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  • ASP.Net radio button list

    - by c11ada
    hey all im trying to create a feedback form, i have a some mock code which looks similar to this for (int i = 1; i < 3; i++) { TableRow tr = new TableRow(); Table1.Rows.Add(tr); TableCell QuestionCell = new TableCell(); // get the text for the question and stick it in the cell QuestionCell.Text = "<b>"+i+".</b> Question " + i; tr.Cells.Add(QuestionCell); TableRow tr2 = new TableRow(); Table1.Rows.Add(tr2); // create a cell for the choice TableCell ChoicesCell = new TableCell(); ChoicesCell.Width = 1000; // align the choices on the left ChoicesCell.HorizontalAlign = HorizontalAlign.Left; tr2.Cells.Add(ChoicesCell); RadioButtonList rbl = new RadioButtonList(); rbl.ID = "Radio1_" + i; ChoicesCell.Controls.Add(rbl); rbl.Items.Add("1"); rbl.Items.Add("2"); rbl.Items.Add("3"); rbl.Items.Add("4"); } obviously this code doesn't mean anything, its just to experiment on how i can do this feedback form, the problem im having now is once some one presses the submit button (there's a submit button on the form) how do i go through the table and get text from the radio buttons the user has selected ?? the feedback from in created on page_load !! thanks for any help !!

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  • Dynamically overriding an abstract method in c#

    - by ng
    I have the following abstract class public abstract class AbstractThing { public String GetDescription() { return "This is " + GetName(); } public abstract String GetName(); } Now I would like to implement some new dynamic types from this like so. AssemblyName assemblyName = new AssemblyName(); assemblyName.Name = "My.TempAssembly"; AssemblyBuilder assemblyBuilder = Thread.GetDomain().DefineDynamicAssembly(assemblyName, AssemblyBuilderAccess.Run); ModuleBuilder moduleBuilder = assemblyBuilder.DefineDynamicModule("DynamicThings"); TypeBuilder typeBuilder = moduleBuilder.DefineType(someName + "_Thing", TypeAttributes.Public | TypeAttributes.Class, typeof(AbstractThing)); MethodBuilder methodBuilder = typeBuilder.DefineMethod("GetName", MethodAttributes.Public | MethodAttributes.ReuseSlot | MethodAttributes.Virtual | MethodAttributes.HideBySig, null, Type.EmptyTypes); ILGenerator msil = methodBuilder.GetILGenerator(); msil.EmitWriteLine(selectionList); msil.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); However when I try to instantiate via typeBuilder.CreateType(); I get an exception saying that there is no implementation for GetName. Is there something I am doing wrong here. I can not see the problem. Also, what would be the restrictions on instantiating such a class by name? For instance if I tried to instantiate via "My.TempAssembly.x_Thing" would it be availble for instantiation without the Type generated?

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  • Browser performance when combining image resizing with animated movement

    - by Steve Reichgut
    I have been tasked with the job of converting a Flash animation into HTML. The animation is rather complex and requires the need to move multiple images (9) from location (x,y) to location (x2,y2) while simultaneously increasing the image size from 215px wide to 930px wide. While doing some initial testing of this animation with just 1-2 images, I noticed a lot of choppiness in FF handling of this animation. To try and isolate the problem, I removed the dynamic resizing of the animation and just moved it from point A to point B. What was interesting was that I saw the same behavior when simply moving a 930px image that was resized down to 215px (via the CSS width or inline width properties). When I try the same animation with a different image that is actually 215px wide, it performed smoothly. I then tried the same animation with the original 930px wide image (with no resizing) and it performed well also. This makes me wonder if the browser is having to "resize" the image down to 215px each time it is moved which is causing the choppiness. Is this a correct assumption? If so, is there any other way to optimize the animation to allow for simultaneous image resizing and image movement? Notes: 1) One optimization I have done is to position the images absolutely in order to minimize the reflow process. 2) I have tested the animation using both jQuery and the fX animation framework.

