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  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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  • Fast path cache generation for a connected node graph

    - by Sukasa
    I'm trying to get a faster pathfinding mechanism in place in a game I'm working on for a connected node graph. The nodes are classed into two types, "Networks" and "Routers." In this picture, the blue circles represent routers and the grey rectangles networks. Each network keeps a list of which routers it is connected to, and vice-versa. Routers cannot connect directly to other routers, and networks cannot connect directly to other networks. Networks list which routers they're connected to Routers do the same I need to get an algorithm that will map out a path, measured in the number of networks crossed, for each possible source and destination network excluding paths where the source and destination are the same network. I have one right now, however it is unusably slow, taking about two seconds to map the paths, which becomes incredibly noticeable for all connected players. The current algorithm is a depth-first brute-force search (It was thrown together in about an hour to just get the path caching working) which returns an array of networks in the order they are traversed, which explains why it's so slow. Are there any algorithms that are more efficient? As a side note, while these example graphs have four networks, the in-practice graphs have 55 networks and about 20 routers in use. Paths which are not possible also can occur, and as well at any time the network/router graph topography can change, requiring the path cache to be rebuilt. What approach/algorithm would likely provide the best results for this type of a graph?

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  • How do I alias the scala setter method 'myvar_$eq(myval)' to something more pleasing when in java?

    - by feydr
    I've been converting some code from java to scala lately trying to teach myself the language. Suppose we have this scala class: class Person() { var name:String = "joebob" } Now I want to access it from java so I can't use dot-notation like I would if I was in scala. So I can get my var's contents by issuing: person = Person.new(); System.out.println(person.name()); and set it via: person = Person.new(); person.name_$eq("sallysue"); System.out.println(person.name()); This holds true cause our Person Class looks like this in javap: Compiled from "Person.scala" public class Person extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public Person(); public void name_$eq(java.lang.String); public java.lang.String name(); public int $tag() throws java.rmi.RemoteException; } Yes, I could write my own getters/setters but I hate filling classes up with that and it doesn't make a ton of sense considering I already have them -- I just want to alias the _$eq method better. (This actually gets worse when you are dealing with stuff like antlr because then you have to escape it and it ends up looking like person.name_\$eq("newname"); Note: I'd much rather have to put up with this rather than fill my classes with more setter methods. So what would you do in this situation?

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  • LINQ extention SelectMany in 3.5 vs 4.0?

    - by Moberg
    Hi When I saw Darins suggestion here .. IEnumerable<Process> processes = new[] { "process1", "process2" } .SelectMany(Process.GetProcessesByName); ( http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3059667/process-getprocessesbyname/3059733#3059733 ) .. I was a bit intrigued and I tried it in VS2008 with .NET 3.5 - and it did not compiling unless I changed it to .. IEnumerable<Process> res = new string[] { "notepad", "firefox", "outlook" } .SelectMany(s => Process.GetProcessesByName(s)); Having read some Darins answers before I suspected that it was me that were the problem, and when I later got my hands on a VS2010 with.NET 4.0 - as expected - the original suggestion worked beautifully. My question is : What have happend from 3.5 to 4.0 that makes this (new syntax) possible? Is it the extentionmethods that have been extended(hmm) or new rules for lambda syntax or? I've tried to search but my google-fu was not strong enough. Please forgive if the question is a bit naive and note that I've taged it as beginner :)

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  • C: Fifo between threads, writing and reading strings

