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  • How to publish an ASP.NET MVC website

    - by Luke Puplett
    Hello -- I've a site that I'd like to publish to a co-located live server. I'm finding this simple task quite hard. My problems begin with the Web Deploy tool (1.1) giving me a 401 Unauthorized as the adminstrator because port :8172 comes up in the errors and this port is blocked - but the documentation says "The default ListenURL is http://+:80/MsDeployAgentService"! I'm loathe to open another port and I've little patience these days so I thought bu66er it, I'll create a Web Deploy package and import it into IIS on the server over RDP. I notice first that Visual Studio doesn't use a dialog box to gather settings, or use my Publish profiles but seems to use a tab in the project properties, although I think these are ignored when importing the package anyway? I'm now sitting in the import wizard with Application Path and Connection String. I've cleared the conn string as I think this is for some ASP stuff I don't use but when I enter nothing in the Application Path, the wizard barks at me saying that basically I'm a weirdo because most people publish to folders beneath the root site. Now, I want my site to be site.com/Home/About and not site.com/subfolder/Home/About and I think being an MVC routed site that a subfolder will introduce other headaches. Should I go ahead and use the root? Finally, I also want to publish a web service to www.site.com/services/soap which I think IIS can handle. While typing this question, Amazon have delivered my IIS 7 Resource Kit, and I've been scouring the internet but actually I'm getting more confused. Comment here seems to show consensus opinion that Publish isn't for production sites and that real men roll their own. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/260525/asp-net-website-publish-vs-web-deployment-project ...I guess this was pre- Web Deployment Tool era? I'm going to experiment on a spare box for now but any assistance is welcome. Luke

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  • iPhone SDK 3.2 Universal App issue with .xib files

    - by Wesley
    Hello! So I am finding this process of universalizing my iPhone app to be a big headache! Am I alone in this? I sure hope not. Anyway, my question is regarding the .xib files for my universal application. I had my iPhone OS 3.1 running app all ready to make the universal switch. I went up to Project/Upgrade Current Target for iPad/Universal Application and it supposedly made my app have all the necessary iPad settings... So when I went to test it in 3.2 SDk, the screen was big, meaning the toolbar was sized correctly for the iPad, but the image that was being displayed was for the OS 3.1, meaning it was way small. So I then went to the iPad Source folder, changed the name of my MainViewController.xib file to MainViewController-iPad.xib, and inserted the bigger image I had prepared for the iPad, and it still didn't work correctly. Then, I went into my MainViewController.m file and changed the nib reference from MainViewController to MainViewController-iPad, and it worked! My only concern is that being that I had to "hard-code" it in, or force it to read from my -iPad file, is that going to present issues for the OS3.1 version? I can't go back and test the 3.1 version now for some reason, the option was removed from the Active SDK menu... If there is anyone out there that has experienced this, or has insight into what I am doing wrong, your help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you!

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  • FindBugs controversial description

    - by Tom Brito
    Am I understanding it wrong, or is the description wrong? Equals checks for noncompatible operand (EQ_CHECK_FOR_OPERAND_NOT_COMPATIBLE_WITH_THIS) This equals method is checking to see if the argument is some incompatible type (i.e., a class that is neither a supertype nor subtype of the class that defines the equals method). For example, the Foo class might have an equals method that looks like: public boolean equals(Object o) { if (o instanceof Foo) return name.equals(((Foo)o).name); else if (o instanceof String) return name.equals(o); else return false; This is considered bad practice, as it makes it very hard to implement an equals method that is symmetric and transitive. Without those properties, very unexpected behavoirs are possible. From: http://findbugs.sourceforge.net/bugDescriptions.html#EQ_CHECK_FOR_OPERAND_NOT_COMPATIBLE_WITH_THIS The description says that the Foo class might have an equals method like that, and after it says that "This is considered bad practice". I'm not getting the "right way".. How should the following method be to be right? @Override public boolean equals(Object obj) { if (obj instanceof DefaultTableModel) return model.equals((DefaultTableModel)obj); else return false; }

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  • Enum Naming Convention - Plural