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  • Android - attach data to views

    - by Leonti
    Hi! In my application I create dynamic rows in table much as in this tutorial: http://en.androidwiki.com/wiki/Dynamically_adding_rows_to_TableLayout for(int i = startDay; i < startDay + 7; i++){ /* Create a TextView to be the row-content. */ TextView day = new TextView(this); day.setText(Integer.toString(i)); day.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); day.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Log.i("Listener: ", "Click"); } So now when I click on a TextView I can register click event, but how do I determine which TextView was clicked? Not just an object which I get with an event but data like which day number was clicked? Ideally I would want to have data attached to every view I create dynamically. Something like data() method in Javascript jQuery. Right now I can see only 1 way to solve this - while creating TextView add id with data and when clicked - get id back and parse it to get my data. But it strikes me as ugly approach. Is there a way to attach arbitrary data to android views?

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  • Multiple jQuery UI buttons with same ID

    - by Mark Nolan
    There might be a really simple solution to this question, but i just don't see it! I have a page with a list of items. every item has the same jquery ui button (its inside a dialog and adds that item to a list). i identify the item via the parenting DIV holding the DB id. So far so good... The Problem is only the first button on the list works! The second, third etc. buttons don't show any reaction at all. The buttons all have the same id - as the list is dynamic and the same action is triggered with every click. Only the parenting ID changes. Heres the display part: <div id="2"> <div id="56"> <button id="add-audio-file" class="ui-button ui-state-default ui-corner-all">betty_2.mp3</button> </div> </div> <div id="2"> <div id="57"> <button id="add-audio-file" class="ui-button ui-state-default ui-corner-all">betty_3.mp3</button> </div> </div> And here comes the js Part: $('#add-audio-file').click(function() { assetID = $(this).parent('div').attr('id'); pageID = $(this).parent('div').parent('div').attr('id'); $.post( "modules/portfolio/serialize.php", {id : pageID, assetid : assetID, do : "add-audio-file"}, function(data, textStatus, xhr) { $('#dialog-add-audio').dialog('close'); } ); }); I am using jquery 1.4.2 and jquery ui 1.8rc3 Any ideas?

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  • Trying to create XPath from this HTML snippet

    - by doneright
    I have played for a while writing XPath but am unable to come up with exactly what I want. I'm trying to write XPath for link(click1 and click2 in code snippet below) based on known text(myidentity in code snippet below). Can someone take a look into and suggest possible solution? HTML code snippet: <div class="abc"> <a onclick="mycontroller.goto('xx','yy'); return false;" href="#"> <img src="images/controls/inheritance.gif"/> </a> myidentity <span> <a onclick="mycontroller.goto('xx','yy'); return false;" href="#">click1</a> <a onclick="mycontroller.goto('xx','yy'); return false;" href="#">click2</a> </span> </div>

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  • Audio output from Silverlight

    - by leecarter
    I'm looking to develop a Silverlight application which will take a stream of data (not an audio stream as such) from a web server. The data stream would then be manipulated to give audio of a certain format (G.711 a-Law for example) which would then be converted into PCM so that additional effects can be applied (such as boosting the volume). I'm OK up to this point. I've got my data, converted the G.711 into PCM but my problem is being able to output this PCM audio to the sound card. I basing a solution on some C# code intended for a .Net application but in Silverlight there is a problem with trying to take a copy of a delegate (function pointer) which will be the topic of a separate question once I've produced a simple code sample. So, the question is... How can I output the PCM audio that I have held in a data structure (currently an array) in my Silverlight to the user? (Please don't say write the byte values to a text box) If it were a MP3 or WMA file I would play it using a MediaElement but I don't want to have to make it into a file as this would put a crimp on applying dynamic effects to the audio. I've seen a few posts from people saying low level audio support is poor/non-existant in Silverlight so I'm open to any suggestions/ideas people may have.

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  • asp.net mvc Ajax.BeginForm clone.

