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• Why am I getting a permission denied error on my public folder?

  - by Robin Fisher

  Hi all, This one has got me stumped. I'm deploying a Rails 3 app to Slicehost running Apache 2 and Passenger. My server is running Ruby 1.9.1 using RVM. I am receiving a permission denied error on the "public" folder in my app. My Virtual Host is setup as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName sharerplane.com ServerAlias www.sharerplane.com ServerAlias *.sharerplane.com DocumentRoot /home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/current/public/ <Directory "/home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/public/"> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> PassengerDefaultUser robinjfisher </VirtualHost> I've tried the following things: trailing slash on public; no trailing slash on public; PassengerUserSwitching on and off; PassengerDefaultUser set and not set; with and without the block. The public folder is owned by robinjfisher:www-data and Passenger is running as robinjfisher so I can't see why there are permission issues. Does anybody have any thoughts? Thanks Robin PS. Have disabled the site for the time being to avoid indexing so what is there currently is not the site in question.

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• Unhandled Exception error message

  - by Joshua Green

  Does anyone know why including a term such as: t = PL_new_term_ref(); would cause an Unhandled Exception error message: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x0000000c. (Visual Studio 2008) I have a header file: class UserTaskProlog : public ArAction { public: UserTaskProlog( const char* name = " sth " ); ~UserTaskProlog( ); AREXPORT virtual ArActionDesired *fire( ArActionDesired currentDesired ); private: term_t t; }; and a cpp file: UserTaskProlog::UserTaskProlog( const char* name ) : ArAction( name, " sth " ) { char** argv; argv[ 0 ] = "libpl.dll"; PL_initialise( 1, argv ); PlCall( "consult( 'myProg.pl' )" ); } UserTaskProlog::~UserTaskProlog( ) { } ArActionDesired *UserTaskProlog::fire( ArActionDesired currentDesired ) { cout << " something " << endl; t = PL_new_term_ref( ); } Without t=PL_new_term_ref() everything works fine, but when I start adding my Prolog code (declarations first, such as t=PL_new_term_ref), I get this Access Violation error message. I'd appreciate any help. Thanks,

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• SQL string manipulation to return multiple rows

  - by Andy Jacobs

  I'm an experienced programmer, but relatively new to SQL. We're using Oracle 10 and 11. I have a system in place using SQL that combines actual rows with virtual rows (e.g. "SELECT 1 from DUAL") doing unions and intersects as needed, which all seems to work. My problem is that I need to combine this system which is expecting rows of data, with new data that will have the data in (let's say for simplification) comma delimited strings. So I think what I need is a way to convert a string like: "5,6,7,8" into 4 rows with one column each, with "5" in the first row, "6" in the second, etc. In other languages, I'd do a "Split" with comma as the delimiter. Of course, the data won't always have 4 entries. There's a second question, but I'll ask it separately. But I suspect it will simplify things, if possible, if the solution to the above could be used as a table in another SQL statement (i.e., to work with my existing system). Thanks for any help.

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• .Net lambda expression-- where did this parameter come from?

  - by larryq

  I'm a lambda newbie, so if I'm missing vital information in my description please tell me. I'll keep the example as simple as possible. I'm going over someone else's code and they have one class inheriting from another. Here's the derived class first, along with the lambda expression I'm having trouble understanding: class SampleViewModel : ViewModelBase { private ICustomerStorage storage = ModelFactory<ICustomerStorage>.Create(); public ICustomer CurrentCustomer { get { return (ICustomer)GetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty, value); } } private int quantitySaved; public int QuantitySaved { get { return quantitySaved; } set { if (quantitySaved != value) { quantitySaved = value; NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved); //where does 'p' come from? } } } public static readonly DependencyProperty CurrentCustomerProperty; static SampleViewModel() { CurrentCustomerProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentCustomer", typeof(ICustomer), typeof(SampleViewModel), new UIPropertyMetadata(ModelFactory<ICustomer>.Create())); } //more method definitions follow.. Note the call to NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved) bit above. I don't understand where the "p" is coming from. Here's the base class: public abstract class ViewModelBase : DependencyObject, INotifyPropertyChanged, IXtremeMvvmViewModel { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; protected virtual void NotifyPropertyChanged<T>(Expression<Func<ViewModelBase, T>> property) { MvvmHelper.NotifyPropertyChanged(property, PropertyChanged); } } There's a lot in there that's not germane to the question I'm sure, but I wanted to err on the side of inclusiveness. The problem is, I don't understand where the 'p' parameter is coming from, and how the compiler knows to (evidently?) fill in a type value of ViewModelBase from thin air? For fun I changed the code from 'p' to 'this', since SampleViewModel inherits from ViewModelBase, but I was met with a series of compiler errors, the first one of which statedInvalid expression term '=>' This confused me a bit since I thought that would work. Can anyone explain what's happening here?