    - by o.k.w
    I'm asking this question despite having read similar but not exactly what I want at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/495051/c-naming-convention-for-enum-and-matching-property I found I have a tendency to name enums in plural and then 'use' them as singular, example: public enum EntityTypes { Type1, Type2 } public class SomeClass { /* some codes */ public EntityTypes EntityType {get; set;} } Of course it works and this is my style, but can anyone find potential problem with such convention? I do have an "ugly" naming with the word "Status" though: public enum OrderStatuses { Pending, Fulfilled, Error, Blah, Blah } public class SomeClass { /* some codes */ public OrderStatuses OrderStatus {get; set;} } Additional Info: Maybe my question wasn't clear enough. I often have to think hard when naming the variables of the my defined enum types. I know the best practice, but it doesn't help to ease my job of naming those variables. I can't possibly expose all my enum properties (say "Status") as "MyStatus". My question: Can anyone find potential problem with my convention described above? It is NOT about best practice. Question rephrase: Well, I guess I should ask the question this way: Can someone come out a good generic way of naming the enum type such that when used, the naming of the enum 'instance' will be pretty straightforward?

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  • jQuery not and classes

    - by Giles B
    Hi Guys, I have 2 anchor links (a.selector) and when one is clicked it has a class applied to it of 'active-arrow' and the click also removes the class of the same name from the other anchor as well as lowering the opacity to 0.2. I then want to have a fade effect when the user hovers over the anchor that doesn't have 'active-arrow' applied to it so that it goes to full opacity when mouseenters and back to 0.2 when mouseleaves. The problem im having is that both .not and :not don't seem to be working as expected, the hover effect works but if I click on the anchor whilst hovering the 'active-arrow' class is applied but when mouseleaves the opacity is faded down to 0.2 again even though the 'active-arrow' class is applied. Also the hover then doesn't work for the other a link which has had 'active-arrow' removed. Bit of a hard one to explain so heres some code that hopefully helps a bit. *//If a.selector doesn't have the class 'active-arrow' then run the hoverFade function* $("a.selector").not(".active-arrow").hoverFade(); //Functions for first element $('a.selector-1').click(function () { $('a.selector-2').removeClass('active-arrow'); //Remove background image from corresponding element $('ul#storage-items-2').fadeOut(1200).addClass('hide'); //Fade out then hide corresponding list $(this).addClass('active-arrow', 'fast'); //Add background image to current element $('ul#storage-items-1').removeClass('hide').fadeIn(1800); //Unhide and fade in the list $('a.selector-2').fadeTo(500, 0.2); //Fade corresponding element $(this).fadeTo(800, 1);//Fade this element to full opacity }); I only included the code for teh first anchor (a.selector-1) as the code for the second anchor is identical but just changes the class names to a.selector-2. Also the hoverFade function is in a seperate file so we can re-use it. jQuery.fn.hoverFade = function() { return this.each(function(){ $(this).hover( function () { $(this).fadeTo(500, 0.8); }, function () { $(this).fadeTo(500, 0.2); }); }); } Each anchor link fades in and fades out a UL as well. Any help is most appreciated Thanks Giles

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  • able to get the events in fullcalender, but not able to sync these events with time

    - by Ubaid
    i just loved the fullcalendar and wanted to implement it in a small application, everythin worked OK. i am able to get the events from my database through json to the front end. but all events are being listed as "ALL-DAY" events itself. not able to figure out why.. here is the screenshot for the same. any ideas what is going wrong..? i am using asp.net and c#. i have already tried sending the start and end dates in the ToString(), ToShortDateString(), ToString("s"), ToLongDateString(), ToUniversalTime(). nothing seems to working for me at the moment. i tried hard coding and sendin the data too. sample json of my data [{ "id": "2", "title": "Event2", "start": "1274171700", "end": "1274175600" }, { "id": "1", "title": "Event1", "start": "5/18/2010 16:30:00", "end": "5/18/2010 19:30:00" }, { "id": "3", "title": "Event3", "start": "5/18/2010 2:05:00 PM", "end": "5/18/2010 3:10:00 PM" }, { "id": "4", "title": "Event4", "start": "5/18/2010", "end": "5/18/2010" }, { "id": "5", "title": "Event5", "start": "2010-05-18T14:05:00", "end": "2010-05-18T15:10:00" }] all data above has different formats of dates, and at the moment nothing seems to be working. fullcalender accepts the day part fine, but not the time part. not sure why. can anybody help?

