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  • Casting to derived type problem in C++

    - by GONeale
    Hey there everyone, I am quite new to C++, but have worked with C# for years, however it is not helping me here! :) My problem: I have an Actor class which Ball and Peg both derive from on an objective-c iphone game I am working on. As I am testing for collision, I wish to set an instance of Ball and Peg appropriately depending on the actual runtime type of actorA or actorB. My code that tests this as follows: // Actors that collided Actor *actorA = (Actor*) bodyA->GetUserData(); Actor *actorB = (Actor*) bodyB->GetUserData(); Ball* ball; Peg* peg; if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorA)) { // true ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorB)) { ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorB); } if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorA)) { // also true?! peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorB)) { peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorB); } if (peg != NULL) { [peg hitByBall]; } Once ball and peg are set, I then proceed to run the hitByBall method (objective c). Where my problem really lies is in the casting procedurel Ball casts fine from actorA; the first if (static_cast<>) statement steps in and sets the ball pointer appropriately. The second step is to assign the appropriate type to peg. I know peg should be a Peg type and I previously know it will be actorB, however at runtime, detecting the types, I was surprised to find actually the third if (static_cast<>) statement stepped in and set this, this if statement was to check if actorA was a Peg, which we already know actorA is a Ball! Why would it have stepped here and not in the fourth if statement? The only thing I can assume is how casting works differently from c# and that is it finds that actorA which is actually of type Ball derives from Actor and then it found when static_cast<Peg*> (actorA) is performed it found Peg derives from Actor too, so this is a valid test? This could all come down to how I have misunderstood the use of static_cast. How can I achieve what I need? :) I'm really uneasy about what feels to me like a long winded brute-casting attempt here with a ton of ridiculous if statements. I'm sure there is a more elegant way to achieve a simple cast to Peg and cast to Ball dependent on actual type held in actorA and actorB. Hope someone out there can help! :) Thanks a lot.

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  • How to manage maintenance/bug-fix branches in Subversion when third-party installers are involved?

    - by Mike Spross
    We have a suite of related products written in VB6, with some C# and VB.NET projects, and all the source is kept in a single Subversion repository. We haven't been using branches in Subversion (although we do tag releases now), and simply do all development in trunk, creating new releases when the trunk is stable enough. This causes no end of grief when we release a new version, issues are found with it, and we have already begun working on new features or major changes to the trunk. In the past, we would address this in one of two ways, depending on the severity of the issues and how stable we thought the trunk was: Hurry to stabilize the trunk, fix the issues, and then release a maintenance update based on the HEAD revision, but this had the side effect of releases that fixed the bugs but introduced new issues because of half-finished features or bugfixes that were in trunk. Make customers wait until the next official release, which is usually a few months. We want to change our policies to better deal with this situation. I was considering creating a "maintenance branch" in Subversion whenever I tag an official release. Then, new development would continue in trunk, and I can periodically merge specific fixes from trunk into the maintenance branch, and create a maintenance release when enough fixes are accumulated, while we continue to work on the next major update in parallel. I know we could also have a more stable trunk and create a branch for new updates instead, but keeping current development in trunk seems simpler to me. The major problem is that while we can easily branch the source code from a release tag and recompile it to get the binaries for that release, I'm not sure how to handle the setup and installer projects. We use QSetup to create all of our setup programs, and right now when we need to modify a setup project, we just edit the project file in-place (all the setup projects and any dependencies that we don't compile ourselves are stored on a separate server, and we make sure to always compile the setup projects on that machine only). However, since we may add or remove files to the setup as our code changes, there is no guarantee that today's setup projects will work with yesterday's source code. I was going to put all the QSetup projects in Subversion to deal with this, but I see some problems with this approach. I want the creation of setup programs to be as automated as possible, and at the very least, I want a separate build machine where I can build the release that I want (grabbing the code from Subversion first), grab the setup project for that release from Subversion, recompile the setup, and then copy the setup to another place on the network for QA testing and eventual release to customers. However, when someone needs to change a setup project (to add a new dependency that trunk now requires or to make other changes), there is a problem. If they treat it like a source file and check it out on their own machine to edit it, they won't be able to add files to the project unless they first copy the files they need to add to the build machine (so they are available to other developers), then copy all the other dependencies from the build machine to their machine, making sure to match the folder structure exactly. The issue here is that QSetup uses absolute paths for any files added to a setup project. However, this means installing a bunch of setup dependencies onto development machines, which seems messy (and which could destabilize the development environment if someone accidentally runs the setup project on their machine). Also, how do we manage third-party dependencies? For example, if the current maintenance branch used MSXML 3.0 and the trunk now requires MSXML 4.0, we can't go back and create a maintenance release if we have already replaced the MSXML library on the build machine with the latest version (assuming both versions have the same filename). The only solution I can think is to either put all the third-party dependencies in Subversion along with the source code, or to make sure we put different library versions in separate folders (i.e. C:\Setup\Dependencies\MSXML\v3.0 and C:\Setup\Dependencies\MSXML\v4.0). Is one way "better" or more common than the other? Are there any best practices for dealing with this situation? Basically, if we release v2.0 of our software, we want to be able to release v2.0.1, v2.0.2, and v.2.0.3 while we work on v2.1, but the whole setup/installation project and setup dependency issue is making this more complicated than the the typical "just create a branch in Subversion and recompile as needed" answer.