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• handling pointer to member functions within hierachy in C++

  - by anatoli

  Hi, I'm trying to code the following situation: I have a base class providing a framework for handling events. I'm trying to use an array of pointer-to-member-functions for that. It goes as following: class EH { // EventHandler virtual void something(); // just to make sure we get RTTI public: typedef void (EH::*func_t)(); protected: func_t funcs_d[10]; protected: void register_handler(int event_num, func_t f) { funcs_d[event_num] = f; } public: void handle_event(int event_num) { (this->*(funcs_d[event_num]))(); } }; Then the users are supposed to derive other classes from this one and provide handlers: class DEH : public EH { public: typedef void (DEH::*func_t)(); void handle_event_5(); DEH() { func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile ........ } }; This code wouldn't compile, since DEH::func_t cannot be converted to EH::func_t. It makes perfect sense to me. In my case the conversion is safe since the object under this is really DEH. So I'd like to have something like that: void EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper() { DEH *p = dynamic_cast<DEH *>(this); assert(p != NULL); p->handle_event_5(); } and then instead of func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile in DEH::DEH() put register_handler(5, &EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper); So, finally the question (took me long enough...): Is there a way to create those wrappers (like EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper) automatically? Or to do something similar? What other solutions to this situation are out there? Thanks.

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• What happens to existing workspaces after upgrading to TFS 2010

  - by e-mre

  Hi, I was looking for some insight about what happens to existing workspaces and files that are already checked-out on people, after an upgrade to TFS2010. Surprisingly enough I can not find any satisfactory information on this. (I am talking about upgrading on new hardware by the way. Fresh TFS instance, upgraded databases) I've checked TFS Installation guide, I searched through the web, all I could find is upgrade scenarios for the server side. Nobody even mentions what happens to source control clients. I've created a virtual machine to test the upgrade process, The upgrade was successful and all my files and workspaces exist in the new server too. The problem is: The new TFS installation has a new instanceID. When I redirected on the clients to the new server, the client seemed unable to match files and file states in the workspace with the ones on the new server. This makes me wonder if it will be possible to keep working after the production upgrade. As I mentioned above I can not find anything on this, it would be great if anyone could point me to some paper or blog post about this. Thanks in advance...

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• Inheritance inside a template - public members become invisible?

  - by Juliano

  I'm trying to use inheritance among classes defined inside a class template (inner classes). However, the compiler (GCC) is refusing to give me access to public members in the base class. Example code: template <int D> struct Space { struct Plane { Plane(Space& b); virtual int& at(int y, int z) = 0; Space& space; /* <= this member is public */ }; struct PlaneX: public Plane { /* using Plane::space; */ PlaneX(Space& b, int x); int& at(int y, int z); const int cx; }; int& at(int x, int y, int z); }; template <int D> int& Space<D>::PlaneX::at(int y, int z) { return space.at(cx, y, z); /* <= but it fails here */ }; Space<4> sp4; The compiler says: file.cpp: In member function ‘int& Space::PlaneX::at(int, int)’: file.cpp:21: error: ‘space’ was not declared in this scope If using Plane::space; is added to the definition of class PlaneX, or if the base class member is accessed through the this pointer, or if class Space is changed to a non-template class, then the compiler is fine with it. I don't know if this is either some obscure restriction of C++, or a bug in GCC (GCC versions 4.4.1 and 4.4.3 tested). Does anyone have an idea?