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  • Detecting which MCUs to connect on an incoming conference

    - by Fábio Batista
    Hello, SO. I'm working with the OCS UCCAPI, developing a custom OCS client. I'm currently having a hard time detecting what "kind" of Conference my client is being invited to. Using the Office Communicator client, I can start "IM conferences" (by inviting more than 1 person and selecting "start a IM conversation") or "video conferences" (by selecting more than 1 person and selecting "start a video call"). The Office Communicator client, on the invitees' end, starts correctly the appropriate session (just IM, just Video or IM+Video). However, when receiving the conference invite on my custom client, there's no data about the kind of session I'm being invited. I need this information, in order to make a decision whether or not to connect to the AV MCU and capture/show video. I've tried already: When handling _IUccSessionManagerEvents.OnIncomingSession, parse the RemoteSessionDescription property on the UccIncomingInvitationEvent object: no luck, the only data about the conference modality is an element on the XML about the IM being enabled or not (<im available="true"> or <im available="false">), but nothing about the session having video available or not. When handling _IUccConferenceSessionEvents.OnEnter, check the Media property on the UccConferenceSession. Don't work, all media types are present (MESSAGE, AUDIO, VIDEO, DATA e TELEPHONY), regardless of the type of conference I'm being invited. Also when handling _IUccConferenceSessionEvents.OnEnter, check the Entities collection on the UccConferenceView object, to check which MCUs are enabled for this conference. Don't work either, all MUCs are listed as available (IM, AV, DATA and CONTROL), regardless of the type of conference I'm being invited. I'm running out of ideas. Some references I'm using: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb664307.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd170830.aspx Thanks a lot.

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  • Use UdpClient with IPv4 and IPv6?

    - by mazzzzz
    A little while ago I created a class to deal with my LAN networking programs. I recently upgraded one of my laptops to windows 7 and relized that windows 7 (or at least the way I have it set up) only supports IPv6, but my desktop is still back in the Windows xp days, and only uses IPv4. The class I created uses the UdpClient class, and is currently setup to only work with IPv4.. Is there a way to modify my code to allow sending and receiving of IPv6 and IPv4 packets?? It would be hard to scrap the classes code, a lot of my programs rely on this class. I would like to keep the class as close to its original state, so I don't need to modify my older programs, only switch out the old class for the updated one. Thanks for any and all help, Max Send: using System.Net.Sockets;UdpClient tub = new UdpClient (); tub.Connect ( new IPEndPoint ( ToIP, ToPort ) ); UdpState s = new UdpState (); s.client = tub; s.endpoint = new IPEndPoint ( ToIP, ToPort ); tub.BeginSend ( data, data.Length, new AsyncCallback ( SendCallBack ),s); private void SendCallBack ( IAsyncResult result ) { UdpClient client = (UdpClient)( (UdpState)( result.AsyncState ) ).client; IPEndPoint endpoint = (IPEndPoint)( (UdpState)( result.AsyncState ) ).endpoint; client.EndSend ( result ); } Receive: UdpClient tub = new UdpClient (ReceivePort); UdpState s = new UdpState (); s.client = tub; s.endpoint = new IPEndPoint ( ReceiveIP, ReceivePort ); s.callback = cb; tub.BeginReceive ( new AsyncCallback ( receivedPacket ), s ); public void receivedPacket (IAsyncResult result) { UdpClient client = (UdpClient)( (UdpState)( result.AsyncState ) ).client; IPEndPoint endpoint = (IPEndPoint)( (UdpState)( result.AsyncState ) ).endpoint; Byte[] receiveBytes = client.EndReceive ( result, ref endpoint ); ReceivedPacket = new Packet ( receiveBytes ); client.Close(); //Do what ever with the packets now }

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  • Which itch does a gravatar scratch?