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  • Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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  • Daemonize() issues on Debian

    - by djTeller
    Hi, I'm currently writing a multi-process client and a multi-treaded server for some project i have. The server is a Daemon. In order to accomplish that, i'm using the following daemonize() code: static void daemonize(void) { pid_t pid, sid; /* already a daemon */ if ( getppid() == 1 ) return; /* Fork off the parent process */ pid = fork(); if (pid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* If we got a good PID, then we can exit the parent process. */ if (pid > 0) { exit(EXIT_SUCCESS); } /* At this point we are executing as the child process */ /* Change the file mode mask */ umask(0); /* Create a new SID for the child process */ sid = setsid(); if (sid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Change the current working directory. This prevents the current directory from being locked; hence not being able to remove it. */ if ((chdir("/")) < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Redirect standard files to /dev/null */ freopen( "/dev/null", "r", stdin); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stdout); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stderr); } int main( int argc, char *argv[] ) { daemonize(); /* Now we are a daemon -- do the work for which we were paid */ return 0; } I have a strange side effect when testing the server on Debian (Ubuntu). The accept() function always fail to accept connections, the pid returned is -1 I have no idea what causing this, since in RedHat & CentOS it works well. When i remove the call to daemonize(), everything works well on Debian, when i add it back, same accept() error reproduce. I've been monitring the /proc//fd, everything looks good. Something in the daemonize() and the Debian release just doesn't seem to work. (Debian GNU/Linux 5.0, Linux 2.6.26-2-286 #1 SMP) Any idea what causing this? Thank you

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Why does Rails with Passenger/nginx only works in development mode? No logs available

    - by Michael W.
    Hey folks, I have a serious problem with one of our webservers... after having an internal alpha-testing with a mongrel/haproxy-cluster that worked well, we wanted to use nginx with passenger for our first production server (customers will access this server). However, I can only run the rails app via development mode with passenger/nginx. The app itself runs perfect with mongrel or webrick in production mode. My biggest problem with this case is that I don't find ANY information in the nginx or rails-logs (only when I use mongrel or webrick). Permissions are correct. Passenger-status shows that the app is running, but I always get the static 500.html-error page... It would be so nice if you guys could give me a hint and help me solve the problem. I put the config at the bottom of the post... This exact config works with rails_env development;but I'd like to use the production mode ;-) Thank you very much for your help! Version: Ubuntu 8.04.2 64bit / nginx-0.7.64 (compiled and installed via passenger-2.2.11) cat /opt/nginx/conf/nginx.conf user www-data; worker_processes 4; error_log logs/error.log; #pid logs/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { passenger_root /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11; passenger_ruby /usr/bin/ruby1.8; passenger_log_level 3; include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; #log_format main '$remote_addr - $remote_user [$time_local] "$request" ' # '$status $body_bytes_sent "$http_referer" ' # '"$http_user_agent" "$http_x_forwarded_for"'; access_log logs/access.log; sendfile on; #tcp_nopush on; #keepalive_timeout 0; keepalive_timeout 65; #gzip on; server { listen 80; server_name <<servername>>; root /srv/app01/public; passenger_enabled on; }

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  • Dynamically loaded jQuery with GreaseMonkey inconsistent on pages (refreshing seems to fix it)... do

    - by uprightnetizen
    Hi, I want a custom page analysis footer on every site I visit... so I've used a method to attach JQuery to unsafeWindow. I then create a floating footer on the page. I want to be able to call commands in a menu, do some processing, then put the results in the footer. Unfortunately it sometimes works, sometimes it doesn't. At least two alerts should happen in the printOutput function. Sometimes it only fires one, then it (crashes?) without error? On other pages, both alerts fire and it finds the element, but it doesn't add the extra text. (e.g. www.linode.com) Refreshing the page, then running the printOutput command again seems to always work. Does anyone know what's going on??? The userscript can be installed at: http://www.captionwizard.com/test/page_analysis.user.js // ==UserScript== // @name page_analysis // @namespace markspace // @description Page Analysis // @include http://*/* // ==/UserScript== (function() { // Add jQuery var GM_JQ = document.createElement('script'); GM_JQ.src = 'http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js'; GM_JQ.type = 'text/javascript'; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(GM_JQ); var jqueryActive = false; //Check if jQuery's loaded function GM_wait() { if(typeof unsafeWindow.jQuery == 'undefined') { window.setTimeout(GM_wait,100); } else { $ = unsafeWindow.jQuery; letsJQuery(); } } GM_wait(); function letsJQuery() { jqueryActive = true; setupOutputFooter(); } /******************************* Analysis FOOTER Functions ******************************/ function printOutput(someText) { alert('printing output'); if($('div.analysis_footer').length) { alert('is here - appending'); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } else { alert('not here - trying again'); setupOutputFooter(); $('div.analysis_footer').append('<br>' + someText); } } GM_registerMenuCommand("Test Output", testOutput, "k", "control", "k" ); function testOutput() { printOutput('testing this'); } function setupOutputFooter() { $('<div class="analysis_footer">Page Analysis Footer:</div>').appendTo('body'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('position','fixed').css('bottom', '0px').css('background-color','#F8F8F8'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('width','100%').css('color','#3B3B3B').css('font-size', '0.8em'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('font-family', '"Myriad",Verdana,Arial,Helvetica,sans-serif').css('padding', '5px'); $('div.analysis_footer').css('border-top', '1px solid black').css('text-align', 'left'); } }());

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  • Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

    - by Akash Kava
    Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

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  • How do I create a safe local development environment?