    - by denis_n
    Hello, I'm using asp.net mvc ajax. The partial view is using Ajax.BeginForm (just an example): <div id="divPlaceholder"> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm(new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "divPlaceholder" })) { %> ... asp.net mvc controls and validation messages <input type="submit" value="Save" /> <% } %> </div> After update, if validation fails, the html is: <div id="divPlaceholder"> <div id="divPlaceholder"> ...form </div> </div> I don't like that the returned html is inserted, instead it should replace original div. Probably on POST I should not render <div> around form in partial view or render the div without id. What else can I do in this situation? I was thinking that maybe I should write a helper, something like Ajax.DivBeginForm, which will render form inside div on GET and hide the div on POST. Can somebody provide a good advice how to write such helper (Ajax.DivBeginForm)? I'd like it to work with using keyword: <% using (Ajax.DivBeginForm(new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "myId" })) { ... }%>

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  • How do you detect when the Flowplayer has started playing the video?

    - by Alex
    Hi. I'm using the Flowplayer Flash video player to play MP4 videos inside an AnythingSlider. I need to detect when the user has clicked the start button on the video so to stop the slideshow and allow the user to view the video. I've tried using this code just to get an alert box but it doesn't do anything (the code is at the end of the page, before the closing </body> tag): <script type="text/javascript"> $f("player","global/js/flowplayer/flowplayer-3.1.5.swf",{ onStart: function(clip) { alert('player started'); } }); </script> The Flowplayer is implemented as part of the html5media library, which automatically detects whether the browser can handle the <video> tag; if not, it replaces the anchor tag below with the Flowplayer: <video id="vid" width="372" height="209" poster="global/vid/bbq-poster.jpg" controls preload> <source id="videoSource" src="global/vid/BBQ_Festival.mp4" type='video/mp4; codecs="avc1.42E01E, mp4a.40.2"' onerror="fallback(this.parentNode)" ></source> <a href="global/vid/BBQ_Festival.mp4" style="display:block;width:372px;height:209px; padding-left:5px; " id="player"> </a> </video> So the $f() function call is in a JavaScript block at the end of the page, to give the player a chance to load correctly. What am I doing wrong? Thanks.

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  • Displaying windows-1252 text in a literal control

    - by GordonB
    I currently have an aspx page that has a placeholder on it. In the code-behind page i'm adding a literal control to the placeholder controls collection. The literal control just contains text/html read from a sql server database field. The only text character encoding i've used so far is UTF-8. I have the requirement for a specific page to use windows-1252 encoding. I've strapped this to the page, and browsers now recognise the proper encoding. <% Response.Charset= "windows-1252" %> My issue is that i have various german characters ( ö / ü / etc ) that aren't displaying correctly. As presumably they are still be written to the page in UTF-8 not in windows-1252. I'm looking at; Dim textEncoder = System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding(1252) Which seems to be more geared up to dealing with byte arrays than text. Do i have to change my text to a byte array then encode as windows-1252 then get the text back out again, or is there a simpler way of achieving what i'm after?

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  • Django forms: how to dynamically create ModelChoiceField labels

    - by Henri
    I would like to create dynamic labels for a forms.ModelChoiceField and I'm wondering how to do that. I have the following form class: class ProfileForm(forms.ModelForm): def __init__(self, data=None, ..., language_code='en', family_name_label='Family name', horoscope_label='Horoscope type', *args, **kwargs): super(ProfileForm, self).__init__(data, *args, **kwargs) self.fields['family_name'].label = family_name_label . . self.fields['horoscope'].label = horoscope_label self.fields['horoscope'].queryset = Horoscope.objects.all() class Meta: model = Profile family_name = forms.CharField(widget=forms.TextInput(attrs={'size':'80', 'class': 'contact_form'})) . . horoscope = forms.ModelChoiceField(queryset = Horoscope.objects.none(), widget=forms.RadioSelect(), empty_label=None) The default labels are defined by the unicode function specified in the Profile definition. However the labels for the radio buttons created by the ModelChoiceField need to be created dynamically. First I thought I could simply override ModelChoiceField as described in the Django documentation. But that creates static labels. It allows you to define any label but once the choice is made, that choice is fixed. So I think I need to adapt add something to init like: class ProfileForm(forms.ModelForm): def __init__(self, data=None, ..., language_code='en', family_name_label='Family name', horoscope_label='Horoscope type', *args, **kwargs): super(ProfileForm, self).__init__(data, *args, **kwargs) self.fields['family_name'].label = family_name_label . . self.fields['horoscope'].label = horoscope_label self.fields['horoscope'].queryset = Horoscope.objects.all() self.fields['horoscope'].<WHAT>??? = ??? Anyone having any idea how to handle this? Any help would be appreciated very much.

