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  • FluentNHibernate, getting 1 column from another table

    - by puffpio
    We're using FluentNHibernate and we have run into a problem where our object model requires data from two tables like so: public class MyModel { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual int FooId { get; set; } public virtual string FooName { get; set; } } Where there is a MyModel table that has Id, Name, and FooId as a foreign key into the Foo table. The Foo tables contains Id and FooName. This problem is very similar to another post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1896645/nhibernate-join-tables-and-get-single-column-from-other-table but I am trying to figure out how to do it with FluentNHibernate. I can make the Id, Name, and FooId very easily..but mapping FooName I am having trouble with. This is my class map: public class MyModelClassMap : ClassMap<MyModel> { public MyModelClassMap() { this.Id(a => a.Id).Column("AccountId").GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.Map(a => a.Name); this.Map(a => a.FooId); // my attempt to map FooName but it doesn't work this.Join("Foo", join => join.KeyColumn("FooId").Map(a => a.FooName)); } } with that mapping I get this error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has invalid child element 'join' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. List of possible elements expected: 'joined-subclass, loader, sql-insert, sql-update, sql-delete, filter, resultset, query, sql-query' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. any ideas?

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  • Binding, Prefixes and generated HTML

    - by Vman
    MVC newbie question re binders. Supposing I have two strongly typed partial actions that happen to have a model attributes with the same name, and are rendered in the same containing page i.e.: Class Friend {string Name {get; set ;} DateTime DOB {get; set ;}} Class Foe {string Name {get; set ;} string ReasonForDislike {get; set ;}} Both partials will have a line: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Name) %> And associated controller actions: public ActionResult SaveFriend(Friend friend) public ActionResult SaveFoe(Foe foe) My problem is that both will render on my containing page with the same id (of course, bad for lots of reasons). I’m aware of the [Bind] attribute that allows me add a prefix, resulting in code: public ActionResult SaveFriend([Bind(Prefix = “friend”)] Friend friend) <%= Html.TextBox("friend.Name", Model. Name) %> //Boo, no TextBoxFor :( But this still doesn’t cut it. I can just about tolerate the loss of the strongly typed TextBoxFor helpers but I’ve yet to get clientside validation to work with prefixes: I’ve tried: <%= Html.ValidationMessage("friend.Name") %> ...and every other variant I can think of. I seem to need the model to be aware of the prefix in both directions but bind only applies when mapping the inbound request. It seems (to me) a common scenario but I’m struggling to find examples out there. What am I missing! Thanks in advance.

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  • Fluent NHibernate Map to private/protected Field that has no exposing Property

    - by Jon Erickson
    I have the following Person and Gender classes (I don't really, but the example is simplified to get my point across), using NHibernate (Fluent NHibernate) I want to map the Database Column "GenderId" [INT] value to the protected int _genderId field in my Person class. How do I do this? FYI, the mappings and the domain objects are in separate assemblies. public class Person : Entity { protected int _genderId; public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; private set; } public virtual Gender Gender { get { return Gender.FromId(_genderId); } } } public class Gender : EnumerationBase<Gender> { public static Gender Male = new Gender(1, "Male"); public static Gender Female = new Gender(2, "Female"); private static readonly Gender[] _genders = new[] { Male, Female }; private Gender(int id, string name) { Id = id; Name = name; } public int Id { get; private set; } public string Name { get; private set; } public static Gender FromId(int id) { return _genders.Where(x => x.Id == id).SingleOrDefault(); } }

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  • Editing list properties using DataGridview

    - by toom
    Ok, I have my custom class: public class FileItem : INotifyPropertyChanged { int id=0; string value=""; public int Id { get { return id; } set { id = value; Changed("Id"); } } public string Value { get { return value; } set { this.value = value; Changed("Value"); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void Changed(string name) { if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(name)); } } public BindingList<FileItem> FilesystemEntries = new BindingList<FileItem>(); And I have DatagridView1 with DataSource set to FilesystemEntries: binding.DataSource = FilesystemEntries; Already I can Add and remove rows - these chnages are reflected on collection. However, Value and Id are not saved into bidning list when i change them in DataGridView, id is always 0 and value is "". How can I make this work? Do I need to implement some interface to FileItem to allow editing properties? ReadOnly of DGV is set to false, same to all columns. Editing, Deleting and Changing are enabled.

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  • Using CSS max-height on an outer div to force scroll on an inner-div.