    - by docgnome
    I'm currently doing web development with another developer on a centralized development server. In the past this has worked alright, as we have two separate projects we are working on and rarely conflict. Now, however, we are adding a third (possible) developer into the mix. This is clearly going to create problems with other developers changes affecting my work and vice versa. To solve this problem, I'm thinking the best solution would be to create a virtual machine to distribute between the developers for local use. The problem I have is when it comes to the database. Given that we all develop on laptops, simply keeping a local copy of the live data is plain stupid. I've considered sanitizing the data, but I can't really figure out how to replace the real data, with data that would be representative of what people actually enter with out repeating the same information over and over again, e.g. everyone's address becomes 123 Testing Lane, Test Town, WA, 99999 or something. Is this really something to be concerned about? Are there tools to help with this sort of thing? I'm using MySQL. Ideally, if I sanitized the db it should be done from a script that I can run regularly. If I do this I'd also need a way to reduce the size of the db itself. (I figure I could select all the records created after x and whack them and all the records in corresponding tables out so that isn't really a big deal.) The second solution I've thought of is to encrypt the hard drive of the vm, but I'm unsure of how practical this is in terms of speed and also in the event of a lost/stolen laptop. If I do this, should the vm hard drive file itself be encrypted or should it be encrypted in the vm? (I'm assuming the latter as it would be portable and doesn't require the devs to have any sort of encryption capability on their OS of choice.) The third is to create a copy of the database for each developer on our development server that they are then responsible to keep the schema in sync with the canonical db by means of migration scripts or what have you. This solution seems to be the simplest but doesn't really scale as more developers are added. How do you deal with this problem?

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  • Using ImageMagick to create an image from a PDF...efficiently

    - by bigsweater
    I'm using ImageMagick to create a tiny JPG thumbnail image of an already-uploaded PDF. The code works fine. It's a WordPress widget, though this isn't necessarily WordPress specific. I'm unfamiliar with ImageMagick, so I was hoping somebody could tell me if this looks terrible or isn't following some best practices of some sort, or if I'm risking crashing the server. My questions, specifically, are: Is that image cached, or does the server have to re-generate the image every time somebody views the page? If it isn't cached, what's the best way to make sure the server doesn't have to regenerate the thumbnail? I tried to create a separate folder (/thumbs) for ImageMagick to put all the images in, instead of cluttering up the WP upload folders with images of PDFs. It kept throwing a permission error, despite 777 permissions on the folder in my testing environment. Why? Do the source/destination directories have to be the same? Am I doing anything incorrectly/inefficiently here that needs to be improved? The whole widget is on Pastebin: http://pastebin.com/WnSTEDm7 Relevant code: <?php if ( $url ) { $pdf = $url; $info = pathinfo($pdf); $filename = basename($pdf,'.'.$info['extension']); $uploads = wp_upload_dir(); $file_path = str_replace( $uploads['baseurl'], $uploads['basedir'], $url ); $dest_path = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $file_path ); $dest_url = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $pdf ); exec("convert \"{$file_path}[0]\" -colorspace RGB -geometry 60 $dest_path"); ?> <div class="entry"> <div class="widgetImg"> <p><a href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>"><?php echo "<img src='".$dest_url."' alt='".$filename."' class='blueBorder' />"; ?></a></p> </div> <div class="widgetText"> <?php echo wpautop( $desc ); ?> <p><a class="downloadLink" href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>">Download</a></p> </div> </div> <?php } ?> As you can see, the widget grabs whatever PDF is attached to the current page being viewed, creates an image of the first page of the PDF, stores it, then links to it in HTML. Thanks for any and all help!

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  • Combining FileStream and MemoryStream to avoid disk accesses/paging while receiving gigabytes of data?

    - by w128
    I'm receiving a file as a stream of byte[] data packets (total size isn't known in advance) that I need to store somewhere before processing it immediately after it's been received (I can't do the processing on the fly). Total received file size can vary from as small as 10 KB to over 4 GB. One option for storing the received data is to use a MemoryStream, i.e. a sequence of MemoryStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count) calls to store the received packets. This is very simple, but obviously will result in out of memory exception for large files. An alternative option is to use a FileStream, i.e. FileStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count). This way, no out of memory exceptions will occur, but what I'm unsure about is bad performance due to disk writes (which I don't want to occur as long as plenty of memory is still available) - I'd like to avoid disk access as much as possible, but I don't know of a way to control this. I did some testing and most of the time, there seems to be little performance difference between say 10 000 consecutive calls of MemoryStream.Write() vs FileStream.Write(), but a lot seems to depend on buffer size and the total amount of data in question (i.e the number of writes). Obviously, MemoryStream size reallocation is also a factor. Does it make sense to use a combination of MemoryStream and FileStream, i.e. write to memory stream by default, but once the total amount of data received is over e.g. 500 MB, write it to FileStream; then, read in chunks from both streams for processing the received data (first process 500 MB from the MemoryStream, dispose it, then read from FileStream)? Another solution is to use a custom memory stream implementation that doesn't require continuous address space for internal array allocation (i.e. a linked list of memory streams); this way, at least on 64-bit environments, out of memory exceptions should no longer be an issue. Con: extra work, more room for mistakes. So how do FileStream vs MemoryStream read/writes behave in terms of disk access and memory caching, i.e. data size/performance balance. I would expect that as long as enough RAM is available, FileStream would internally read/write from memory (cache) anyway, and virtual memory would take care of the rest. But I don't know how often FileStream will explicitly access a disk when being written to. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • error in encryption program