    - by WizardOfOdds
    This is a very serious question: I've seen lots of threads here about gravatars but I couldn't find and answer to this question: what computer identification/authentication (?) problem, if any, are gravatars supposed to solve? Neither the Wikipedia entry nor the official website are very useful. The official website mentions a "globally unique" picture. Unique in what sense? As far as I can see it's only the hash that is unique: two persons can have two pictures looking very similar if not identical. Note that this question is not about which problems do gravatars unarguably cause (like leaking 10% of the stackoverflow.com accounts email addresses like discussed here : "gravatars can leak email adresses" ) but about which authentication (?) problems, if any, are gravatars supposed to solve? Is the goal just to have a cool/funny/cute icon and save bandwith by having it stored on a remote website or is there more to it, like serving a real authentication purpose which I'd be completely missing? Note that I've got nothing against them and find them rather cool, but I'm just having a hard time figuring out what their purpose is and if I should care or not about them in the webapps I'm developping.

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  • Help with route rewrite in asp.net mvc

    - by NachoF
    Im having a really hard time understanding routing. Please help me with this problem. Each of my controllers have these three actions right now Users have Index, Create and Edit Locations have Index, Create and Edit Companies have Index, Create and Edit The thing is, it all gets done through ajax. I have jquery ui tabs with two tabs for each, Create and Edit So the Index method is always the one that gets called for action links. and inside this main view is that you can call(by clicking on the tab icon) the other methods that return an ajax view that gets output into the jqeury tab (I hope thats clear) I have a sidebar with links to the controllers. and to specific methods of these controllers. The wanted behavior is that it should actually go into the Index Method and then with some logic autoload the wanted tab. It all works just fine right now. But my urls are horrible. To get to the create method for Users I have to go this url http://localhost/Users/Index/1 http://localhost/Users/Index/2 I want the behavior of these links to be remapped to these links http://localhost/Users/Create http://localhost/Users/Edit So even though it seems as if you are calling the Create method of the controller you are actualling always calling the Index Method.... (I know how to transform Create into "1" and Edit into two, so dont worry about that part Hope thats clear. Thanks in advance Edit: Just realized that this might not be possible cause then when I actually need to call the methods (with ajax) it wont know what to do.... am I correct?

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  • JNI problem when calling a native library that loads another native library

    - by TheEnemyOfQuality
    I've got a bit of an odd problem. I have a project in C++ that's basically a wrapper for a third party DLL like this: MyLibrary --loads DLL_A ----loads DLL_B I load DLL_A with LoadLibrary(), wrap several of its functions and generate my own DLL. I've tested this in a C++ project and a C# project. Both do everything they're supposed to do: load DLL_A, make a couple of function calls, and indirectly load DLL_B. The problem is when I build a DLL for java and make the calls through JNI. Everything runs like it should (no java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError), but when it comes time for DLL_A to load DLL_B it doesn't work. From debugging, the loading of DLL_B happens on a function call in DLL_A that takes a callback. When called from Java, this function call seems to fail (the function pointer is fine and the actual call goes off without a hitch), and I get an odd pop-up window saying DLL_B failed to load, and my program is left waiting for a callback that never happens. I can explicitly load DLL_B just fine (both from Java and from C++) and I've checked every possible path, path variable, and tried placing the dlls everywhere to see if it could be looking somewhere funny. I'm pretty sure it's not a path problem. Ultimately I don't know how DLL_A is loading DLL_B and I can't figure out why everything works fine in C++ and C#, but not in Java. I'm absolutely flummoxed. It could still be something specific to my setup (although I've looked as hard as I can look), but I'm throwing this scenario out there to see if anyone has run into a similar problem. -Dave

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  • storing user info/pass in web.config authentication