    - by Yonatan
    Hello once more dear internet, I writing a small program that among other things, writes a log file of commands received. to do that, I want to use a thread that all it should do is just attempt to read from a pipe, while the main thread will write into that pipe whenever it should. Since i don't know the length of each string command, i thought about writing and reading the pointer to the char buf[MAX_MESSAGE_LEN]. Since what i've tried so far doesn't work, i'll post my best effort :P char str[] = "hello log thread 123456789 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19\n"; if (pipe(pipe_fd) != 0) return -1; pthread_t log_thread; pthread_create(&log_thread,NULL, log_thread_start, argv[2]); success_write = 0; do { write(pipe_fd[1],(void*)&str,sizeof(char*)); } while (success_write < sizeof(char*)); and the thread does this: char buffer[MAX_MSGLEN]; int success_read; success_read = 0; //while(1) { do { success_read += read(pipe_fd[0],(void*)&buffer, sizeof(char*)); } while (success_read < sizeof(char*)); //} printf("%s",buffer); (Sorry if this doesn't indent, i can't seem to figure out this editor...) oh, and pipe_fd[2] is a global parameter. So, any help with this, either by the way i thought of, or another way i could read strings without knowing the length, would be much appreciated. On a side note, i'm working on Eclipse IDE C/C++, version 1.2.1 and i can't seem to set up the compiler so it will link the pthread library to my project. I've resorted to writing my own Makefile to make it (pun intended :P) work. Anyone knows what to do ? i've looked online, but all i find are solutions that are probably good on an older version because the tabs and option keys are different. Anyways, Thanks a bunch internet ! Yonatan

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  • Pointers and Addresses in C

    - by Mohit
    #include "stdio.h" main() { int i=3,*x; float j=1.5,*y; char k='c',*z; x=&i; y=&j; z=&k; printf("\nAddress of x= %u",x); printf("\nAddress of y= %u",y); printf("\nAddress of z= %u",z); x++; y++;y++;y++;y++; z++; printf("\nNew Address of x= %u",x); printf("\nNew Address of y= %u",y); printf("\nNew Address of z= %u",z); printf("\nNew Value of i= %d",i); printf("\nNew Value of j= %f",j); printf("\nNew Value of k= %c\n",k); } Output: Address of x= 3219901868 Address of y= 3219901860 Address of z= 3219901875 New Address of x= 3219901872 New Address of y= 3219901876 New Address of z= 3219901876 New Value of i= 3 New Value of j= 1.500000 New Value of k= c The new address of variable y and z are same. How can two variables have same address and et have different values? Note: I used gcc compiler on Ubuntu 9.04

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  • What should I do from here?

    - by Sunscreen
    Hi all, First of all, the site rocks. You can ask and get specific answers, mainly, for programming issues. This question is more generic. I studied Physics for my bachelors and Digital Image Processing for my masters, ended on September 2001. From then on I started working as a developer and software analyst. I worked, and working, witn C, C++, AIX OS, XP OS, MFC 4.21. I also did some data translations from EDIFACT to XML and viceversa. I trained users for the applications that I was running, I created documents (detailed design docs mainly), though most of the time I wrote, and I still write, code. Recently I applied for the best greek, graduate university for my MBA and they accepted me, starting on Jan 2011. I am a developer with no specific insight with the languages I work. I can be very productive with some subsets of the languages that the companies I worked for use, though this is a limited thing for a developer. If I get my MBA I can be a semi-businees analyst ot consultant, as I am now a semi-developer. The problem is that I can do some but not all in a designated working area. What should I do from here? Should I get my MBA and look forswitching industries? Should I read and excersise myself with new languages and frameworks? Should I be more focussed to the deligations from my current job (currently I work with MFC)? Just for the note, I am 32 and I feel I am wasting my time. I am not getting the best that I can get from is current position (and I work here for 3+ years). Thanks all, Sun

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  • Execute a block of database querys