    - by Raja
    #include<iostream> #include<math.h> #include<string> using namespace std; int gcd(int n,int m) { if(m<=n && n%m ==0) return m; if(n<m) return gcd(m,n); else return gcd(m,n%m); } int REncryptText(char m) { int p = 11, q = 3; int e = 3; int n = p * q; int phi = (p - 1) * (q - 1); int check1 = gcd(e, p - 1); int check2 = gcd(e, q - 1); int check3 = gcd(e, phi); // // Compute d such that ed = 1 (mod phi) //i.e. compute d = e-1 mod phi = 3-1 mod 20 //i.e. find a value for d such that phi divides (ed-1) //i.e. find d such that 20 divides 3d-1. //Simple testing (d = 1, 2, ...) gives d = 7 // double d = Math.Pow(e, -1) % phi; int d = 7; // public key = (n,e) // (33,3) //private key = (n,d) //(33 ,7) double g = pow(m,e); int ciphertext = g %n; // Now say we want to encrypt the message m = 7, c = me mod n = 73 mod 33 = 343 mod 33 = 13. Hence the ciphertext c = 13. //double decrypt = Math.Pow(ciphertext, d) % n; return ciphertext; } int main() { char plaintext[80],str[80]; cout<<" enter the text you want to encrpt"; cin.get(plaintext,79); int l =strlen(plaintext); for ( int i =0 ; i<l ; i++) { char s = plaintext[i]; str[i]=REncryptText(s); } for ( int i =0 ; i<l ; i++) { cout<<"the encryption of string"<<endl; cout<<str[i]; } return 0; }

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  • How do I create a loop based off this array?

    - by dmanexe
    I'm trying to process this array, first testing for the presence of a check, then extrapolating the data from quantity to return a valid price. Here's the input for fixed amounts of items, with no variable quantity. <input type="checkbox" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][checked]" value="<?=$item->id?>"> <input type="hidden" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][quantity]" value="1" /> Here's the inputs for variable amounts of items. <input type="checkbox" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][checked]" value="<?=$item->id?>"> <input class="item_mult" value="0" type="text" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][quantity]" /> So, the resulting array is multidimensional. Here's an output: Array ( [1] => Array ( [quantity] => 1 ) [2] => Array ( [quantity] => 1 ) [3] => Array ( [quantity] => 1 ) ... [14] => Array ( [checked] => 14 [quantity] => 999 ) ) Here's the loop I'm using to take this array and process items checked off the form in the first place. I guess the question essentially boils down to how do I structure my conditional statement to incorporate the multi-dimensional array? foreach($field as $value): if ($value['checked'] == TRUE) { $query = $this->db->get_where('items', array('id' => $value['checked']))->row(); #Test to see if quantity input is present if ($value['quantity'] == TRUE) { $newprice = $value['quantity'] * $query->price; $totals[] = $newprice; } #Just return the base value if not else { $newprice = $query->price; $totals[] = $newprice; } } else { } ?> <p><?=$query->name?> - <?=money_format('%(#10n', $newprice)?></p> <? endforeach; ?>

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  • Flex Drag & Drop: Detecting when all data has been moved from source to destination

    - by Adam Tuttle
    I have two mx:TileList controls that I'm using to allow editing of objects in batch. The first contains a collection of all available data, and the 2nd contains the current batch. Both are bound to ArrayCollections, and using the native drag-n-drop functionality of the TileList control the data is moved from one ArrayCollection to the other when an object is dragged between them. I need to change the currentState to show & reset the batch manipulation controls when the batch count goes from 0 to n or n to 0 items. Based on the documentation, I would have thought that I should listen to the dragComplete event, but my testing shows that instead of firing after the data has been removed from the source ArrayCollection and added to the destination ArrayCollection, it fires (consistently) between these two actions. Both lists are similar to this: <mx:TileList id="srcList" dragEnabled="true" dropEnabled="true" dragMoveEnabled="true" dataProvider="{images}" dragComplete="handleDragComplete(event)" allowMultipleSelection="true" /> And here's the source of the handleDragComplete function: private function handleDragComplete(e:DragEvent):void{ trace(e.dragInitiator.name + '.dragComplete: batch.length=' + batch.length.toString()); trace(e.dragInitiator.name + '.dragComplete: images.length=' + images.length.toString()); if (batch.length > 0){ currentState = 'show'; }else{ currentState = ''; } } And lastly, here's some example output from running the code. These are all run one after the other. Case 1: The application loads with 10 objects in the first list and the batch is empty. I dragged 1 object from the source list to the batch list. srcList.dragComplete: batch.length=1 srcList.dragComplete: images.length=10 (Expected: 1,9) Clearly, the object has been added to the batch ArrayCollection but not removed from the source. Case 2: Now, I'll drag a 2nd object into the batch. srcList.dragComplete: batch.length=2 srcList.dragComplete: images.length=9 (Expected: 2,8) Firstly, we can see that images.length has changed, showing that the object that I dragged from the source list to the batch list was removed AFTER the dragComplete event fired. The same thing happens this time: The new object is added to the batch ArrayCollection (batch.length=2), the dragComplete event fires (running these traces), and then the object is removed from the source ArrayCollection. Case 3: Now, I'll drag both images from the batch list back to their original location in the source list. batchList.dragComplete: batch.length=2 batchList.dragComplete: images.length=10 (Expected: 0,10) We can see that batch.length hasn't gone down, but the source images array is back at its original length of 10. QUESTION: Am I doing something wrong? Is there another event I could listen for? (Note: I tried both DragExit and DragDrop, just to be sure, and those behave as expected, but are not what I need.) Or is there another way to get the data that I want? Or... have I found a bug in the SDK?

