Search Results

Search found 53222 results on 2129 pages for 'name servers'.

Page 435/2129 | < Previous Page | 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442  | Next Page >

  • How to add value to second column using wxListCtrl in wxWidgets (C++ code)??

    - by azm882
    I've following code: int column_width = 100; long indx1 = alist-InsertColumn(0, L"User Name", wxLIST_FORMAT_LEFT, column_width); long indx2 = alist-InsertColumn(1, L"User Id", wxLIST_FORMAT_LEFT, column_width); long itemIndex1 = alist-InsertItem(indx1, L"John Smith", -1); alist-SetItem(indx1, 1, L"jsmith"); I expect to see two columns with User Name and User Id as heading with "My Name" and "My Id" as values on the first row. Instead I only see "John Smith" under column User Name but nothing under User ID column. Here is a link to the snapshot showing the result: http://drop.io/agtyt6s Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to open form action in Jquery Dialog

    - by user342391
    I have a form: <form style="display: inline;" action="/player.php" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="recname" value="'.$row['name'].'"> <input type="hidden" name="recordingdesc" value="'.$row['description'].'"> <input type="hidden" name="reclink" value="$_SESSION['customerid'].'-'.$row['timestamp'].'.wav"> <button type="submit" class="tooltip table-button ui-state-default ui-corner-all" title=" rec"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-volume-on"></span></button> </form> and i want player.php to open in a modal dialog and be able to display the post information how can this be done.

    Read the article

  • Why wouldn't an embedded silverlight control work in a page?

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I have a silverlight application project in my solution. The other project is a web application project that has a .xap file in ClientBin. When I created the silverlight project, it asked if I wanted the asp.net application to host it (and I said yes). In the root directory, there is a test page for the silverlight control. That loads the control. In another directory, I insert the SAME asp markup to get the silverlight control to launch again. Nothing happens. Why would the silverlight launch on one page and not on the other? Can people help point me to documentation about dependencies that I might not know about? I've put a reference to Silverlight.js on the page as well. Here's the markup: <div id="silverlightControlHost"> <object data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="../ClientBin/Editor.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40818.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40818.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe></div> </div>

    Read the article

  • More elegant way to parse inline variables in strings

    - by Tom
    Currently I have this: function parse_string($string, $variables){ extract($variables); return eval('return "'. addcslashes($string, '"') .'";'); } So I can input this string: 'Hi {$name}, my name is {$own_name}' Together with this array: array('name' => 'John', 'own_name' => 'Tom') And get this back: 'Hi John, my name is Tom'   I've never liked this eval() approach but it works and it's fast (faster than regex at least). Question: Is there a more elegant way to do this (faster than using regex) in PHP5?

    Read the article

  • Python program to search for specific strings in hash values (coding help)

    - by Diego
    Trying to write a code that searches hash values for specific string's (input by user) and returns the hash if searchquery is present in that line. Doing this to kind of just learn python a bit more, but it could be a real world application used by an HR department to search a .csv resume database for specific words in each resume. I'd like this program to look through a .csv file that has three entries per line (id#;applicant name;resume text) I set it up so that it creates a hash, then created a string for the resume text hash entry, and am trying to use the .find() function to return the entire hash for each instance. What i'd like is if the word "gpa" is used as a search query and it is found in s['resumetext'] for three applicants(rows in .csv file), it prints the id, name, and resume for every row that has it.(All three applicants) As it is right now, my program prints the first row in the .csv file(print resume['id'], resume['name'], resume['resumetext']) no matter what the searchquery is, whether it's in the resumetext or not. lastly, are there better ways to doing this, by searching word documents, pdf's and .txt files in a folder for specific words using python (i've just started reading about the re module and am wondering if this may be the route, rather than putting everything in a .csv file.) def find_details(id2find): resumes_f=open("resume_data.csv") for each_line in resumes_f: s={} (s['id'], s['name'], s['resumetext']) = each_line.split(";") resumetext = str(s['resumetext']) if resumetext.find(id2find): return(s) else: print "No data matches your search query. Please try again" searchquery = raw_input("please enter your search term") resume = find_details(searchquery) if resume: print resume['id'], resume['name'], resume['resumetext']

    Read the article

  • is opening and closing of factory contolled by web.xml?