    - by Jay Neely
    I have an outer div with a variable height (and max-height) that's set with a specific pixel amount by JavaScript, containing two divs within. The 1st div is intended to hold a variable amount of content, e.g. a list of links. It has no height set. The 2nd div is intended to hold a fixed amount of content, and has a specific height set. Right now, the max-height isn't working. The 1st div keeps growing, even with overflow: auto; set, and pushes the 2nd div below it outside the bounds of the outer div. How can I make it so that when the 1st div gets too large for the outer div to contain both it and the fixed-height 2nd div, the 1st div will start to scroll? Example page: http://thevastdesign.com/scrollTest.html Thanks for any help. I'd appreciate a CSS solution the most, even if it requires some hacks. It only has to work in Firefox 3+, IE8, and IE7. Ideas?

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  • Stored procedure using cursor in mySql.

    - by RAVI
    I wrote a stored procedure using cursor in mysql but that procedure is taking 10 second to fetch the result while that result set have only 450 records so, I want to know that why that proedure is taking that much time to fetch tha record. procedure as below: DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS curdemo123// CREATE PROCEDURE curdemo123(IN Branchcode int,IN vYear int,IN vMonth int) BEGIN DECLARE EndOfData,tempamount INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempsaledate CHAR(12); DECLARE tempspot_rate DOUBLE; DECLARE var1,totalrow INT DEFAULT 1; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR select SQL_CALC_FOUND_ROWS ad.agentCode,ad.planType,ad.amount,ad.date from adplan_detailstbl ad where ad.branchCode=Branchcode and (ad.date between '2009-12-1' and '2009-12-31')order by ad.NUM_ID asc; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLSTATE '02000' SET EndOfData = 1; DROP TEMPORARY TABLE IF EXISTS temptable; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE temptable (agent_code varchar(15), plan_type char(12),sale double,spot_rate double default '0.0', dATE DATE); OPEN cur1; SET totalrow=FOUND_ROWS(); while var1 <= totalrow DO fetch cur1 into tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempsaledate; IF((tempplantype='Unit Plan' OR tempplantype='MIP') OR tempplantype='STUP') then select spotRate into tempspot_rate from spot_amount where ((monthCode=vMonth and year=vYear) and ((agentCode=tempagent_code and branchCode=Branchcode) and (planType=tempplantype))); INSERT INTO temptable VALUES(tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempspot_rate,tempsaledate); else INSERT INTO temptable(agent_code,plan_type,sale,dATE) VALUES(tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempsaledate); END IF; SET var1=var1+1; END WHILE; CLOSE cur1; select * from temptable; DROP TABLE temptable; END // DELIMITER ;

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  • .net runtime type casting when using reflection

    - by Mike
    I have need to cast a generic list of a concrete type to a generic list of an interface that the concrete types implement. This interface list is a property on an object and I am assigning the value using reflection. I only know the value at runtime. Below is a simple code example of what I am trying to accomplish: public void EmployeeTest() { IList<Employee> initialStaff = new List<Employee> { new Employee("John Smith"), new Employee("Jane Doe") }; Company testCompany = new Company("Acme Inc"); //testCompany.Staff = initialStaff; PropertyInfo staffProperty = testCompany.GetType().GetProperty("Staff"); staffProperty.SetValue(testCompany, (staffProperty.PropertyType)initialStaff, null); } Classes are defined like so: public class Company { private string _name; public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } private IList<IEmployee> _staff; public IList<IEmployee> Staff { get { return _staff; } set { _staff = value; } } public Company(string name) { _name = name; } } public class Employee : IEmployee { private string _name; public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } public Employee(string name) { _name = name; } } public interface IEmployee { string Name { get; set; } } Any thoughts? I am using .NET 4.0. Would the new covariant or contravariant features help? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to define a "complicated" ComputedColumn in SQL Server?

    - by Slauma
    SQL Server Beginner question: I'm trying to introduce a computed column in SQL Server (2008). In the table designer of SQL Server Management Studio I can do this, but the designer only offers me one single edit cell to define the expression for this column. Since my computed column will be rather complicated (depending on several database fields and with some case differentiations) I'd like to have a more comfortable and maintainable way to enter the column definition (including line breaks for formatting and so on). I've seen there is an option to define functions in SQL Server (scalar value or table value functions). Is it perhaps better to define such a function and use this function as the column specification? And what kind of function (scalar value, table value)? To make a simplified example: I have two database columns: DateTime1 (smalldatetime, NULL) DateTime2 (smalldatetime, NULL) Now I want to define a computed column "Status" which can have four possible values. In Dummy language: if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 0 else if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NOT NULL) set Status = 1 else if (DateTime1 IS NOT NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 2 else set Status = 3 Ideally I would like to have a function GetStatus() which can access the different column values of the table row which I want to compute the value of "Status" for, and then only define the computed column specification as GetStatus() without parameters. Is that possible at all? Or what is the best way to work with "complicated" computed column definitions? Thank you for tips in advance!