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  • Comet with multiple channels

    - by mark_dj
    Hello, I am writing an web app which needs to subscribe to multiple channels via javascript. I am using Atmosphere and Jersey as backend. However the jQuery plugin they work with only supports 1 channel. I've start buidling my own implementation. Now it works oke, but when i try to subscribe to 2 channels only 1 channel gets notified. Is the XMLHttpRequest blocking the rest of the XMLHttpRequests? Here's my code: function AtmosphereComet(url) { this.Connected = new signals.Signal(); this.Disconnected = new signals.Signal(); this.NewMessage = new signals.Signal(); var xhr = null; var self = this; var gotWelcomeMessage = false; var readPosition; var url = url; var onIncomingXhr = function() { if (xhr.readyState == 3) { if (xhr.status==200) // Received a message { var message = xhr.responseText; console.log(message); if(!gotWelcomeMessage && message.indexOf("") -1) { gotWelcomeMessage = true; self.Connected.dispatch(sprintf("Connected to %s", url)); } else { self.NewMessage.dispatch(message.substr(readPosition)); } readPosition = this.responseText.length; } } else if (this.readyState == 4) { self.disconnect(); } } var getXhr = function() { if ( window.location.protocol !== "file:" ) { try { return new window.XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(xhrError) {} } try { return new window.ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch(activeError) {} } this.connect = function() { xhr = getXhr(); xhr.onreadystatechange = onIncomingXhr; xhr.open("GET", url, true); xhr.send(null); } this.disconnect = function() { xhr.onreadystatechange = null; xhr.abort(); } this.send = function(message) { } } And the test code: var connection1 = AtmosphereConnection("http://192.168.1.145:9999/botenveiling/b/product/status/2", AtmosphereComet); var connection2 = AtmosphereConnection("http://192.168.1.145:9999/botenveiling/b/product/status/1", AtmosphereComet); var output = function(msg) { alert(output); }; connection1.NewMessage.add(output); connection2.NewMessage.add(output); connection1.connect(); In AtmosphereConnection I instantiate the given AtmosphereComet with "new". I iterate over the object to check if it has to methods: "send", "connect", "disconnect". The reason for this is that i can switch the implementation later on when i complete the websocket implementation :) However I think the problem rests with the XmlHttpRequest object, or am i mistaken? P.S.: signals.Signal is a js observer/notifier library: http://millermedeiros.github.com/js-signals/ Testing: Firefox 3.6.1.3

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  • Visual studio 2010 colourizers, intellisense and the rest. Where to start!!

    - by Owen
    Ok, before I begin I realize that there is a lot of documentation on this subject but I have thus far failed to get even basic colourization working for VS2010. My goal is to simply get to a point where I can open a document and everything is coloured red, from here I can implement the relevant parsing logic. Here's what I have tried/found: 1) Downloaded all the relevent SDK's and such- Found the ook sample (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/ookLanguage) - didn't build, didn't work. 2) Knowing almost nothing about MEF read through "Implementing a Language Service By Using the Managed Package Framework" - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb166533(v=VS.100).aspx This was pretty much a copy and paste of all the basic stuff here, and also updating some references which were out of date with the sample see: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsx/thread/a310fe67-afd2-4592-b295-3fc86fec7996 Now, I have got to a point where when running the package MEF appears to have hooked up correctly (I know this because with the debugger open I can see that the packages initialize and FDoIdle methods are being hit). When I open a file of the extension I have registered with the ProvideLanguageExtensionAttribute everything dies as if in an endless loop, yet no debug symbols hit (though they are loaded). Looking at the ook sample and the MEF examples they seem to be totally different approaches to the same problem. In the ook sample there are notions of Clasifications and Completion controllers which aren't mentioned in the MEF example. Also, they don't seem to create a Package or Language service, so I have no idea how it should work? With the MEF example, my assumption is that I need to hook into the "IScanner.ScanTokenAndProvideInfoAboutIt" to provide syntax highlighting? Which would be fine if I could ever hit this method. So my first question I guess is which approach should I be taking here? Or do they both somehow tie together? My second questions is, where can I find a basic fully working project that implements bog standard basic syntax highlighting and intellisense or VS2010? Thirdly, in the MEF example when I created a Package there were a bunch of test projects created for me. I appears that the integration tests launch the VS2010 test rig somehow, but the test fails. It would be good to write my service with tests but I have no idea what/how I can test each interaction so any references to testing Language services would be helpful. Finally, please throw any resource/book links my way that I may find useful. Cheers, Chris. N.B. Sorry I realize this is part question part rant, but I have never been so confused.