    - by akshay
    This post is related to post InvalidStateException while trying to enter data into DB. Do i need to put some entries in web.xml?Does web.xml control opening and closing of factory?I saw folloing entries in web.xml of another similar project . <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jms/XYConnectionFactory</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.jms.ConnectionFactory</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> <res-sharing-scope>Unshareable</res-sharing-scope></resource-ref> <resource-env-ref> <resource-env-ref-name>rep/xyAppConfig</resource-env-ref-name> <resource-env-ref-type>java.util.Map</resource-env-ref-type></resource-env-ref> What does this entries do?

    Read the article

  • Call PHP Function in jQuery (var)

    - by l3gion
    Hello, I'm facing a small problem that I can't solve by myself. I have this php function: function intervalo_manha(){ $que="select id_intervalo,data_15 from intervalo_manha order by id_intervalo"; $re=mysql_query($que); $object.="<select>"; $object.="<option></option>"; while(list($id_intervalo, $data_15)=mysql_fetch_row($re)) { $object.= "<option value=\"".$id_intervalo."\">".$data_15."</option>"; } $object.="</select>"; return $object; } This function return a select with information from database. I also have this js function: $(document).ready(function() { var destTable = $("#dataTable"); $("#btnAdd").click(function() { var newRow = $("<tr style='margin-left:-60px'><td><INPUT type='checkbox' name='chk'/></td><td><INPUT type='text' name='txt[]' id='txt'/></td><td></td></tr>"); $("#dataTable").append(newRow); newRow.find('input').autocomplete("get_cols_name.php", { width: 260, matchContains: true, selectFirst: false }); }); }); This one will add a new row to my table, and for each new input will "activate" autocomplete. What I want to do is, instead of this: var newRow = $("<tr style='margin-left:-60px'><td><INPUT type='checkbox' name='chk'/></td><td><INPUT type='text' name='txt[]' id='txt'/></td><td></td></tr>"); I would like to have something like this: var newRow = $("<tr style='margin-left:-60px'><td><INPUT type='checkbox' name='chk'/></td><td><INPUT type='text' name='txt[]' id='txt'/></td><td><?php echo intervalo_manha(); ?></td></tr>"); Calling php function directly will return nothing, and I can't do anything. Is there any way to accomplish this? Thank you

    Read the article

  • determine from where the function being called in php

    - by Avinash
    I have one function on my code. say its xyz(). This function is being called from different files of my project. Is there any way than I can get from where the function is being called. I want below infromation: File name from where its called. Line number of that file. if call is from inside the function then that function name. Class name Class method name. I know about use of magic constants like FILE and all that. but i don't want to pass all that in function call. like below: xyz('msg',__FILE__,__CLASS__); is there any way that i have to pass just my error related data only. and it will find the above details from where the function is called. let me know if anything is not clear.

    Read the article

  • Unable to read values from object returned from ActiveRecord.find

    - by Venki
    I make the following call to the DB. @patientRegistration = PatientRegistration.find(:all, :conditions=["name = '#{patientName}'"]) Search for patient registration based on a given name. I get a valid @patientRegistration object.When I invoke @patientRegistration.inspect it prints correctly all the values for the object in the DB. But when I try to read a particular attribute (Say id or name) by doing the following: @patientRegistration.id or @patientRegistration.name. I get invalid values. Either its blank or some junk values. I dont understand how inspect is able to retrieve all the values correctly but reading individual attributes gives invalid values. Thanks

    Read the article

  • DataContractJsonSerializer generating Ghost string to JSON keys?

    - by Anil Namde
    DataContractJsonSerializer this is nice class added in the .net framework which can be used to serialize/desirealize object into JSON. Now following is the example i am trying [Serializable] class User { public string name; public string userId; } Now following is the output generated Output : Notice structure where only "name" is expected instead of k__BackingField Now this is the problem after digging so much i am not sure from where < and _BackingField is coming ? { "<name>k__BackingField":"test user", "<userId>k__BackingField":100001}

    Read the article

  • When can argv[0] have null ?

    - by andrew-dufresne
    What I have understand about passing arguments to main() from command line is that argc has a minimum value of 1 and argv[0] will always have the program name with its path in it. If arguments are provided at the command line, then argc will have a value greater than one and argv1 to argv[argc-1] will have those arguments. Now a paragraph at this link says that argv[0] will be a string containing the program's name or a null string if that is not available. Now, how and when can argv[0] have null string? I mean program name with its path will always be available so when can it be null? Writer says that "if that is not available" but when and how it is possible that program name will not be available? Thanks for your time and support. Regards