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  • IEnumerable.Cast not calling cast overload

    - by Martin Neal
    I'm not understanding something about the way .Cast works. I have an explicit (though implicit also fails) cast defined which seems to work when I use it "regularly", but not when I try to use .Cast. Why? Here is some compilable code that demonstrates my problem. public class Class1 { public string prop1 { get; set; } public int prop2 { get; set; } public static explicit operator Class2(Class1 c1) { return new Class2() { prop1 = c1.prop1, prop2 = c1.prop2 }; } } public class Class2 { public string prop1 { get; set; } public int prop2 { get; set; } } void Main() { Class1[] c1 = new Class1[] { new Class1() {prop1 = "asdf",prop2 = 1}}; //works Class2 c2 = (Class2)c1[0]; //doesn't work: Compiles, but throws at run-time //InvalidCastException: Unable to cast object of type 'Class1' to type 'Class2'. Class2 c3 = c1.Cast<Class2>().First(); }

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  • Powershell 2.0 Hang When Run From MsDeploy pre- post- ops using c/

    - by SonOfNun
    I am trying to invoke powershell during the preSync call in a MSDeploy command, but powershell does not exit the process after it has been called. The command (from command line): "tools/MSDeploy/msdeploy.exe" -verb:sync -preSync:runCommand="powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command C:/MyInstallPath/deploy.ps1 Set-WebAppOffline Uninstall-Service ",waitInterval=60000 -usechecksum -source:dirPath="build/for-deployment" -dest:wmsvc=BLUEPRINT-X86,username=deployer,password=deployer,dirPath=C:/MyInstallPath I used a hack here (http://therightstuff.de/2010/02/06/How-We-Practice-Continuous-Integration-And-Deployment-With-MSDeploy.aspx) that gets the powershell process and kills it but that didn't work. I also tried taskkill and the sysinternals equivalent, but nothing will kill the process so that MSDeploy errors out. The command is executed, but then just sits there. Any ideas what might be causing powershell to hang like this? I have found a few other similar issues around the web but no answers. Environment is Win 2K3, using Powershell 2.0. UPDATE: Here is a .vbs script I use to invoke my powershell command now. Invoke using 'cscript.exe path/to/script.vbs': Option Explicit Dim oShell, appCmd,oShellExec Set oShell = CreateObject("WScript.Shell") appCmd = "powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command ""&{ . c:/development/materialstesting/deploy/web/deploy.ps1; Set-WebAppOffline }"" " Set oShellExec = oShell.Exec(appCmd) oShellExec.StdIn.Close()

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  • codegen:nullValue vs msprop:nullValue

    - by Ken
    Ok, I have datasets that I created way back in 1.1 framework to which we used codegen:nullValue within the XSD to handle null values. However if I open one of these datasets with vs 2005 (i.e. 2.0 framework) and add a column, it removes the codegen setting from the entire xsd but adds in msprop:nullValue However, unlike previous years, I noticed this time the proper property code was NOT over riden from returning the null value specified in codegen as it was doing in the past. Meaning the msprop appears to be creating the proper code behind the scenes (See example). Anyone know of any other differnces? Should I be concerned with deploying a new xsd, WITHOUT the codegen code but instead with the msprop xml? Example: Original creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property New creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property BUT is there anything else that might be occuring that I am NOT seeing thus MAKING me re-enter all the codegen settings? THANKS!

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  • DOS Batch file to echo a specific line number

    - by Lee
    So for the second part of my current dilemma, I have a list of folders in "c:\file_list.txt". I need to be able to extract them (well, echo them with some mods) based on the line number because this batch script is being called by an iterative macro process. I'm passing the line number as a parameter. @echo off setlocal enabledelayedexpansion set /a counter=0 set /a %%a = "" for /f "usebackq delims=" %%a in (c:\file_list.txt) do (if "!counter!"=="%1" goto :printme & set /a counter+=1) :printme echo %%a which gives me an output of "%a". Doh! So, I've tried echoing !a! (result: "ECHO is off."); I've tried echoing %a (result: a) I figured the easy thing to do would be to modify the "head.bat" code found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/130116/dos-batch-commands-to-read-first-line-from-text-file except rather than echoing every line - I'd just echo the last line found. Not as simple as one might think. I've noticed that my counter is staying at zero for some reason; I'm wondering if the "set /a counter+=1" is doing what I think it's doing.