    - by Nightmare
    I have the following task to complete: In my program a have a block of database querys or questions. I want to execute these questions and wait for the result of all questions or catch an error if one question fails! My Question object looks like this (simplified): public class DbQuestion(String sql) { [...] } [...] //The answer is just a holder for custom data... public void SetAnswer(DbAnswer answer) { //Store the answer in the question and fire a event to the listeners this.OnAnswered(EventArgs.Empty); } [...] public void SetError() { //Signal an Error in this query! this.OnError(EventArgs.Empty); } So every question fired to the database has a listener that waits for the parsed result. Now I want to fire some questions asynchronous to the database (max. 5 or so) and fire an event with the data from all questions or an error if only one question throws one! Which is the best or a good way to accomplish this task? Can I really execute more then one question parallel and stop all my work when one question throws an error? I think I need some inspiration on this... Just a note: I´m working with .NET framework 2.0

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  • C++ member template for boost ptr_vector

    - by Ivan
    Hi there, I'm trying to write a container class using boost::ptr_vector. Inside the ptr_vector I would like to include different classes. I'm trying to achieve that using static templates, but so far I'm not able to do that. For example, the container class is class model { private: boost::ptr_vector<elem_type> elements; public: void insert_element(elem_type *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; and what I'm trying to achieve is be able to use different elem_type classes. The code below doesn't satisfy my requirements: template <typename T>class model { private: boost::ptr_vector<T> elements; public: void insert_element(T *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; because when I initialize the container class I can only use one class as template: model <elem_type_1> model_thing; model_thing.insert_element(new elem_type_1) but not elem_type_2: model_thing.insert_element(new elem_type_2)//error, of course It is possible to do something like using templates only on the member? class model { private: template <typename T> boost::ptr_vector<T> elements; public: void insert_element(T *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; //wrong So I can call the insert_element on the specific class that I want to insert? Note that I do not want to use virtual members. Thanks!

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  • Unable to access SQL reporting services on shared site with Themes enabled

    - by Grant
    Hi, i am having some trouble with my IIS web server & SQL reporting services. At the current time my site is playing host to both reporting services (/reports & /reportserver) as well as my personal website (domain.com) Only just recently have i implemented a Theme on my site and as such i have placed a statement in my web.config file directing it to apply a certain theme in the following manner <pages styleSheetTheme="General"> Because of this when i try to access the report pages it failed telling me it couldnt find the Theme so what i did was locate the source files for the /reports & /reportserver directories and place the App_Theme folder in them hoping that would sort everything out. What i am getting now is the following error *Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. e.g. head runat="server" * Does anyone know how i can get around this? Do i have to hack the sql reporting aspx pages? Please note i do NOT want to remove the web.config declaration.

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  • CSS "Cover" - No scroll bars?

    - by Lynda
    I am using the cover property to create a background image that fills the background and resizes with the browser. But I run into one issue, the page has a lot of content and no scroll bars appear for me to scroll down! Here is the code I am using: body{ background: url(path.jpg) no-repeat center center fixed; -webkit-background-size: cover; -moz-background-size: cover; -o-background-size: cover; /* Cover for IE 7/8 */ filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(src='path.jpg', sizingMethod='scale'); -ms-filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(src='path.jpg', sizingMethod='scale'); /* End Cover for IE 7/8 */ background-size: cover; background-color: transparent !important; position:fixed; top: 0; left: 0; width: 100%; height:100%; max-width:2500px; max-height:1500px; z-index:1; } If I remove position:fixed; I get the scroll bars back but the background image disappears. What is the best way to tackle this and have both scroll bars and the background cover image? Note: I am using jQuery and would use a JS answer if it works (though I prefer a CSS only answer.)

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  • CSS to create curved corner between two elements?

    - by Tauren
    My UI has an unordered list on the left. When a list item is selected, a div appears on the right of it. I'd like to have a curved outer corner where the <li> and the <div> meet. See the white arrow in the image below. To extend the blue <li> to the edge of the <ul>, I'm planning to do something like this: li { right-margin: 2em; border-radius: 8px; } li.active { right-margin: 0; border-bottom-right-radius: 0; border-top-right-radius: 0; } Is there a better way to extend the <li> to the edge of the <ul>? Obviously, I'll include the webkit and mozilla border radius CSS as well. The main thing I'm unsure about is that outer corner underneath the bottom right corner of the active <li>. I have some ideas, but they seem like hacks. Any suggestions? NOTE that the <ul> is indicated in grey, but it would be white in the real design. Also, I'm planning to use Javascript to position the <div> correctly when an <li> is selected.