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  • Insert Registration Data in MySQL using PHP

    - by J M 4
    I may not be asking this in the best way possible but i will try my hardest. Thank you ahead of time for your help: I am creating an enrollment website which allows an individual OR manager to enroll for medical testing services for professional athletes. I will NOT be using the site as a query DB which anybody can view information stored within the database. The information is instead simply stored, and passed along in a CSV format to our network provider so they can use as needed after the fact. There are two possible scenarios: Scenario 1 - Individual Enrollment If an individual athlete chooses to enroll him/herself, they enter their personal information, submit their payment information (credit/bank account) for processing, and their information is stored in an online database as Athlete1. Scenario 2 - Manager Enrollment If a manager chooses to enroll several athletes he manages/ promotes for, he enters his personal information, then enters the personal information for each athlete he wishes to pay for (name, address, ssn, dob, etc), then submits payment information for ALL athletes he is enrolling. This number can range from 1 single athlete, up to 20 athletes per single enrollment (he can return and complete a follow up enrollment for additional athletes). Initially, I was building the database to house ALL information regardless of enrollment type in a single table which housed over 400 columns (think 20 athletes with over 10 fields per athlete such as name, dob, ssn, etc). Now that I think about it more, I believe create multiple tables (manager(s), athlete(s)) may be a better idea here but still not quite sure how to go about it for the following very important reasons: Issue 1 If I list the manager as the parent table, I am afraid the individual enrolling athlete will not show up in the primary table and will not be included in the overall registration file which needs to be sent on to the network providers. Issue 2 All athletes being enrolled by a manager are being stored in SESSION as F1FirstName, F2FirstName where F1 and F2 relate to the id of the fighter. I am not sure technically speaking how to store multiple pieces of information within the same table under separate rows using PHP. For example, all athleteswill have a first name. The very basic theory of what i am trying to do is: If number_of_athletes 1, store F1FirstName in row 1, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F1LastName in row 1, column 2 of Table "Athletes"; store F2FirstName in row 2, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F2LastName in row 2, column 2 of table "Athletes"; Does this make sense? I know this question is very long and probably difficult so i appreciate the guidance.

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  • Using jQuery to store basic text string in mySQL base?

    - by Kenny Bones
    Could someone point me in the right direction here? Basically, I've got this jQuery code snippet: $('.bggallery_images').click(function () { var newBG = "url('" + $(this).attr('src'); var fullpath = $(this).attr('src'); var filename = fullpath.replace('img/Bakgrunner/', ''); $('#wrapper').css('background-image', newBG); // Lagre til SQL $.ajax({ url: "save_to_db.php", // The url to your function to handle saving to the db data: filename, dataType: 'Text', type: 'POST', // Could also use GET if you prefer success: function (data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); }); This is being run when I click a certain button. So it's actually within a click handler. If I understand this correctly, this snippet takes the source if the image I just clicked and strips it so I end up with only the filename. If I do an alert(filename), I get the filename only. So this is working ok. But then, it does an ajax call to a php file called "save_to_db.php" and sends data: filename. This is correct right? Then, it does a callback which does an alert + data. Does this seem correct so far? Cause my php file looks like this: <?php require("dbconnect2.php"); $uploadstring = $_POST['filename']; $sessionid = $_SESSION['id']; echo ($sessionid); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = '$uploadstring' WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id']); mysql_close(); ?> When I click the image, the jQuery snippet fires and I get the results of this php file as output for the alert box. I think that the variables somehow are empty. Because notice the echo($sessionid); which is a variable I've created just to test what the session ID is. And it returns nothing. What could be the issue here? Edit: I just tried to echo out the $uploadstring variable as well and it also returns nothing. It's like the jQuery snippet doesn't even pass the variable on to the php file?

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  • issues regarding UAC prompt

    - by peter
    I want to implement a UAC prompt for an application in visualc++ the operating system is 32bit x7460(2processor) Windowsserver 2008 the exe is myproject.exe through manifest.. Here for testing i wl build the application in Windows XP OS and copy the exe in to system containg the Windowsserver 2008 machine and replace it So what i did is i added a manifest like this name of that is myproject.exe.manifest My project has 3 folders like Headerfile,Resourcefile and Source file.I added this manifest(myproject.exe.manifest) in the Sourcefile folder containing other cpp and c code <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <assemblyIdentity version="4.0" processorArchitecture="X7460" name="myproject" type="win32"/> <description>myproject Problem</description> <!-- Identify the application security requirements. --> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v2"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator" uiAccess="false"/> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> then i added this line of code in Resourcefile(.rc).Means one header file is there(Myproject.h).I added the line of code there #define MANIFEST_RESOURCE_ID 1 MANIFEST_RESOURCE_ID RT_MANIFEST "myproject.exe.manifest" Finally i did the following step Under Project, select Properties. 3. In Properties, select Manifest Tool, and then select Input and Output. 4. Add in the name of your application manifest file under Additional manifest files. 5. Rebuild your application. But i am getting lot of Syntax errors Is there any problems in the way which i followed.If i commented the line #define MANIFEST_RESOURCE_ID 1 MANIFEST_RESOURCE_ID RT_MANIFEST "myproject.exe.manifest" which added in Myproject.h for adding values in .rc file there willnot any error other than this general error c1010070: Failed to load and parse the manifest. The system cannot find the file specified. .\myproject.exe.manifest How to enable UAC prompt through programming

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  • Bitmap brightness issue in c++