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  • Extract 2 numbers preceded with two different strings in a paragrapf using TCL Regular Expression

    - by Madhu
    Hi, I need to extract two different numbers preceded by two different strings. Employee Id-- Employee16(I need 16) and Employee links-- Employee links:2 (I need 2). Source String looks like following: Employee16, Employee name is QueenRose Working for 46w0d Billing is Distributed 65537 assigned tasks, 0 reordered, 0 unassigned 0 discarded, 0 lost received, 5/255 load received sequence unavailable, 0xC2E7 sent sequence Employee links: 2 active, 0 inactive (max not set, min not set) Dt3/5/10:0, since 46w0d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:10, since 21w0d, no tasks rcvd Employee is currently working in Hardware section. Employee19, Employee name is Edward11 Working for 48w4d Billing is Distributed 206801498 assigned tasks, 0 reordered, 0 unassigned 655372 discarded, 0 lost received, 9/255 load received sequence unavailable, 0x23CA sent sequence Employee links: 7 active, 0 inactive (max not set, min not set) Dt3/5/10:0, since 47w2d, tasks pending Dt3/5/10:10, since 28w6d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:11, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:12, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:13, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:14, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:15, since 7w2d, no tasks pending Employee is currently working in Hardware sectione. Employee6 (inactive) Employee links: 2 Dt3/5/10:0 (inactive) Dt3/5/10:10 (inactive) Employee7 (inactive) Employee links: 2 Dt3/5/10:0 (inactive) Dt3/5/10:10 (inactive) Tried with the following: Multilink(\d+)[^\n\r]*[^M]*Member links:\s+(\d+) But is not listing all the Ids and links. Can anybody help me getting this? Thanks in advance, Madhu.

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  • preparing SMS app for Android KitKat

    - by Pmsc
    in agreement with the recent post from Android Developers http://android-developers.blogspot.pt/2013/10/getting-your-sms-apps-ready-for-kitkat.html ,I was trying to prepare my app to the new android version, but encountered a problem with the part they suggest to create a dialog to let the user set the app as the default application to handle SMS's : Android Developers Post public class ComposeSmsActivity extends Activity { @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); final String myPackageName = getPackageName(); if (!Telephony.Sms.getDefaultSmsPackage(this).equals(myPackageName)) { // App is not default. // Show the "not currently set as the default SMS app" interface View viewGroup = findViewById(R.id.not_default_app); viewGroup.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); // Set up a button that allows the user to change the default SMS app Button button = (Button) findViewById(R.id.change_default_app); button.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Intent intent = new Intent(Telephony.Sms.Intents.ACTION_CHANGE_DEFAULT); intent.putExtra(Telephony.Sms.Intents.EXTRA_PACKAGE_NAME, myPackageName); startActivity(intent); } }); } else { // App is the default. // Hide the "not currently set as the default SMS app" interface View viewGroup = findViewById(R.id.not_default_app); viewGroup.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } } the code itself in pretty much straightforward, but I'm unable to access to Telephony.Sms.getDefaultSmsPackage because it says that Telephony cannot be resolved, and I can't find any import or declaration that would fix that. Can anyone please help? Thanks in advanced.

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  • IBOutlet instances are (null) after loading from NIB

    - by Zach
    I am working on an iPhone app and am getting (null) references to IBOutlet fields in my controller. I have a UIViewController subclass that is set as the File's Owner in my XIB. I have a set of UI elements that are wired into the controller. After loading from NIB and attempting to set properties on those UI elements, I find that they are (null). To clarify, some code: ExpandSearchPageController.h: @interface ExpandSearchPageController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; } -(void)checkTextField; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; ExpandSearchPageController.m: @implementation ExpandSearchPageController @synthesize completeMessageView; -(void)checkTextField { NSLog(@"text field: %@",completeMessageView); } ExpandSearchPageController is set as the File's Owner for ExpandSearchPage.xib. ExpandSearchPage.xib's UITextView is wired to the completeMessageView. When I call ExpandSearchPageController * searchExpanderPage = [[ExpandSearchPageController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ExpandSearchPage" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [searchExpanderPage checkTextField]; the result is "text field: (null)" Sorry if this is a total newb question, but I guess I'm still a newb at iPhone programming! Thanks in advance!