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  • How to efficiently implement a strategy pattern with spring ?

    - by Anth0
    I have a web application developped in J2EE 1.5 with Spring framework. Application contains "dashboards" which are simple pages where a bunch of information are regrouped and where user can modify some status. Managers want me to add a logging system in database for three of theses dashboards. Each dashboard has different information but the log should be traced by date and user's login. What I'd like to do is to implement the Strategy pattern kind of like this : interface DashboardLog { void createLog(String login, Date now); } // Implementation for one dashboard class PrintDashboardLog implements DashboardLog { Integer docId; String status; void createLog(String login, Date now){ // Some code } } class DashboardsManager { DashboardLog logger; String login; Date now; void createLog(){ logger.log(login,now); } } class UpdateDocAction{ DashboardsManager dbManager; void updateSomeField(){ // Some action // Now it's time to log dbManagers.setLogger = new PrintDashboardLog(docId, status); dbManagers.createLog(); } } Is it "correct" (good practice, performance, ...) to do it this way ? Is there a better way ? Note :I did not write basic stuff like constructors and getter/setter.

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  • How to detect if a certain range resides (partly) within an other range?

    - by Tom
    Lets say I've got two squares and I know their positions, a red and blue square: redTopX; redTopY; redBotX; redBotY; blueTopX; blueTopY; blueBotX; blueBotY; Now, I want to check if square blue resides (partly) within (or around) square red. This can happen in a lot of situations, as you can see in this image I created to illustrate my situation better: Note that there's always only one blue and one red square, I just added multiple so I didn't have to redraw 18 times. My original logic was simple, I'd check all corners of square blue and see if any of them are inside square red: if ( ((redTopX >= blueTopX) && (redTopY >= blueTopY) && (redTopX <= blueBotX) && (redTopY <= blueBotY)) || //top left ((redBotX >= blueTopX) && (redTopY >= blueTopY) && (redBotX <= blueBotX) && (redTopY <= blueBotY)) || //top right ((redTopX >= blueTopX) && (redBotY >= blueTopY) && (redTopX <= blueBotX) && (redBotY <= blueBotY)) || //bottom left ((redBotX >= blueTopX) && (redBotY >= blueTopY) && (redBotX <= blueBotX) && (redBotY <= blueBotY)) //bottom right ) { //blue resides in red } Unfortunately, there are a couple of flaws in this logic. For example, what if red surrounds blue (like in situation 1)? I thought this would be pretty easy but am having trouble coming up with a good way of covering all these situations.. can anyone help me out here? Regards, Tom

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  • Comparison of Java and .NET technologies/frameworks

    - by Paul Sasik
    I work in a shop that is a mix of mostly Java and .NET technologists. When discussing new solutions and architectures we often encounter impedance in trying to compare the various technologies, frameworks, APIs etc. in use between the two camps. It seems that each camp knows little about the other and we end up comparing apples to oranges and forgetting about the bushels. While researching the topic I found this: Java -- .Net rough equivalents It's a nice list but it's not quite exhaustive and is missing the key .NET 3.0 technologies and a few other tidbits. To complete that list: what are the near/rough equivalents (or a combination of technologies) in Java to the following in .NET? WCF WPF Silverlight = JavaFx WF = jBMP (Java Business Process Management) Generics Lambda expressions = lambdaJ project or Closures Linq (not Linq-to-SQL) ...have i missed anything else? Note that I omitted technologies that are already covered in the linked article. I would also like to hear feedback on whether the linked article is accurate. Thanks. (Will CW if requested.)

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • How do you prove a function works?