    Read the article

  • Remove specific definitions from a variable in PHP

    - by Amit
    Hi everyone, I have a PHP mail script that validates name, email address, and phone number before sending the mail. This then means that the Name, Email address, and Phone fields are Required Fields. I want to have it so that the Name and EITHER Email or Phone are required. Such that if a name and phone are inputted, it sends the mail, or if a name and an email are inputted, it also sends the email. The way the script works right now is it has several IF statements that check for (1) name, (2) email and (3) phone. Here's an example of an if statement of the code: if ( ($email == "") ) { $errors .= $emailError; // no email address entered $email_error = true; } if ( !(preg_match($match,$email)) ) { $errors .= $invalidEmailError; // checks validity of email $email_error = true; } And here's how it sends the mail: if ( !($errors) ) { mail ($to, $subject, $message, $headers); echo "<p id='correct'>"; echo "?????? ????? ??????!"; echo "</p>"; } else { if (($email_error == true)) { $errors != $phoneError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } if (($phone_error == true)) { $errors != $emailError; $errors != $invalidEmailError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>"; } This doesn't work though. Basically this is what I want to do: If no email address was entered or if it was entered incorrectly, set a variable called $email_error to be true. Then check for that variable, and if it's true, then remove the $phoneError part of the $errors variable. Man I hope I'm making some sense here. Does anyone know why this doesn't work? It reports all errors if all fields are left empty :( Thanks! Amit

    Read the article

  • ssrs 2008 programmatically add tables rows

    - by davethecoder
    Above is how my report looks, the part in yellow in hidden, and is only shown when the user clicks the + icon on the [name]. the result is basically the percentage difference from the Past [X] - [TERM] i.e there is a dropdown with, [weeks, months, days, hours] and a textbox of qty. so choosing qty = 4 and term = weeks will delivery a result set spread over 4 weeks based on the parent result sets date range and name ID I wish to populate here the number of rows, dependant on the value set by the user and the data will be from a dataset. Is it possible to dynamically add more sub rows ( like on row data bound ) if my first row is ID 123 [name], is it possible to send this value [123] to a dataset in order that all subrows are only relevant to the name with ID of 123? this is my first bash at SSRS so please no half cut answers, that just lead to more questions about the answer given :-) if this makes sense. Thanks

    Read the article

  • help with generating models from database for many to many in doctrine

    - by ajsie
    im using doctrine and i have set up some test tables to be generated into models: I want a many-to-many relationship models (3 tables converted into 3 models) (things are simplified to make the point clear) mysql tables: user: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR group: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR user_group: user_id INT // primary and foreign key to user.id group_id INT // primary and foreign key to group.id i thought that it would generate these models (from the documentation): // User.php class User extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('Group as Groups', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'group_id' ) ); } } // Group.php class Group extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('User as Users', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'user_id' ) ); } } // UserGroup.php class UserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id') ); $this->hasColumn('group_id') ); } } but it generated this: // User.php abstract class BaseUser extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'user_id')); } } // Group.php abstract class BaseGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'group_id')); } } // UserGroup.php abstract class BaseUserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id'); $this->hasColumn('group_id'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasOne('User', array( 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); $this->hasOne('Group', array( 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); } } as you can see, there is no 'refClass' in the 'User' and 'Group' models pointing to the 'UserGroup'. the 'UserGroup' table in this case is just another table from Doctrine's perspective not a reference table. I've checked my table definitions in mysql. They are correct. user_group has 2 columns (primary keys and foreign keys), each one pointing to the primary key in either User or Group. But i want the standard many-to-many relationship models in Doctrine models. I'd appreciate some help. I have struggled to figure it out for a half day now. What is wrong? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

    - by Robert Petermeier
    Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

    Read the article

  • Authorization security of ASP.NET Forms authentication

    - by Tomi
    I'm using Forms authentication in ASP.NET MVC website and I store user account login name in AuthCookie like this: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(account.Login, false); I want to ask if there is a possibility that user on client side will somehow manage to change his login name in AuthCookie and thus he will be for example impersonated as someone with higher privileges and authorized to do more actions than he is normally supposed to have. Also is it better to save in this cookie user account login name or user account ID number?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server pivots? some way to set column names to values within a row

    - by ccsimpson3
    I am building a system of multiple trackers that are going to use a lot of the same columns so there is a table for the trackers, the tracker columns, then a cross reference for which columns go with which tracker, when a user inserts a tracker row the different column values are stored in multiple rows that share the same record id and store both the value and the name of the particular column. I need to find a way to dynamically change the column name of the value to be the column name that is stored in the same row. i.e. id | value | name ------------------ 23 | red | color 23 | fast | speed needs to look like this. id | color | speed ------------------ 23 | red | fast Any help is greatly appreciated, thank you.

