: Show the JDialog with setResizable(false) Open another window, say for example Notepad. Right-click on the window title bar of Notepad and click Maximize. Go to your JDialog and right click on the window title bar. Maximize window is enabled. Likewise, to disable the Maximize item for the JDialog, go to the maximized Notepad window and right click on title bar. Maximize item is disabled in the Notepad window. Go the your JDialog and right click on the title bar, notice that the Maximize item is also disabled. Note that my application can not use the defaultLookAndFeel method of java dialogs. The bug report related to this was for Solaris OS but that was already ages ago. bug report Is there any workaround? Thanks.

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