    - by Tomaszewski
    Hello, I am trying to write a simple internal app with some simple authentication. I'm also trying to make this quick and learn about the forms authentication via web.config. So i have my authentication working if I hard code my 'user name' and 'password' into C# code and do a simple conditional. However, I'm having a tough time storing the a user/pass to be checked against in the web.config file. The MSDN manual says to put this into the web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="login.aspx"> <credentials passwordFormat="SHA1"> <user name="user1" password="27CE4CA7FBF00685AF2F617E3F5BBCAFF7B7403C" /> <user name="user2" password="D108F80936F78DFDD333141EBC985B0233A30C7A" /> <user name="user3" password="7BDB09781A3F23885CD43177C0508B375CB1B7E9"/> </credentials> </forms> </authentication> However, the minute I add 'credentials' into the 'authentication' section, I get this error: Server Error in '/' Application. Configuration Error Description: An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Unrecognized element 'credentials'. Source Error: Line 44: <authentication mode="Forms"> Line 45: <forms loginUrl="login.aspx" /> Line 46: <credentials> Line 47: Line 48: </credentials> Source File: C:\inetpub\wwwroot\asp\projects\passwordCatalog\passwordCatalog\web.config Line: 46 So my question is, how and where would I add the following in the web.config file? <credentials passwordFormat="SHA1"> <user name="johndoe" password="mypass123" /> </credentials>

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  • jquery ui autocomplete problem

    - by Roger
    Hi, i've got a select box containing countries, and when one is selected, i want my autocomplete data for the city field to load via ajax. here's my code: // Sets up the autocompleter depending on the currently // selected country $(document).ready(function() { var cache = getCities(); $('#registration_city_id').autocomplete( { source: cache } ); cache = getCities(); // update the cache array when a different country is selected $("#registration_country_id").change(function() { cache = getCities(); }); }); /** * Gets the cities associated with the currently selected country */ function getCities() { var cityId = $("#registration_country_id :selected").attr('value'); return $.getJSON("/ajax/cities/" + cityId + ".html"); } This returns the following json: ["Aberdare","Aberdeen","Aberystwyth","Abingdon","Accrington","Airdrie","Aldershot","Alfreton","Alloa","Altrincham","Amersham","Andover","Antrim","Arbroath","Ardrossan","Arnold","Ashford","Ashington","Ashton-under-Lyne","Atherton","Aylesbury","Ayr",... ] But, it doesn't work. When i start typing in the city box, the style changes so the autocompleter is doing something, but it won't display this data. If i hard-code the above it works. Can anyone see what's wrong? Thanks

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  • JavaScript - Building JSON object

    - by user208662
    Hello, I'm trying to understand how to build a JSON object in JavaScript. This JSON object will get passed to a JQuery ajax call. Currently, I'm hard-coding my JSON and making my JQuery call as shown here: $.ajax({ url: "/services/myService.svc/PostComment", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: '{"comments":"test","priority":"1"}', dataType: "json", success: function (res) { alert("Thank you!"); }, error: function (req, msg, obj) { alert("There was an error"); } }); This approach works. But, I need to dynamically build my JSON and pass it onto the JQuery call. However, I cannot figure out how to dynamically build the JSON object. Currently, I'm trying the following without any luck: var comments = $("#commentText").val(); var priority = $("#priority").val(); var json = { "comments":comments,"priority":priority }; $.ajax({ url: "/services/myService.svc/PostComment", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: json, dataType: "json", success: function (res) { alert("Thank you!"); }, error: function (req, msg, obj) { alert("There was an error"); } }); Can someone please tell me what I am doing wrong? I noticed that with the second version, my service is not even getting reached. Thank you

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  • Strange rare out-of-order data received using Indy

    - by Jim
    We're having a bizarre problem with Indy10 where two large strings (a few hundred characters each) that we send out one after the other are appearing at the other end intertwined oddly. This happens extremely infrequently. Each string is a complete XML message terminated with a LF and in general the READ process reads an entire XML message, returning when it sees the LF. The call to actually send the message is protected by a critical section around the call to the IOHandler's writeln method and so it is not possible for two threads to send at the same time. (We're certain the critical section is implemented/working properly). This problem happens very rarely. The symptoms are odd...when we send string A followed by string B what we received at the other end (on the rare occasions where we have failure) is the trailing section of string A by itself (i.e., there's a LF at the end of it) followed by the leading section of string A and then the entire string B followed by a single LF. We've verified that the "timed out" property is not true after the partial read - we log that property after every read that returns content. Also, we know there are no embedded LF characters in the string, as we explicitly replace all non-alphanumeric characters in the string with spaces before appending the LF and sending it. We have log mechanisms inside the critical sections on both the transmission and receiving ends and so we can see this behavior at the "wire". We're completely baffled and wondering (although always the lowest possibility) whether there could be some low-level Indy issues that might cause this issue, e.g., buffers being sent in the wrong order....very hard to believe this could be the issue but we're grasping at straws. Does anyone have any bright ideas?