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• How to view shell commands used by eclipse "run configurations"

  - by gmale

  Given a "run configuration" in Eclipse, I want to print out the associated shell command that would be used to run it. For example: Right now, in Eclipse, if I click "play" it will run: mvn assembly:directory -Dmaven.test.skip=true I don't see that command, I just know that's what the IDE must run, at some point. However, some of the other run configurations are far more complex with long classpaths and virtual machine options and, frankly, sometimes I have no idea what the equivalent shell command would be (particularly when it comes to Flex). There must be some way to access the shell command that would be associated with a "Run Configuration" in Eclipse/Flex Builder. This information must be available, which leads me to believe someone has written a plugin to display it. Or maybe there's already an option built into Eclipse for accessing this. So is there a way to, essentially, convert an Eclipse run configuration into a shell command? (for context only: I'm asking because I'm writing a bash script that automates everything I do, during development--from populating the Database all the way to opening Firefox and clearing the cache before running the web app. So every command I run from the IDE needs to exist in the script. Some are tricky to figure out.)

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• IIS URL Rewrite rule - Default document for subdirectories

  - by Antonio Bakula

  I would like create URL rewrite rule that will set default document for my virtual folders. eg. someting like this www.domain.com/en/ -> www.domain.com/en/index.aspx www.domain.com/hr/ -> www.domain.com/hr/index.aspx www.domain.com/de/ -> www.domain.com/de/index.aspx directories en, hr, de doesn't really exists on web server they are just markers for languange used in site used by home grown http module that will rewrite path with query params. Quick solution was define rule for every single lang, something like this : <rewrite> <rewriteMaps> <rewriteMap name="Langs"> <add key="/en" value="/en/index.aspx" /> <add key="/hr" value="/hr/index.aspx" /> <add key="/de" value="/de/index.aspx" /> </rewriteMap> </rewriteMaps> <rules> But I would really like solution that would not require changes in web.config and adding rewrite rule for every languange used on particular site. Thanks !

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• WinCE and PC USB communication

  - by sebeksd

  We are developing some device and we need to find good solution for one of needed functionality. Thing is that we need communicate WinCE 6.0 (ARM) and Windows on PC. Easiest way is of course COM port but in our case it is impossible (all serial ports are used on WinCE and we don't want to add one more). Second option is LAN but for us it is not the best option for few reasons. So there is third option we could use. USB to USB communication but how to do that ? Of course WinCE is USB Device and PC is USB Host so all hardware basics are meet. We could use Active sync but there are few problems with it: - WinCE 6.0 is not working with WMDC (drivers on device just crash after connecting device with PC) and I didn't find any solution for it so in this case we need to use WinXP on PC side (old ActiveSync) - we need to filter communication with active sync to only our application, no other non authorized software should be allowed (what I know this is imposible to obtain). So propably best way to do what we need is to communicate throug USB like standard COM (serial communication). The question is, how it could be made, are we need to write driver on WinCE and also a Driver on Windows (PC), or there are better solution? Maybe some driver for WinCE 6.0 that would emulate Virtual COM on PC side (and of course allow standard Read/Write to it on WinCE side) ? Could someone tell me if something like that exists ?

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• AssemblyResolve event is not firing during compilation of a dynamic assembly for an aspx page.

  - by John

  This one is really pissing me off. Here goes: My goal is to load assemblies at run-time that contain embedded aspx,ascx etc. What I would also like is to not lock the assembly file on disk so I can update it at run-time without having to restart the application (I know this will leave the previous version(s) loaded). To that end I have written a virtual path provider that does the trick. I have subscribed to the CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve event so as to redirect the framework to my assemblies. The problem is that the when the framework tries to compile the dynamic assembly for the aspx page I get the following: Compiler Error Message: CS0400: The type or namespace name 'Pages' could not be found in the global namespace (are you missing an assembly reference?) Source Error: public class app_resource_pages__version_1_0_0_0__culture_neutral__publickeytoken_null_default_aspx : global::Pages._Default, System.Web.SessionState.IRequiresSessionState, System.Web.IHttpHandle I noticed that if I load the assembly with Assembly.Load(AssemblyName) or Assembly.LoadFrom(filename) I dont get the above error. If I load it with Assembly.Load(byte[]) (so as to not lock it), the exception is thrown but my AssemblyResolve handler, when called is returning the assembly correctly (it is called once). So I am guessing that it is called once when the framework parses the asp markup but not when it tries to create the dynamic assembly for the aspx page.