    - by Suriyan Suresh
    I have used the following code to adjust the image brightness, i am testing this application in Samsung BADA Platform and its SDK, While i am running this application in bada simulator it never ends runs infinity. Please point out the mistake in the code int BitmapWidth = 0, BitmapHeight = 0; result r = E_SUCCESS; BufferInfo myBuffer; Osp::Media::Image *pImage = null; Osp::Graphics::Canvas *pCanvas = null; Osp::Graphics::Rectangle *pRect = null; String path("/Media/Images/tom1.jpg"); pImage = new Osp::Media::Image(); r = pImage->Construct(); pBitmap2 = pImage->DecodeN(path, BITMAP_PIXEL_FORMAT_ARGB8888,LCD_WIDTH, LCD_HEIGHT); BitmapWidth = pBitmap2->GetWidth(); BitmapHeight = pBitmap2->GetHeight(); pBitmap2->Lock( myBuffer); int nVal = 0; int stride = myBuffer.pitch; byte *p= (byte *)(void *)myBuffer.pPixels; int nWidth = BitmapWidth *3; int nOffset = stride - BitmapWidth*4; for (int y = 0; y < BitmapHeight; ++y) { for (int x = 0; x < nWidth; ++x) { nVal = (int) (p[0] + nBrightness); if (nVal < 0) nVal = 0; if (nVal > 255) nVal = 255; p[0] = (byte) nVal; ++p; } p+= nOffset; } pBitmap2->Unlock(); pCanvas = GetCanvasN(); // Step 3: Create Rectangle pRect = new Osp::Graphics::Rectangle(0, 0, LCD_WIDTH, LCD_HEIGHT); r = pCanvas->DrawBitmap(*pRect, *pBitmap2); pCanvas->Show(); RequestRedraw(true); delete pBitmap2; delete pCanvas; delete pRect;

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  • C++ class member functions instantiated by traits

    - by Jive Dadson
    I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched Stack Overflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instantiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits that are tested at runtime. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state information was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. The compiler (VC++ 2008) always complained that things didn't match. I would yell, "SFINAE, you moron!" but the moron is probably me. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

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  • Techniques for querying a set of object in-memory in a Java application

    - by Edd Grant
    Hi All, We have a system which performs a 'coarse search' by invoking an interface on another system which returns a set of Java objects. Once we have received the search results I need to be able to further filter the resulting Java objects based on certain criteria describing the state of the attributes (e.g. from the initial objects return all objects where x.y z && a.b == c). The criteria used to filter the set of objects each time is partially user configurable, by this I mean that users will be able to select the values and ranges to match on but the attributes they can pick from will be a fixed set. The data sets are likely to contain <= 10,000 objects for each search. The search will be executed manually by the application user base probably no more than 2000 times a day (approx). It's probably worth mentioning that all the objects in the result set are known domain object classes which have Hibernate and JPA annotations describing their structure and relationship. Off the top of my head I can think of 3 ways of doing this: For each search persist the initial result set objects in our database, then use Hibernate to re-query them using the finer grained criteria. Use an in-memory Database (such as hsqldb?) to query and refine the initial result set. Write some custom code which iterates the initial result set and pulls out the desired records. Option 1 seems to involve a lot of toing and froing across a network to a physical Database (Oracle 10g) which might result in a lot of network and disk activity. It would also require the results from each search to be isolated from other result sets to ensure that different searches don't interfere with each other. Option 2 seems like a good idea in principle as it would allow me to do the finer query in memory and would not require the persistence of result data which would only be discarded after the search was complete. Gut feeling is that this could be pretty performant too but might result in larger memory overheads (which is fine as we can be pretty flexible on the amount of memory our JVM gets). Option 3 could be very performant but is something I would like to avoid as any code we write would require such careful testing that the time taken to acheive something flexible and robust enough would probably be prohibitive. I don't have time to prototype all 3 ideas so I am looking for comments people may have on the 3 options above, plus any further ideas I have not considered, to help me decide which idea might be most suitable. I'm currently leaning toward option 2 (in memory database) so would be keen to hear from people with experience of querying POJOs in memory too. Hopefully I have described the situation in enough detail but don't hesitate to ask if any further information is required to better understand the scenario. Cheers, Edd

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  • Unable to find assembly, C#