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  • Simplest PHP Routing framework .. ?

    - by David
    I'm looking for the simplest implementation of a routing framework in PHP, in a typical PHP environment (Running on Apache, or maybe nginx) .. It's the implementation itself I'm mostly interested in, and how you'd accomplish it. I'm thinking it should handle URL's, with the minimal rewriting possible, (is it really a good idea, to have the same entrypoint for all dynamic requests?!), and it should not mess with the querystring, so I should still be able to fetch GET params with $_GET['var'] as you'd usually do.. So far I have only come across .htaccess solutions that puts everything through an index.php, which is sort of okay. Not sure if there are other ways of doing it. How would you "attach" what URL's fit to what controllers, and the relation between them? I've seen different styles. One huge array, with regular expressions and other stuff to contain the mapping. The one I think I like the best is where each controller declares what map it has, and thereby, you won't have one huge "global" map, but a lot of small ones, each neatly separated. So you'd have something like: class Root { public $map = array( 'startpage' => 'ControllerStartPage' ); } class ControllerStartPage { public $map = array( 'welcome' => 'WelcomeControllerPage' ); } // Etc ... Where: 'http://myapp/' // maps to the Root class 'http://myapp/startpage' // maps to the ControllerStartPage class 'http://myapp/startpage/welcome' // maps to the WelcomeControllerPage class 'http://myapp/startpage/?hello=world' // Should of course have $_GET['hello'] == 'world' What do you think? Do you use anything yourself, or have any ideas? I'm not interested in huge frameworks already solving this problem, but the smallest possible implementation you could think of. I'm having a hard time coming up with a solution satisfying enough, for my own taste. There must be something pleasing out there that handles a sane bootstrapping process of a PHP application without trying to pull a big magic hat over your head, and force you to use "their way", or the highway! ;)

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  • how can a Win32 App plugin load its DLL in its own directory

    - by Jean-Denis Muys
    My code is a plugin for a specific Application, written in C++ using Visual Studio 8. It uses two DLL from an external provider. Unfortunately, my plugin fails to start because the DLLs are not found (I put them in the same directory as the plugin itself). When I manually move or copy the DLLs to the host application directory, then the plugin loads fine. This moving was deemed unacceptably cumbersome for the end user, and I am looking for a way for my plugin to load its DLLs transparently. What can I do? Relevant details: the host Application plugins are located in a directory mandated by the host application. That directory is not in the DLL search path and I don't control it. The plugin is itself packaged as a subdirectory of the plugin directory, holding the plugin code itself, but also any resource associated with the plugin (eg images, configuration files…). I control what's inside that subdirectory, called a "bundle", but not where it's located. the common plugin installation idiom for that App is for the end user to copy the plugin bundle to the plugin directory. This plugin is a port from the Macintosh version of the plugin. On the Mac there is no issue because each binary contains its own dynamic library search path, which I set as I needed to for my plugin binary. To set that on the Mac simply involves a project setting in the Xcode IDE. This is why I would hope for something similar in Visual Studio, but I could not find anything relevant. Moreover, Visual Studio's help was anything but, and neither was Google. A possible workaround would be for my code to explicitly tell Windows where to find the DLL, but I don't know how, and in any case, since my code is not even started, it hasn't got the opportunity to do so. As a Mac developer, I realize that I may be asking for something very elementary. If such is the case, I apologize, but I have run out of hair to pull out.

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  • Problems initializing a final variable in Java

    - by froadie
    I keep running into slight variations of a problem in Java and it's starting to get to me, and I can't really think of a proper way to get around it. I have an object property that is final, but dynamic. That is, I want the value to be constant once assigned, but the value can be different each runtime. So I declare the class level variable at the beginning of the class - say private final FILE_NAME;. Then, in the constructor, I assign it a value - say FILE_NAME = buildFileName(); The problem begins when I have code in the buildFileName() method that throws an exception. So I try something like this in the constructor: try{ FILE_NAME = buildFileName(); } catch(Exception e){ ... System.exit(1); } Now I have an error - "The blank final field FILE_NAME may not have been initialized." This is where I start to get slightly annoyed at Java's strict compiler. I know that this won't be a problem because if it gets to the catch the program will exit... But the compiler doesn't know that and so doesn't allow this code. If I try to add a dummy assignment to the catch, I get - "The final field FILE_NAME may already have been assigned." I clearly can't assign a default value before the try-catch because I can only assign to it once. Any ideas...?