    Read the article

  • Generics limitation, or lack of skillz ?

    - by Two Shoes
    I want to define the following class as such: public class CollectionAttribute<E extends Collection<T>> { private String name; private E value; public CollectionAttribute(String name, E value) { this.name = name; this.value = value; } public E getValue() { return value; } public void addValue(T value) { value.add(T); } } This won't compile (cannot resolve symbol T). If I replace the class declaration with the following: public class CollectionAttribute<E extends Collection<?>> Then I can't reference the parametrized type of the collection. Am I missing something or have I reached a limitation with generics in Java ?

    Read the article

  • PHP Object Access Syntax Question with the $

    - by ImperialLion
    I've been having trouble searching for this answer because I am not quite sure how to phrase it. I am new to PHP and still getting my feet on the ground. I was writing a page with a class in it that had the property name. When I originally wrote the page there was no class so I just had a variable called $name. When I went to encapsulate it in a class I accidental changed it to be $myClass->$name. It tool me a while to realize that the syntax I needed was $myClass->name. The reason it took so long was the error I kept getting was "Attempt to access a null property" or something along those lines. The error lead me to believe it was a data population error. My question is does $myClass->$name have a valid meaning? In other words is there a time you would use this and a reason why it doesn't create a syntax error? If so what is the semantic meaning of that code? When would I use it if it is valid? If its not valid, is there a reason that it doesn't create a syntax error?

    Read the article

  • Class Property in for each

    - by KoolKabin
    Hi guys, I am running from a problem while iterating over class properties. I have my first class: class Item private _UIN as integer = 0 private _Name as string = "" private _Category as ItemCategory = new ItemCategory() public Property UIN() as integer public property Name() as string public property Category() as ItemCategory end class Now when i iterate over the class properties from following code Dim AllProps As System.Reflection.PropertyInfo() Dim PropA As System.Reflection.PropertyInfo dim ObjA as object AllProps = new Item().getType().getProperties() for each propA in AllProps ObjA = PropA.GetValue(myObj, New Object() {}) debug.write ObjA.GetType().Name next I get UIN, Name, ItemCategory but i expected UIN, Name and Category. I am a bit unclear about this and dun know why this is happening? What should i do to correct it?

    Read the article

  • Problem validating an XSD file: The content type of a derived type and that of its base must both be mixed or both be element-only

    - by Paulo Tavares
    Hi, I have following XML schema: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <schema xmlns:netconf="urn:ietf:params:xml:ns:netconf:base:1.0" targetNamespace="urn:ietf:params:xml:ns:netconf:base:1.0" ... <complexType name="dataInlineType"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="xs:anyType"/> </xs:complexContent> </complexType> <complexType name="get-config_output_type__" > <complexContent> <extension base="netconf:dataInlineType"> <sequence> <element name="data"> <complexType> <sequence> <element name="__.get-config.output.data.A__" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" /> </sequence> </complexType> </element> <element name="__.get-config.A__" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"/> </sequence> </extension> </complexContent> And I getting the folling error: cos-ct-extends.1.4.3.2.2.1.a: The content type of a derived type and that of its base must both be mixed or both be element-only. Type 'get-config_output_type__' is element only, but its base type is not. If I put both elements mixed="true" I get another error: cos-nonambig: WC[##any] and "urn:ietf:params:xml:ns:netconf:base:1.0":data (or elements from their substitution group) violate "Unique Particle Attribution". During validation against this schema, ambiguity would be created for those two particles. I using the Eclipse to validate my schema, so what can I do?

    Read the article

  • Dictionaries with more than one key per value in Python

    - by nickname
    I am attempting to create a nice interface to access a data set where each value has several possible keys. For example, suppose that I have both a number and a name for each value in the data set. I want to be able to access each value using either the number OR the name. I have considered several possible implementations: Using two separate dictionaries, one for the data values organized by number, and one for the data values organized by name. Simply assigning two keys to the same value in a dictionary. Creating dictionaries mapping each name to the corresponding number, and vice versa Attempting to create a hash function that maps each name to a number, etc. (related to the above) Creating an object to encapsulate all three pieces of data, then using one key to map dictionary keys to the objects and simply searching the dictionary to map the other key to the object. None of these seem ideal. The first seems ugly and unmaintainable. The second also seems fragile. The third/fourth seem plausible, but seem to require either much manual specification or an overly complex implementation. Finally, the fifth loses constant-time performance for one of the lookups. In C/C++, I believe that I would use pointers to reference the same piece of data from different keys. I know that the problem is rather similar to a database lookup problem by a non-key column, however, I would like (if possible), to maintain the approximate O(1) performance of Python dictionaries. What is the most Pythonic way to achieve this data structure?