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  • Hide table rows if Cookie is there

    - by kuswantin
    Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Auto-implemented getters and setters vs. public fields

    - by tclem
    I see a lot of example code for C# classes that does this: public class Point { public int x { get; set; } public int y { get; set; } } Or, in older code, the same with an explicit private backing value and without the new auto-implemented properties: public class Point { private int _x; private int _y; public int x { get { return _x; } set { _x = value; } } public int y { get { return _y; } set { _y = value; } } } My question is why. Is there any functional difference between doing the above and just making these members public fields, like below? public class Point { public int x; public int y; } To be clear, I understand the value of getters and setters when you need to do some translation of the underlying data. But in cases where you're just passing the values through, it seems needlessly verbose.

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  • SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

    - by Mike
    I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

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  • Mail "Can't continue" for a AppleScript function

    - by Paul J. Lucas
    I'm trying to write an AppleScript for use with Mail (on Snow Leopard) to save image attachments of messages to a folder. The main part of the AppleScript is: property ImageExtensionList : {"jpg", "jpeg"} property PicturesFolder : path to pictures folder as text property SaveFolderName : "Fetched" property SaveFolder : PicturesFolder & SaveFolderName tell application "Mail" set theMessages to the selection repeat with theMessage in theMessages repeat with theAttachment in every mail attachment of theMessage set attachmentFileName to theAttachment's name if isImageFileName(attachmentFileName) then set attachmentPathName to SaveFolder & attachmmentFileName save theAttachment in getNonexistantFile(attachmentPathName) end if end repeat end repeat end tell on isImageFileName(theFileName) set dot to offset of "." in theFileName if dot > 0 then set theExtension to text (dot + 1) thru -1 of theFileName return theExtension is in ImageExtensionList end if return false end isImageFileName When run, I get the error: error "Mail got an error: Can’t continue isImageFileName." number -1708 where error -1708 is: Event wasnt handled by an Apple event handler. However, if I copy/paste the isImageFileName() into another script like: property imageExtensionList : {"jpg", "jpeg"} on isImageFileName(theFileName) set dot to offset of "." in theFileName if dot > 0 then set theExtension to text (dot + 1) thru -1 of theFileName return theExtension is in ImageExtensionList end if return false end isImageFileName if isImageFileName("foo.jpg") then return true else return false end if it works fine. Why does Mail complain about this?

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  • Execute Stored Procedure from Classic ASP

    - by Jaco Pretorius
    For some fantastic reason I find myself debugging a problem in a Classic ASP page (at least 10 years of my life lost in the last 2 days). I'm trying to execute a stored procedure which contains some OUT parameters. The problem is that one of the OUT parameters is not being populated when the stored procedure returns. I can execute the stored proc from SQL management studio (this is 2008) and all the values are being set and returned exactly as expected. declare @inVar1 varchar(255) declare @inVar2 varchar(255) declare @outVar1 varchar(255) declare @outVar2 varchar(255) SET @inVar2 = 'someValue' exec theStoredProc @inVar1 , @inVar2 , @outVar1 OUT, @outVar2 OUT print '@outVar1=' + @outVar1 print '@outVar2=' + @outVar2 Works great. Fantastic. Perfect. The exact values that I'm expecting are being returned and printed out. Right, since I'm trying to debug a Classic ASP page I copied the code into a VBScript file to try and narrow down the problem. Here is what I came up with: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open "xxx" Set objCommandSec = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") objCommandSec.ActiveConnection = Conn objCommandSec.CommandType = 4 objCommandSec.CommandText = "theStoredProc " objCommandSec.Parameters.Refresh objCommandSec.Parameters(2) = "someValue" objCommandSec.Execute MsgBox(objCommandSec.Parameters(3)) Doesn't work. Not even a little bit. (Another ten years of my life down the drain) The third parameter is simply NULL - which is what I'm experiencing in the Classic ASP page as well. Could someone shed some light on this? Am I completely daft for thinking that the classic ASP code would be the same as the VBScript code? I think it's using the same scripting engine and syntax so I should be ok, but I'm not 100% sure. The result I'm seeing from my VBScript is the same as I'm seeing in ASP.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Conditional validation

    - by Peter Stegnar
    How to use data annotations to do a conditional validation on model? For example, lets say we have the following model (Person and Senior): public class Person { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")] public string Name { get; set; } public bool IsSenior { get; set; } public Senior Senior { get; set; } } public class Senior { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")]//this should be conditional validation, based on the "IsSenior" value public string Description { get; set; } } And the following view: <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> I would like to be the "Senior.Description" property conditional required field based on the selection of the "IsSenior" propery (true - required). How to implement conditional validation in ASP.NET MVC 2 with data annotations? UPDATE Found nice solution. Look below.