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• NHibernate unintential lazy property loading

  - by chiccodoro

  I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_ NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

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• Different behaviour of method overloading in C#

  - by Wondering

  Hi All, I was going through C# Brainteasers(http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/teasers.html) and came accross one question:what should be the o/p of below code class Base { public virtual void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Base.Foo(int)"); } } class Derived : Base { public override void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Test { static void Main() { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // it prints ("Derived.Foo(object)" } } but if I change the code to enter code here class Derived { public void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // prints Derived.Foo(int)"); Console.ReadKey(); } } I want to why the o/p is getting changde when we are inheriting vs not inheriting , why method overloading is behaving differently in both the cases

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• Hide a single content block from search engines?

  - by jonas

  A header is automatically added on top of each content URL, but its not relevant for search and messing up the all the results beeing the first line of every page (in the code its the last line but visually its the first, which google is able to notice) Solution1: You could put the header (content to exculde from google searches) in an iframe with a static url domain.com/header.html and a <meta name="robots" content="noindex" /> ? - are there takeoffs of this solution? Solution2: You could deliver it conditionally by apache mod rewrite, php or javascript -takeoff(?): google does not like it? will google ever try pages with a standard users's useragent and compare? -takeoff: The hidden content will be missing in the google cache version as well... example: add-header.php: <?php $path = $_GET['path']; echo file_get_contents($_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"].$path); ?> apache virtual host config: RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*spider.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yahoo.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Bing.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yandex.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Baidu.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*bot.* [NC] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.htm$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.html$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.php$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/add-header.php?path=%1 [L]

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• What constitutes a development environment, and how do you document it?

  - by Joel Coehoorn

  What items go into a software shop's development environment, how do you document it, and what processes do you follow to make changes? I thinking about this from the standpoint where I want to make it easier to bring new hires up to speed quickly by having all this on a checklist we follow when setting them up, and then while I'm at it making it easier for the new hires or existing team members to bring new powerful toolkits and ideas into the environment without disrupting things. I want to keep this platform agnostic, so even though I'm currently at a microsoft shop where Visual Studio would be assumed I'll go ahead and list compiler/IDE as one of the items: Here are some ideas for part 1: [edit]: I'm keeping this updated based on the better suggestions. Source Control access Issue/Bug/Project tracker System Documention, or references to find the system documentation in source control or in a wiki, including: build document/environment covered by this question design documents / technical notes Coding Style guidelines Deploy for review/testing/QA/staging/production procedures Licensing details for your tools and your product Team Calendar, including the project schedule(s), deadlines, vacation time, and support/on-call schedule (if required) compiler/IDE compiler/IDE extensions (things like source control plugins or visual studio add-ins) 3rd party SDKs/toolkits Database connection and tools Testing Frameworks Internal libraries communication tools (chat, wiki, etc) Static analysis tools (FxCop, FlawFinder, etc) Virtual machines (holding dev environment or for testing) Specialized editors (modeling, xml, etc) Other tools What else goes in this list, and how do you document it and vet changes?

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• Android - Two different programs at the same time in an emulator

  - by Léa Massiot

  I'm new to Android development. My OS is WinXP. I'm trying to install two different applications on an Android Device Emulator in command line. I have two Android projects "ap1" and "ap2". In the "ap1" project directory, I ran "ant debug". I got an "ap1.apk" executable. In the "ap2" project directory, I ran "ant debug". I got an "ap2.apk" executable. I created an Android Virtual Device: cmd_line android create avd -n avd1 -t 1 --abi x86 I launched the emulator: cmd_line emulator -avd avd1 -verbose The "adb devices" command returns: List of devices attached emulator-5554 device I installed the first program on the emulator: cmd_line adb -s emulator-5554 install "ap1.apk" I ran the program: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg.android/.Activity1 = It worked. I installed the second program on the emulator: cmd_line adb -s emulator-5554 install "ap2.apk" I ran the program: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg2.android/.AnotherActivity1 = It worked. All this works except that the second executable "replaced" of the first one. If I try to run the first executable, I get an error: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg.android/.Activity1 Starting: Intent { act=android.intent.action.MAIN cmp=my.pkg.android/.Activity1 } Error type 3 Error: Activity class {my.pkg.android/my.pkg.android.Activity1} does not exist. It looks like I can't have the two apps at the same time in the emulator. What do you think? What do I have to do to have the two apps available (at the same time) in the emulator? Thank you for helping. Best regards.