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  • Binding a Value from a View-Model to the View-Model of a child User Control in Silverlight?

    - by andrej351
    Hi there, So i have a UserControl for one of my Views and have another 'child' UserControl inside that. The outer 'parent' UserControl has a Collection on its View-Model and a Grid control on it to display a list of Items. I want to place another UserControl inside this UserControl to display a form representing the details of one Item. The outer / parent UserControl's View-Model already has a property on it to hold the currently selected Item and i would like to bind this to a DependancyProperty on the inner / child UserControl. I would then like to bind that DependancyProperty to a property on the child UserControl's View-Model. I can then set the DependancyProperty once in XAML with a binding expression and have the child UserControl do all its work in its View-Model like it should. The code i have looks like this.. Parent UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsListView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel}"> <!-- Grid Control here... --> <ItemDetailsView Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel.SelectedItem}" /> </UserControl> Child UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemDetailsView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel}" ItemDetailsView.Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel.Item, Mode=TwoWay}"> <!-- Form controls here... --> </UserControl> The selected Item is bound to the DependancyProperty fine. However from the DependancyProperty to the child View-Model does not. I've used this sort of apporach in a WPF app without problems. It appears to be a situation where there are two concurrent bindings which need to work but with the same target for two sources. Why won't the second (in the child UserControl) binding work?? Is there a way to acheive the behaviour I'm after?? Cheers.

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  • ASP.NET RangeValidator can't do even the most basic math !?!?!?

    - by marc_s
    I'm having an issue with my ASP.NET RangeValidator controls. I want to allow users to enter a discount amount, and this amount must be negative (< $0.00). I want to verify that the amount entered in a textbox is a negative value, so I have this in my page markup: <asp:TextBox ID="tbxDiscount" runat="server" /> <asp:RangeValidator ID="rvDiscount" runat="server" ControlToValidate="tbxDiscount" MinimumValue="0.0" MaximumValue="0.0" EnableClientScript="true" ErrorMessage="Please enter a negative value for a discount" /> and I attempt to set the MinimumValue dynamically in my code before the page gets rendered - to the negative equivalent of my item price. So if the item is $69, I want to set the minimum value to - $69: rvDiscount.MinimumValue = (-1.0m * Price).ToString(); Trouble is: I keep getting this error message: The maximum value 0.0 cannot be less than the minimum value -69.00 for rvDiscount WTF?!?!??! Where I come from, -69 $ IS less than $0 ...... so what's the problem? And more importantly: what is the solution to the problem??

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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • Set Custom ASP.NET UserControl variables when its in a Repeater

    - by tnriverfish
    <%@ Register Src="~/Controls/PressFileDownload.ascx" TagName="pfd" TagPrefix="uc1" %> <asp:Repeater id="Repeater1" runat="Server" OnItemDataBound="RPTLayer_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="LBLHeader" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Label> <asp:Image ID="IMGThumb" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Image> <asp:Label ID="LBLBody" Runat="server" class="layerBody"></asp:Label> <uc1:pfd ID="pfd1" runat="server" ShowContainerName="false" ParentContentTypeId="55" /> <asp:Literal ID="litLayerLinks" runat="server"></asp:Literal> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label lbl; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal lit; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Image img; System.Web.UI.WebControls.HyperLink hl; System.Web.UI.UserControl uc; I need to set the ParentItemID variable for the uc1:pdf listed inside the repeater. I thought I should be able to find uc by looking in the e.Item and then setting it somehow. I think this is the part where I'm missing something. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes["ParentItemID"] = i.ItemID.ToString(); } Any thoughts would be appreciated. Also tried this with similar results... when I debug inside my usercontrol (pfd1) the parameters I am trying to set have not been set. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes.Add("ContainerID", _cid.ToString()); uc.Attributes.Add("ParentItemId", i.ItemID.ToString()); }

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  • Are there solutions for streamlining the update of legacy code in multiple places?