    - by glenn I.
    I've recently gotten the testing religion and have started primarily with unit testing. I code unit tests which illustrate that a function works under certain cases, specifically using the exact inputs I'm using. I may do a number of unit tests to exercise the function. Still, I haven't actually proved anything other than the function does what I expect it to do under the scenarios I've tested. There may be other inputs and scenarios I haven't thought of and thinking of edge cases is expensive, particularly on the margins. This is all not very satisfying to do me. When I start to think of having to come up with tests to satisfy branch and path coverage and then integration testing, the prospective permutations can become a little maddening. So, my question is, how can one prove (in the same vein of proving a theorem in mathematics) that a function works (and, in a perfect world, compose these 'proofs' into a proof that a system works)? Is there a certain area of testing that covers an approach where you seek to prove a system works by proving that all of its functions work? Does anybody outside of academia bother with an approach like this? Are there tools and techniques to help? I realize that my use of the word 'work' is not precise. I guess I mean that a function works when it does what some spec (written or implied) states that it should do and does nothing other than that. Note, I'm not a mathematician, just a programmer.

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  • How might a C# programmer approach writing a solution in javascript?

    - by Ben McCormack
    UPDATE: Perhaps this wasn't clear from my original post, but I'm mainly interested in knowing a best practice for how to structure javascript code while building a solution, not simply learning how to use APIs (though that is certainly important). I need to add functionality to a web site and our team has decided to approach the solution using a web service that receives a call from a JSON-formatted AJAX request from within the web site. The web service has been created and works great. Now I have been tasked with writing the javascript/html side of the solution. If I were solving this problem in C#, I would create separate classes for formatting the request, handling the AJAX request/response, parsing the response, and finally inserting the response somehow into the DOM. I would build properties and methods appropriately into each class, doing my best to separate functionality and structure where appropriate. However, I have to solve this problem in javascript. Firstly, how could I approach my solution in javascript in the way I would approach it from C# as described above? Or more importantly, what's a better way to approach structuring code in javascript? Any advice or links to helpful material on the web would be greatly appreciated. NOTE: Though perhaps not immediately relevant to this question, it may be worth noting that we will be using jQuery in our solution.

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • Application Code Redesign to reduce no. of Database Hits from Performance Perspective

    - by Rachel
    Scenario I want to parse a large CSV file and inserts data into the database, csv file has approximately 100K rows of data. Currently I am using fgetcsv to parse through the file row by row and insert data into Database and so right now I am hitting database for each line of data present in csv file so currently database hit count is 100K which is not good from performance point of view. Current Code: public function initiateInserts() { //Open Large CSV File(min 100K rows) for parsing. $this->fin = fopen($file,'r') or die('Cannot open file'); //Parsing Large CSV file to get data and initiate insertion into schema. while (($data=fgetcsv($this->fin,5000,";"))!==FALSE) { $query = "INSERT INTO dt_table (id, code, connectid, connectcode) VALUES (:id, :code, :connectid, :connectcode)"; $stmt = $this->prepare($query); // Then, for each line : bind the parameters $stmt->bindValue(':id', $data[0], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':code', $data[1], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectid', $data[2], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectcode', $data[3], PDO::PARAM_INT); // Execute the statement $stmt->execute(); $this->checkForErrors($stmt); } } I am looking for a way wherein instead of hitting Database for every row of data, I can prepare the query and than hit it once and populate Database with the inserts. Any Suggestions !!! Note: This is the exact sample code that I am using but CSV file has more no. of field and not only id, code, connectid and connectcode but I wanted to make sure that I am able to explain the logic and so have used this sample code here. Thanks !!!

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  • How do I insert null fields with Perl's DBD::Pg?