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• .NET MissingMethodException occuring on one of thousands of end-user machines -- any insight?

  - by Yoooder

  This issue has me baffled, it's affecting a single user (to my knowledge) and hasn't been reproduced by us... The user is receiving a MissingMethodException, our trace file indicates it's occuring after we create a new instance of a component, when we're calling an Initialize/Setup method in preparation to have it do work (InitializeWorkerByArgument in the example) The Method specified by the error is an interface method, which a base class implements and classes derived from the base class can override as-needed The user has the latest release of our application All the provided code is shipped within a single assembly Here's a very distilled version of the component: class Widget : UserControl { public void DoSomething(string argument) { InitializeWorkerByArgument(argument); this.Worker.DoWork(); } private void InitializeWorkerByArgument(string argument) { switch (argument) { case "SomeArgument": this.Worker = new SomeWidgetWorker(); break; } // The issue I'm tracking down would have occured during "new SomeWidgetWorker()" // and would have resulted in a missing method exception stating that // method "DoWork" could not be found. this.Worker.DoWorkComplete += new EventHandler(Worker_DoWorkComplete); } private IWidgetWorker Worker { get; set; } void Worker_DoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("All done"); } } interface IWidgetWorker { void DoWork(); event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } abstract class BaseWorker : IWidgetWorker { virtual public void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } internal void RaiseDoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (DoWorkComplete != null) { DoWorkComplete(this, null); } } public event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } class SomeWidgetWorker : BaseWorker { public override void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } }

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• Server.TransferRequest returns blank page on specific server

  - by jishi

  I'm facing an issue that seems to be related to configuration. I have a webapplication based on MonoRail, where we utilize the routing feature from MonoRail. On the first request after the application has started, the routing isn't initialized. To circumvent this, I have the following code in Application_OnError(): public virtual void Application_OnError() { if ( // identified as routing error ) Server.TransferRequest( Context.Request.RawUrl, false ); return; } Problem beeing that on our development server (which runs server 2008 R2, with IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) returns a blank page without headers, but on my workstation (which runs win7, IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) it works fine. What could be the cause of this? If the code in Application_OnError() throws an exception, what would be the expected output? I have verified the following: The access-log shows one entry, I'm not sure if a TransferRequest would show up as a second entry when invoked successfully The application actually do some work according to my internal logs, and it doesn't die since a subsequent requests works flawlessly (because routing will be active) Any hints on what to look for would be greatly appreciated!

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• Using Kerberos authentication for SQL Server 2008

  - by vivek m

  I am trying to configure my SQL Server to use Kerberos authentication. My setup is like this - My setup is like this- I have 2 virtual PCs in a Windows XP Pro SP3 host. Both VPCs are Windows Server 2003 R2. One VPC acts as the DC, DNS Server, DHCP server, has Active Directory installed and the SQL Server default instance is also running on this VPC. The second VPC is the domain member and it acts as the SQL Server client machine. I configured the SPN on the SQL Server service account to get the Kerberos working. On the client VPC it seems like it is using Kerberos authentication (as desired)- C:\Documents and Settings\administrator.SHAREPOINTSVC>sqlcmd -S vm-winsrvr2003 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- KERBEROS (1 rows affected) 1> but on the server computer (where the SQL Server instance is actually running) it looks like it is still using NTLM authentication- . This is not a remote instance, the sql server is local to this machine. C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator>sqlcmd 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- NTLM (1 rows affected) 1> What can i do so that it uses Kerberos on the server computer as well ? (or is this something that I should not expect)