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  • Confused about UIView frame property

    - by slowfungus
    I'm building a prototype iPad app that draws diagrams. I have the following view hierarchy: UIView UIScrollView DiagramView : UIView TabBar NavigationBar And a UIViewController subclass holding all that together. Before drawing the diagram the first time I calculate the dimensions of the diagram, and set the DiagramView frame to that size, and the content size of the scrollview as well. -(void)recalculateBounds { [renderer diagram:diagram shouldDraw:NO]; SQXRect diagramRect = SQXMakeRect(0.0,0.0,[diagram bounds].size.width,[diagram bounds].size.height); self.frame = diagramRect; [(UIScrollView*)[self superview] setContentSize:diagramRect.size]; } I should disclose that the frame is being set to about 1500 x 3500 which i know is ridiculous. I just want to focus on some other parts of the app before I get into optimizing the render code. This works beautifully, except that the rect being passed to drawRect is not the size that I set, and my drawing is getting clipped at the bottom. Its close the size i set, but bigger in width, and shorter in height. Also of note, is the fact that if I force the frame to be much bigger than what I know the diagram needs, then the drawRect:rect is big enough, and no clipping occurs. Of course this has me wondering if the frame size needs to take into account some other screen real estate like the toolbars but my reading of the docs tells me the frame is in superview coordinates, which would be the scrollview so I reckon I need to worry about such things. Any idea what is causing this discrepancy?

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  • Login problem with php

    - by shinod
    I want to prevent multiple log in with same log in credentials simultaneously. So I made a column login_status and set it to 1 when some one logging in and change to 0 when logging out besides I set session after successful logged in. If user won't click on log out(in case of user close tab or because of some network problem) it doesn't update database and then one can't use that log in credentials again. So I use a ajax call to set current time stamp in database with related log in credentials and it is updated in each 2 minutes if user not navigate from that page. Then if some one attempts to log in with same log in credentials, it will check these time stamp if column login_status is 1, then if the time stamp is older than 3 minutes it allows the log in.Then it solving that problem. But the new problem is if user closes the tab or browser window and after 3 minutes one can log in with same log in credentials from somewhere and if the previous user open that page automatically it will log in as session is already set. How can I prevent this.

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  • help me to choose between two software architecture

    - by alex
    // stupid title, but I could not think anything smarter I have a code (see below, sorry for long code but it's very-very simple): namespace Option1 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public AuxClass1 AuxClass { get { return _auxClass; } set { _auxClass = value; } } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } namespace Option2 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public string Field1 { get { return _auxClass.Field1; } set { _auxClass.Field1 = value; } } public void Method1() { _auxClass.Method1(); } public void Method2() { _auxClass.Method2(); } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { // Option1 Option1.MainClass mainClass1 = new Option1.MainClass(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Field1 = "string1"; mainClass1.AuxClass.Method1(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Method2(); // Option2 Option2.MainClass mainClass2 = new Option2.MainClass(); mainClass2.Field1 = "string2"; mainClass2.Method1(); mainClass2.Method2(); Console.ReadKey(); } } What option (option1 or option2) do you prefer ? In which cases should I use option1 or option2 ? Is there any special name for option1 or option2 (composition, aggregation) ?

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  • Alpha animation bug on button

    - by RaiderJ
    I have animations that fade in a Button (alpha from 0 to 1) and fade out a button (alpha from 1 to 0). This part is all working fine. Button A triggers the fade in of Button B. Button B triggers the fade out of itself. Button B totally covers up Button A. The idea is that Button B contains an image that is used like an information popup. Button A is touched and Button B fades in on top. When Button B is touched it fades itself out again. Initially, Button B's visibility is set INVISIBLE and when the fade in animation is complete, it is set to VISIBLE. When Button B is clicked it fades out and then I set the visibility to INVISIBLE. The problem is that after Button B has faded out, and it is set INVISIBLE, it is still clickable and even though it is not visible, and touches are not received by Button A. I have tried removing Button B from the parent and re-adding it after the animation is completed, and this allows for touches to reach Button A, but only once. After that button B is not longer touchable.

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