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  • Webservices on iPhone - wsdl2objc - Sample Code?

    - by markmcgookin
    I have recently downloaded the most recent build of this awesome tool WSDL2OBJC from google code here: http://code.google.com/p/wsdl2objc/ After a bit of tweaking and downloading the latest version of the trunk from the svn repo I got a version that created the code for a WSDL I am using and compiles great and actually installs on my phone! However, I'm not doing anything with it yet, because I am not really sure how to. There is very little in the way of sample code on the site, and there is a sample file in the project if you download it, but again it is very complicated and there are no real bits of documentation. Has anyone managed to successfully use this stuff? It seems SOOO powerful and useful but from a look around the Internet, no one knows how to use it. We (all) would love someone who has figured it out to post a simple project or detailed walk-through of implementing this so we can put the code that lots of people have worked hard on to good use. If anyone has found a blog entry or has this information it would be great to see! I am totally stuck... with no errors. I would love to know how to use this now that it's all compiled successfully!

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  • How to implement DisplayMemberPath for my Wpf UserControl?

    - by Bevan
    I'm writing a WPF User Control for my application, wrapping a ListBox and a few other items. The ListBox has a new ItemTemplate that presents four pieces of information for each item in my list. I can hard code each of the four bindings to specific properties on my list items and they display fine. However, I want my UserControl to be a bit more flexible. On ListBox and ComboBox there is a property DisplayMemberPath (inherited from ItemsControl) that seems to "inject" the appropriate property binding into the standard ItemTemplate. How do I achieve the same result with my user control? I'd like to set up four new properties to allow configuration of the information displayed: public string LabelDisplayPath { get; set; } public string MetricDisplayPath { get; set; } public string TitleDisplayPath { get; set; } public string SubtitleDisplayPath { get; set; } Reviewing ItemsControl.DisplayMemberPath with Reflector seems to go down the rabbit hole, I haven't been able to fathom how it works. Also, if I'm completely off course - and there's another, more "WPF" technique that I should be using instead, please point me in that direction.

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  • Dealing with asynchronous control structures (Fluent Interface?)

    - by Christophe Herreman
    The initialization code of our Flex application is doing a series of asynchronous calls to check user credentials, load external data, connecting to a JMS topic, etc. Depending on the context the application runs in, some of these calls are not executed or executed with different parameters. Since all of these calls happen asynchronously, the code controlling them is hard to read, understand, maintain and test. For each call, we need to have some callback mechanism in which we decide what call to execute next. I was wondering if anyone had experimented with wrapping these calls in executable units and having a Fluent Interface (FI) that would connect and control them. From the top of my head, the code might look something like: var asyncChain:AsyncChain = execute(LoadSystemSettings) .execute(LoadAppContext) .if(IsAutologin) .execute(AutoLogin) .else() .execute(ShowLoginScreen) .etc; asyncChain.execute(); The AsyncChain would be an execution tree, build with the FI (and we could of course also build one without a FI). This might be an interesting idea for environments that run in a single threaded model like the Flash Player, Silverlight, JavaFX?, ... Before I dive into the code to try things out, I was hoping to get some feedback.

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  • x86 instruction encoding tables

    - by Cheery
    I'm in middle of rewriting my assembler. While at it I'm curious about implementing disassembly as well. I want to make it simple and compact, and there's concepts I can exploit while doing so. It is possible to determine rest of the x86 instruction encoding from opcode (maybe prefix bytes are required too, a bit). I know many people have written tables for doing it. I'm not interested about mnemonics but instruction encoding, because it is an actual hard problem there. For each opcode number I need to know: does this instruction contain modrm? how many immediate fields does this instruction have? what encoding does an immediate use? is the immediate in field an instruction pointer -relative address? what kind of registers does the modrm use for operand and register fields? sandpile.org has somewhat quite much what I'd need, but it's in format that isn't easy to parse. Before I start writing and validating those tables myself, I decided to write this question. Do you know about this kind of tables existing somewhere? In a form that doesn't require too much effort to parse.