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• Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

  - by Aki Iskandar

  Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

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• RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

  - by epitka

  I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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• Focus CSS tag in Internet Explorer 8

  - by Sam

  This is driving me nuts. http://www.cssdrive.com/index.php/examples/exampleitem/focus_pseudo_class This is an example of using the hover pseudo-class. Works fine in Chrome and IE. When I save locally it works fine in Chrome but won't work in IE. What am I doing wrong!? <link rel="Stylesheet" href="style.css" /> <form> <p>1) Name:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>2) Email address:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>3) Comments:<br /> <textarea rows="5" name="comments" cols="45" wrap="virtual"></textarea></p> <p><input id="actualsubmit" type="submit" value="Submit"></p> </form> style.css: input:focus, textarea:focus{ background-color: lightyellow; }

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• User to kernel mode big picture?

  - by fsdfa

  I've to implement a char device, a LKM. I know some basics about OS, but I feel I don't have the big picture. In a C programm, when I call a syscall what I think it happens is that the CPU is changed to ring0, then goes to the syscall vector and jumps to a kernel memmory space function that handle it. (I think that it does int 0x80 and in eax is the offset of the syscall vector, not sure). Then, I'm in the syscall itself, but I guess that for the kernel is the same process that was before, only that it is in kernel mode, I mean the current PCB is the process that called the syscall. So far... so good?, correct me if something is wrong. Others questions... how can I write/read in process memory?. If in the syscall handler I refer to address, say, 0xbfffffff. What it means that address? physical one? Some virtual kernel one?

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• Trying to make a plugin system in C++/Qt

  - by Pirate for Profit

  I'm making a task-based program that needs to have plugins. Tasks need to have properties which can be easily edited, I think this can be done with Qt's Meta-Object Compiler reflection capabilities (I could be wrong, but I should be able to stick this in a QtPropertyBrowser?) So here's the base: class Task : public QObject { Q_OBJECT public: explicit Task(QObject *parent = 0) : QObject(parent){} virtual void run() = 0; signals: void taskFinished(bool success = true); } Then a plugin might have this task: class PrinterTask : public Task { Q_OBJECT public: explicit PrinterTask(QObject *parent = 0) : Task(parent) {} void run() { Printer::getInstance()->Print(this->getData()); // fictional emit taskFinished(true); } inline const QString &getData() const; inline void setData(QString data); Q_PROPERTY(QString data READ getData WRITE setData) // for reflection } In a nutshell, here's what I want to do: // load plugin // find all the Tasks interface implementations in it // have user able to choose a Task and edit its specific Q_PROPERTY's // run the TASK It's important that one .dll has multiple tasks, because I want them to be associated by their module. For instance, "FileTasks.dll" could have tasks for deleting files, making files, etc. The only problem with Qt's plugin setup is I want to store X amount of Tasks in one .dll module. As far as I can tell, you can only load one interface per plugin (I could be wrong?). If so, the only possible way to do accomplish what I want is to create a FactoryInterface with string based keys which return the objects (as in Qt's Plug-And-Paint example), which is a terrible boilerplate that I would like to avoid. Anyone know a cleaner C++ plugin architecture than Qt's to do what I want? Also, am I safely assuming Qt's reflection capabilities will do what I want (i.e. able to edit an unknown dynamically loaded tasks' properties with the QtPropertyBrowser before dispatching)?

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• How do I build a class that shares a table with multiple columns in MVC3?

  - by Barrett Kuethen

  I have a Job table public class Job { public int JobId { get; set; } public int SalesManagerId { get; set; } public int SalesRepId { get; set; } } and a Person table public class Person { public int PersonId { get; set; } public int FirstName { get; set; } public int LastName { get; set; } } My question is, how do I link the SalesManagerId to the Person (or PersonId) as well as the SalesRepId to the Person (PersonId)? The Sales Manager and Sales Rep are independent of each other. I just don't want to make 2 different lists to support the Sales Manager and Sales Rep roles. I'm new to MVC3, but it seems public virtual Person Person {get; set; } would be the way to go, but that doesn't work. Any help would be appreciated! Thanks!

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