    - by ccomet
    I'm working in some old code which was originally designed for handling two different kinds of files. I was recently tasked with adding a new kind of file to this code. Most of my problems were solved by filling out an extensive XML file with a new entry that handled everything from what lists were named to how the file is written in plural lower case. But this ended up being insufficient, as there were maybe 50 different places in 24 different code files where I had to update hardcoded switch-statements that only branched for the original two file types. Unfortunately there is no consistency in this; there are methods which operate half from the XML file, and half off of hardcode. Some of the files which look like they would operate off of the XML file don't, and some that I would expect that I'd need to update the hardcode don't need it. So the only way to find the majority of these is to run through testing the whole system when only part of it is operational, finding that one step to fix (when I'm lucky that error logging actually tells me what is going on), and then running the whole thing again. This wastes time testing the parts of the code which are already confirmed to work, time better spent testing the new parts I have to add on top of it all. It's a hassle and a half, and to my luck I can expect that I will have to add yet another new kind of file in the near future. Are there any solutions out there which can aid in this kind of endeavour? Something which I can input some parameters of current features, document what points in a whole code project actually need to be updated, and run something nice the next time I need to add a new feature to the code. It needn't even be fully automated, something that'll help me navigate straight to the specific points in everything and maybe even record what kind of parameters need to be loaded. Doubt it matters specifically, but the code is comprised of ASP.NET pages, some ASP.NET controls, hundreds of C# code files, and a handful of additional XML files. It's all currently in a couple big Visual Studio 2008 projects.

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  • Read file:// URLs in IE XMLHttpRequest

    - by Dan Fabulich
    I'm developing a JavaScript application that's meant to be run either from a web server (over http) or from the file system (on a file:// URL). As part of this code, I need to use XMLHttpRequest to load files in the same directory as the page and in subdirectories of the page. This code works fine ("PASS") when executed on a web server, but doesn't work ("FAIL") in Internet Explorer 8 when run off the file system: <html><head> <script> window.onload = function() { var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhr.open("GET", window.location.href, false); xhr.send(null); if (/TestString/.test(xhr.responseText)) { document.body.innerHTML="<p>PASS</p>"; } } </script> <body><p>FAIL</p></body> Of course, at first it fails because no scripts can run at all on the file system; the user is prompted a yellow bar, warning that "To help protect your security, Internet Explorer has restricted this webpage from running scripts or ActiveX controls that could access your computer." But even once I click on the bar and "Allow Blocked Content" the page still fails; I get an "Access is Denied" error on the xhr.open call. This puzzles me, because MSDN says that "For development purposes, the file:// protocol is allowed from the Local Machine zone." This local file should be part of the Local Machine Zone, right? How can I get code like this to work? I'm fine with prompting the user with security warnings; I'm not OK with forcing them to turn off security in the control panel. EDIT: I am not, in fact, loading an XML document in my case; I'm loading a plain text file (.txt).

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  • Stale connection with Pheanstalk

    - by token47
    I'm using beanstalkd to offload some work to other machines. The setup is a bit unusual, the server is on the internet (public ip) but the consumers are behind adsl lines on some peoples homes. So there is a linux server as client going out through a dynamic ip and connecting to the server to get a job. It's all PHP and I'm using pheanstalk library. Everything runs smoothly for some time, but then the adsl changes the IP (every 24h hours the provider forces a disconnect-reconnect) the client just hangs, never to go out of "reserve". I thought that putting a timeout on the reserve would help it, but it didn't. As it seems, the client issues a command and blocks, it never checks the timeout. It just issues a reserve-with-timeout (instead of a simple reserve) and it is the servers responsibility to return a TIME_OUT as the timeout occurs. The problem is, the connection is broken (but the TCP/IP doesn't know about that yet until any of the sides try to talk to the other side) and if the client blocked reading, it will never return. The library seems to have support for some kind of timeouts locally (for example when trying to connect to server), but it does not seem to contemplate this scenario. How could I detect the stale connection and force a reconnect? Is there some kind of keepalive on the protocol (and on the pheanstalk itself)? Thanks!