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  • Looking for an elegant appwidget skin solution

    - by sam-henwood
    I have an appwidget application and would like to enable users to create skins which can be applied at runtime. My preferred solution is to use apk files with nine patch png images that stretch to fit the ImageView's of widget, however its starting to look like I might have to use another packaging technique (e.g. zip files). What I've tried: Importing nine patch resources as Drawable with context.getResourcesForApplication(my.app).getResources..., converting them to bitmaps using a canvas and setting the bitmap to the RemoteView using setImageViewBitap. This didn't work because I needed to specify the size of the resulting view (myBitmap.setBounds(..,..)) during conversion and some of the widths/heights in my appwidget aren't fixed. Perhaps there is a way to get the heights etc that I missed. Importing resources directly to the RemoteView using setImageViewUri() This doesn't work because the function doesn't seem to read android.resource:// Uri's anymore (I poked around in the ImageView source and it only seems to read files paths and content:// Uri's) Importing resources directly to the RemoteView using setImageViewResource() which didn't work because the id retrieved from the external package obviously doesn't include a package reference. What I'm trying to avoid is hard coding all my appwidget width's and height's, or using a separate packaging scheme. Has anyone implemented appwidget skins nicely and want to share the knowledge? Alternately there might be a hole in my logic somewhere that can be pointed out. I can provide code if required though I don't have any here right now.

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  • Switching between iScroll and standard WebView Scrolling functionality

    - by Jonathan
    I'm using iScroll 4 for my rather heavy iPhone web/Phonegap app and trying to find a way to switch between iScrolls scrolling functionality and standard "native" webview scrolling, basically on click. Why I want this is described below. My app has several different subpages all in one file. Some subpages have input fields, some don't. As we all know, iScroll + input fields = you're out of luck. I've wrapped iScrolls wrapper div (and all its functionality) around the one sub page where scrolling is crucial, and where there are no input fields. The other sections, I've simply placed outside this div, which gives these no scrolling functionality at all. I've of course tried wrapping all inside the wrapper and enabling/disabling scroll (shown below) but that didn't work me at all: myScroll.disable() myScroll.enable() By placing some sub pages outside the main scrolling area / iscroll div, I've disabled both iScrolls and the standard webview scrolling (the latter - which i guess iScroll does) which leaves me with only basic basic scrolling, hence basically no scrolling at all. One can move around vertically, but once you let go of the screen with, the "scrolling" stops. Quite naturally but alas so nasty. Therefore, I'm searching for a way to enable standard webview scrolling on the sub pages placed outside of iScroll's wrapper div. I've tried different approaches such as the one above and by using: document.removeEventListener('touchmove', preventDefault, false); document.removeEventListener('touchmove', preventDefault, true); But with no success. Sorry for not providing you guys with any hard code or demos to test out for yourselves, it's simply too much code and it would be presented so out of its context, nobody would be able to debug it. So, is there a way n javascript to do this, switching between iScroll scrolling functionality and standard "native" webview scrolling? I would rather not rebuild the entire DOM framework so a solution like the one described above would be preferable.

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  • AndEngine VS Android's Canvas VS OpenGLES - For rendering a 2D indoor vector map