    Read the article

  • django access to parent

    - by SledgehammerPL
    model: class Product(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length = 128) (...) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class Receipt(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=128) (...) components = models.ManyToManyField(Product, through='ReceiptComponent') def __unicode__(self): return self.name class ReceiptComponent(models.Model): product = models.ForeignKey(Product) receipt = models.ForeignKey(Receipt) quantity = models.FloatField(max_length=9) unit = models.ForeignKey(Unit) def __unicode__(self): return unicode(self.quantity!=0 and self.quantity or '') + ' ' + unicode(self.unit) + ' ' + self.product.genitive And now I'd like to get list of the most often useable products: ReceiptComponent.objects.values('product').annotate(Count('product')).order_by('-product__count' the example result: [{'product': 3, 'product__count': 5}, {'product': 6, 'product__count': 4}, {'product': 5, 'product__count': 3}, {'product': 7, 'product__count': 2}, {'product': 1, 'product__count': 2}, {'product': 11, 'product__count': 1}, {'product': 8, 'product__count': 1}, {'product': 4, 'product__count': 1}, {'product': 9, 'product__count': 1}] It's almost what I need. But I'd prefer having Product object not product value, because I'd like to use this in views.py for generating list.

    Read the article

  • Issues accessing an object's array values - returns null or 0s

    - by PhatNinja
    The function below should return an array of objects with this structure: TopicFrequency = { name: "Chemistry", //This is dependent on topic data: [1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12] //This would be real data }; so when I do this: myData = this.getChartData("line"); it should return two objects: {name : "Chemistry", data : [1,2,3,4,51,12,0,0, 2,1,41, 31]} {name : "Math", data : [0,0,41,4,51,12,0,0, 2,1,41, 90]} so when I do console.log(myData); it's perfect, returns exactly this. However when I do console.log(myData[0].data) it returns all 0s, not the values. I'm not sure what this issues is known as, and my question is simple what is this problem known as? Here is the full function. Somethings were hardcoded and other variables (notable server and queryContent) removed. Those parts worked fine, it is only when manipulated/retreiving the returned array's values that I run into problems. Note this is async. so not sure if that is also part of the problem. getChartData: function (chartType) { var TopicsFrequencyArray = new Array(); timePairs = this.newIntervalSet("Month"); topicList = new Array("Chemistry", "Math");//Hard coded for now var queryCopy = { //sensitive information }; for (i = 0; i < topicList.length; i++) { var TopicFrequency = { name: null, data: this.newFilledArray(12, 0) }; j = 0; TopicFrequency.name = topicList[i]; while (j < timePairs.length) { queryCopy.filter = TopicFrequency.name; //additional queryCopy parameter changes made here var request = esri.request({ url: server, content: queryCopy, handleAs: "json", load: sucess, error: fail }); j = j + 1; function sucess(response, io) { var topicCountData = 0; query = esri.urlToObject(io.url); var dateString = query.query.fromDate.replace("%", " "); dateString = dateString.replace(/-/g, "/"); dateString = dateString.split("."); date = new Date(dateString[0]); dojo.forEach(response.features, function (feature) { if (feature.properties.count > 0) { topicCountData = feature.properties.count; } TopicFrequency.data[date.getMonth()] = topicCountData; }); } function fail(error) { j = j + 1; alert("There was an unspecified error with this request"); console.log(error); } } TopicsFrequencyArray.push(TopicFrequency); } },

    Read the article

  • Spring Framework HttpRequestHandler failure

    - by sharadva
    We have an application which communicates via REST requests made by clients. The REST requests contain "region name" and a "ID" as parameters So, a request would look something like this (for a DELETE) http://host:port/regionnameID These REST requests between regions in a federation are properly URL encoded I find that these request fail if the region name has a slash ("/") in it. Then, the request would look like so http://host:port/region/nameID This is due to incorrect interpretation of the Rest URL by HttpRequesthandler when there is a '/' in the region name. Now, we have no control over clients sending REST request with "/" in the Region name. Is there any method / configuration / workaround that can be done to prevent the HttpRequestHandler from returning 404

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442  | Next Page >