    - by PlasmaCube
    So, here's the deal. I've got two ASP.NET applications, both of which use SQLServer Session State management. They also both use the same server. I've got a custom session class in an external DLL, which fully implements serialization, and which both applications have referenced. Each application, in turn, has a class which inherits from the DLL class, and both applications use their own respective classes for their session state. Now, what I was trying to accomplish was that if you wanted to go to the other application, it could look in the session (they all use the same session key) and treat the existing object there as the base (the one from the DLL), extract whatever login info you need, then overwrite the session object with your own. Unfortunately, when the second application attempts to read the session, it seems that it looks for the DLL of the first application, and when it can't find it, it throws an exception. Is there a flaw in my logic? Here's an example: // Global.asax of the 1st app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Session.Add( "UserSessionKey", new FirstUserSession()); // FirstUserSession inherits from BaseUserSession } Now the second application: // Global.asax of 2nd app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Session["UserSessionKey"] != null) { BaseUserSession existing = (BaseUserSession)Session["UserSessionKey"]; SecondUserSession session = new SecondUserSession(); // This also inherits from BaseUserSession session.Authenticated = existing.Authenticated; session.Id = existing.Id; session.Role = existing.Role; Session.Add("UserSessionKey", session); } else { Session.Add("UserSessionKey", new SecondUserSession()); } } Here's the exception stack trace. In this case, "MyCBC" is the real name of the first app, and "ASPTesting" is the second app. [SerializationException: Unable to find assembly 'MyCBC, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'.] System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryAssemblyInfo.GetAssembly() +1871092 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.GetType(BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, String name) +7545734 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap..ctor(String objectName, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +120 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap.Create(String name, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +52 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryObjectWithMapTyped record) +190 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryHeaderEnum binaryHeaderEnum) +61 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.Run() +253 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.Deserialize(HeaderHandler handler, __BinaryParser serParser, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +168 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter.Deserialize(Stream serializationStream, HeaderHandler handler, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +203 System.Web.Util.AltSerialization.ReadValueFromStream(BinaryReader reader) +788 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.ReadValueFromStreamWithAssert() +55 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.DeserializeItem(String name, Boolean check) +281 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.get_Item(String name) +19 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionStateContainer.get_Item(String name) +13 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionState.get_Item(String name) +13 ASPTesting._Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Documents and Settings\sarsstu\My Documents\Projects\Testing\ASPTesting\ASPTesting\Default.aspx.cs:20 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +14 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +35 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +50 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +627 Thanks to everyone in advance.

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  • What do I need to distribute (keys, certs) for Python w/ SSL-socket connection?

    - by fandingo
    I'm trying to write a generic server-client application that will be able to exchange data amongst servers. I've read over quite a few OpenSSL documents, and I have successfully setup my own CA and created a cert (and private key) for testing purposes. I'm stuck with Python 2.3, so I can't use the standard "ssl" library. Instead, I'm stuck with PyOpenSSL, which doesn't seem bad, but there aren't many documents out there about it. My question isn't really about getting it working. I'm more confused about the certificates and where they need to go. Here are my two programs that do work: Server: #!/bin/env python from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER|SSL.VERIFY_FAIL_IF_NO_PEER_CERT, verify_cb) # ?????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('./Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('Dmgr-cert.pem') # ?????? ctx.load_verify_locations('./CAcert.pem') server = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) server.bind(('', 50000)) server.listen(3) a, b = server.accept() c = a.recv(1024) print(c) Client: from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER, verify_cb) # ?????????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/private/Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/Dmgr-cert.pem') # ????????? ctx.load_verify_locations('/home/justin/code/work/CA/CAcert.pem') sock = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) sock.connect(('10.0.0.3', 50000)) a = Tester(2, 2) b = pickle.dumps(a) sock.send("Hello, world") sock.flush() sock.send(b) sock.shutdown() sock.close() I found this information from ftp://ftp.pbone.net/mirror/ftp.pld-linux.org/dists/2.0/PLD/i586/PLD/RPMS/python-pyOpenSSL-examples-0.6-2.i586.rpm which contains some example scripts. As you might gather, I don't fully understand the sections between the " # ????????." I don't get why the certificate and private key are needed on both the client and server. I'm not sure where each should go, but shouldn't I only need to distribute one part of the key (probably the public part)? It undermines the purpose of having asymmetric keys if you still need both on each server, right? I tried alternating removing either the pkey or cert on either box, and I get the following error no matter which I remove: OpenSSL.SSL.Error: [('SSL routines', 'SSL3_READ_BYTES', 'sslv3 alert handshake failure'), ('SSL routines', 'SSL3_WRITE_BYTES', 'ssl handshake failure')] Could someone explain if this is the expected behavior for SSL. Do I really need to distribute the private key and public cert to all my clients? I'm trying to avoid any huge security problems, and leaking private keys would tend to be a big one... Thanks for the help!

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  • javascript multidimensional array?

    - by megapool020
    Hi there, I hope I can make myself clear in English and in what I want to create. I first start with what I want. I want to make a IBANcalculator that can generate 1-n IBANnumbers and also validate a given IBANnumber. IBANnumbers are used in many countries for payment and the tool I want to make can be used to generate the numbers for testing purpose. On wikipedia (Dutch site) I found a list with countries and their way of defining the IBANnumber. What I want to do it to make a kind of an array that holds all the countries with their name, the code, there IBANlength, the bankingformat and the account format. The array needs to be used to: Generate a select list (for selecting a country) used to check part for generating numbers used to check part for validating number I don't know if an array is the best way, but that's so far the most knowledge I have. I allready made a table like this that holds the info (this table isn't used anyware, but it was a good way for me to show you what I have in mind about how the structure is): <table> <tr> <td>countryname</td> <td>country code</td> <td>valid IBAN length</td> <td>Bank/Branch Code (check1, bank, branch)</td> <td>Account Number (check2, number, check3)</td> <tr> <tr> <td>Andorra</td> <td>AD</td> <td>24</td> <td>0 4n 4n</td> <td>0 12 0 </td> <tr> <tr> <td>België</td> <td>BE</td> <td>16</td> <td>0 3n 0 </td> <td>0 7n 2n</td> <tr> <tr> <td>Bosnië-Herzegovina</td> <td>BA</td> <td>20</td> <td>0 3n 3n</td> <td>0 8n 2n</td> <tr> </table> and many more ;-) I hope someone can help me with this. Tnx in advance

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