    - by Orchestrator
    This is a big issue for me I'm trying to figure out for a long time already. I'm working on an application that should include a 2D vector indoor map in it. The map will be drawn out from an .svg file that will specify all the data of the lines, curved lines (path) and rectangles that should be drawn. My main requirement from the map are Support touch events to detect where exactly the finger is touching. Great image quality especially when considering the drawings of curved and diagonal lines (anti-aliasing) Optional but very nice to have - Built in ability to zoom, pan and rotate. So far I tried AndEngine and Android's canvas. With AndEngine I had troubles with implementing anti-aliasing for rendering smooth diagonal lines or drawing curved lines, and as far as I understand, this is not an easy thing to implement in AndEngine. Though I have to mention that AndEngine's ability to zoom in and pan with the camera instead of modifying the objects on the screen was really nice to have. I also had some little experience with the built in Android's Canvas, mainly with viewing simple bitmaps, but I'm not sure if it supports all of these things, and especially if it would provide smooth results. Last but no least, there's the option of just plain OpenGLES 1 or 2, that as far as I understand, with enough work should be able to support all the features I require. However it seems like something that would be hard to implement. And I've never programmed in OpenGL or anything like it, but I'm willing very much to learn. To sum it all up, I need a platform that would provide me with the ability to do the 3 things I mentioned before, but also very important - To allow me to implement this feature as fast as possible. Any kind of answer or suggestion would be very much welcomed as I'm very eager to solve this problem! Thanks!

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  • Integration tests in Continuous Integration environment: Database and filesystem state

    - by dario_ramos
    I'm trying to implement automated integration tests for my application. It's a very complex monster. You could say that its database and part of the filesystem are part of its state, because it saves image files in the hard drive, and references to those in the DB. The software needs all those, in a coherent state, to work properly. Back to writing tests: To run any relevant test, I need some image files in the filesystem, and certain records filled in the database. I thought of putting all of these in a separate folder called TestEnvironmentData in the repository, and retrieving them from the Continuous Integration Server (Team City), but a colleague said the repo is quite full as it is, and that I should set up a special directory, and databases, only in the Continuous Integration server. I don't like that because the tests success depend on me manually mantaining stuff in the server, and restoring initial state before every test becomes cumbersome. What do you guys do when you need to write integration tests for an app like this? The main goal is having an automated test harness to approach a large scale refactoring. There's lots of spaghetti code and the app's current architecture is hardly unit testable, that's why I decided on integration tests first. Any alternative approach is welcome.

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  • oracle pl/sql bug: can't put_line more than 2000 characters

    - by FrustratedWithFormsDesigner
    Has anyone else noticed this phenomenon where dbms_output.put_line is unable to print more than 2000 characters at a time? Script is: set serveroutput on size 100000; declare big_str varchar2(2009); begin for i in 1..2009 loop big_str := big_str||'x'; end loop; dbms_output.put_line(length(big_str)); dbms_output.put_line(big_str); end; / I copied and pasted the output into an editor (Notepad++) which told me there were only 2000 characters, not 2009 which is what I think should have been pasted. This also happens with a few of my test scripts - only 2000 characters get printed. I have a workaround to print like this: dbms_output.put_line(length(big_str)); dbms_output.put_line(substr(big_str,1,1999)); dbms_output.put_line(substr(big_str,2000)); This adds new lines to the output, makes it hard to read when the text you're working with is preformatted. Has anyone else noticed this? Is it really a bug or some sort of obscure feature? Is there a better workaround? Is there any other information on this out there? Oracle version is: 10.2.0.3.0, using PL/SQL Developer (from Allround Automation).

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  • FindBugs controversal description

    - by Tom Brito
    Am I understanding it wrong, or is the description wrong? Equals checks for noncompatible operand (EQ_CHECK_FOR_OPERAND_NOT_COMPATIBLE_WITH_THIS) This equals method is checking to see if the argument is some incompatible type (i.e., a class that is neither a supertype nor subtype of the class that defines the equals method). For example, the Foo class might have an equals method that looks like: public boolean equals(Object o) { if (o instanceof Foo) return name.equals(((Foo)o).name); else if (o instanceof String) return name.equals(o); else return false; This is considered bad practice, as it makes it very hard to implement an equals method that is symmetric and transitive. Without those properties, very unexpected behavoirs are possible. From: http://findbugs.sourceforge.net/bugDescriptions.html#EQ_CHECK_FOR_OPERAND_NOT_COMPATIBLE_WITH_THIS The description says that the Foo class might have an aquals method like that, and after it says that "This is considered bad practice". I'm not getting the "right way".. How should the following method be to be right? @Override public boolean equals(Object obj) { if (obj instanceof DefaultTableModel) return model.equals((DefaultTableModel)obj); else return false; }

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