    - by User1
    I have a Perl script inserting data into Postgres according to a pipe delimited text file. Sometimes, a field is null (as expected). However, Perl makes this field into an empty string and the Postgres insert statement fails. Here's a snippet of code: use DBI; #Connect to the database. $dbh=DBI-connect('dbi:Pg:dbname=mydb','mydb','mydb',{AutoCommit=1,RaiseError=1,PrintError=1}); #Prepare an insert. $sth=$dbh-prepare("INSERT INTO mytable (field0,field1) SELECT ?,?"); while (<){ #Remove the whitespace chomp; #Parse the fields. @field=split(/\|/,$_); print "$_\n"; #Do the insert. $sth-execute($field[0],$field[1]); } And if the input is: a|1 b| c|3 EDIT: Use this input instead. a|1|x b||x c|3|x It will fail at b|. DBD::Pg::st execute failed: ERROR: invalid input syntax for integer: "" I just want it to insert a null on field1 instead. Any ideas? EDIT: I simplified the input at the last minute. The old input actually made it work for some reason. So now I changed the input to something that will make the program fail. Also note that field1 is a nullable integer datatype.

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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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  • Packages name conflicting with getters and setters?

    - by MrKishi
    Hello, folks. So, I've came across this compilation error a while ago.. As there's an easy fix and I didn't find anything relevant at the time, I eventually let it go. I just remembered it and I'm now wondering if this is really part of the language grammar (which I highly doubt) or if it's a compiler bug. I'm being purely curious about this -- it doesn't really affect development, but it would be nice to see if any of you have seen this already. package view { import flash.display.Sprite; public class Main extends Sprite { private var _view:Sprite = new Sprite(); public function Main() { this.test(); } private function test():void { trace(this.view.x, this.view.y); //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property x through a reference with static type view:Main. //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property y through a reference with static type view:Main. //Note that I got this due to the package name. //It runs just fine if I rename the package or getter. } public function get view():Sprite { return this._view; } } }

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  • Calling NSFetchedResultsController & CoreData experts

    - by JK
    I am having a few nagging issues with NSFetchedResultsController and CoreData, any of which I would be very grateful to get help on. Issue 1 - Updates: I update my store on a background thread which results in certain rows being delete, inserted or updated. The changes are merged into the context on the main thread using the "mergeChangesFromContextDidSaveNotification:" method. Inserts and deletes are updated properly, but updates are not (e.g. the cell label is not updated with the change) although I have confirmed the updates to come through the contextDidSaveNotifcation, exactly like the inserts and deleted. My current workaround is to temporarily change the staleness interval of the context to 0, but this does not seem like the ideal solution. Issue 2 - Deleting objects: My fetch batch size is 20. If an object is deleted by the background thread which is in the first 20 rows, everything works fine. But if the object is after the first 20 rows and the table is scrolled down, a "CoreData could not fulfill a fault" error is raised. I have tried resaving the context and reperforming the frc fetch - all to no avail. Note: In this scenario, the frc delegate method "didChangeObject...." is not called for the delete - I assume this is because the object in question had not been faulted at that time (as it is was outside the initial fetch range). But for some reason, the context still thinks the object is around, although is has been deleted from the store. Issue 3 - Deleting sections : When the deletion of a row leads to the deletion of a section, I have gotten the "invalid number of rows in section???" error. I have worked around this by removing the "reloadSection" line from the NSFetchedResultsChangeMove: section and replacing it with "[tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths...." This seems to work, but once again, I am not sure if this is the best solution. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you!

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  • Difference in calling redefined functions in F# and Clojure

    - by Michiel Borkent
    In F#: > let f x = x + 2;; val f : int -> int > let g x = f x;; val g : int -> int > g 10;; val it : int = 12 > let f x = x + 3;; val f : int -> int > g 10;; val it : int = 12 In Clojure: (defn f [x] (+ x 2)) (defn g [x] (f x)) (g 10) ;; => 12 (defn f [x] (+ x 3)) (g 10) ;; => 13 Note that in Clojure the most recent version of f gets called in the last line. In F# however still the old version of f is called. Why is this?

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