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  • Difference in BackgroundWorker thread access in VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

    - by Jonners
    Here's an interesting one - in VS2005 / VS2008 running against .NET 2.0 / .NET 3.0 / .NET 3.5, a BackgroundWorker thread may not directly update controls on a WinForms form that initiated that thread - you'll get a System.InvalidOperationException out of the BackgroundWorker stating "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'thecontrol' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on". I remember hitting this back in 2004 or so when I first started writing .NET WinForms apps with background threads. There are several ways around the problem - this is not a question asking for that answer. I've been told recently that this kind of operation is now allowed when written in VS2010 / .NET 4.0. This seems unlikely to me, since this kind of object access restriction has always been a fairly fundamental part of thread-safe programming. Allowing a BackgroundWorker thread direct access to objects owned not by itself but by its parent UI form seems contrary to that principle. A trawl through the .NET 4.0 docs hasn't revealed any obvious changes that could account for this behaviour. I don't have VS2010 / .NET 4.0 to test this out - does anyone who has access to that toolset know for sure whether the model has changed to allow that kind of thread interaction? I'd like to either take advantage of it in future, or deploy the cluestick. ;)

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  • Color picker does not give gradient appearance

    - by ykaratoprak
    i added below codes. But it generates to me 16 color. but i need 16 color between "red" and "khaki". i don't need gradient flow. My colors look like gradient flow. My colors must not closer to each other. Because i will use this codes return values in chart columns. they are too near each other. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Form form = new Form(); Color start = Color.Red, end = Color.Khaki; for (int i = 0; i < 16; i++) { int r = Interpolate(start.R, end.R, 15, i), g = Interpolate(start.G, end.G, 15, i), b = Interpolate(start.B, end.B, 15, i); Button button = new Button(); button.Dock = DockStyle.Top; button.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(r, g, b); form.Controls.Add(button); button.BringToFront(); } Application.Run(form); } static int Interpolate(int start, int end, int steps, int count) { float s = start, e = end, final = s + (((e - s) / steps) * count); return (int)final; } }

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  • Why does my App.Config codebase not help .NET locate my assembly?

    - by pkolodziej
    I have the following client application and its corresponding config file: namespace Chapter9 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { AppDomain.CurrentDomain.ExecuteAssembly("AssemblyPrivate.exe"); } } } <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="file://C:\Users\djpiter\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\70536\AssemblyPrivate\bin\Debug\AssemblyPrivate.exe"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> The AssemblyPrivate.exe does not have a public key, nor is it located in the GAC. As far as I know, the runtime should parse the app.config file before looking for an assembly in the client app directory. The unhandled exception (wrapped for readability) is: Unhandled Exception: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'file:///C:\Users\djpiter\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\70536\Chapter9\bin\Debug\AssemblyPrivate.exe' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. Why it is not working? I need to use dynamic binding (not static). Kind Regards, PK

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  • In CSS, how to not float a 300px wide Div to the next line?

    - by Jian Lin
    Say, there is a bar that is styled at the bottom of the viewport, using position: fixed; bottom: 0; left: 0; width: 100%; height 50px; overflow: hidden and then there are 4 Divs inside it, each one floated to the left. Each Div is about 300px wide or can be more (depending on the content) Now, when the window is 1200 pixel wide, and we see all 4 Divs, but when the window is resize to be 1180 pixel wide (just 20 pixels less), then the whole 300px wide Div will disappear, because it is "floated" to the next line. So how can this be made so that, the Div will stay there and showing 280px of itself, rather than totally disappear? By the way, white-space: nowrap won't work as that probably has to do with not wrapping inline content. I was thinking of putting another Div inside this Div, having a fixed width of 1200px or 2000px, so that all Divs will float on the same level in this inner Div, and the outer Div will cut it off with the overflow: hidden. But this seems more like a hack... since the wide of all those Divs can be dynamic, and setting a fixed width of 1200px or 2000px seems like too much of a hack.

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