Search Results

Search found 59230 results on 2370 pages for 'character set'.

Page 438/2370 | < Previous Page | 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445  | Next Page >

  • .NET Error with Dynamic T-SQL

    - by Phillip Theriault
    I am trying to create a TableAdapter in .NET using a stored procedure, but I'm getting an error "Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'". I have narrowed down the problem in the stored procedure to the following lines: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber BETWEEN 1 and 10' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' @NumRows is an input parameter that defaults to 0. However, if I remove either of those lines everything works fine (both WHERE clauses work fine by themselves when there is no IF/ELSE statement). It almost looks like .NET is ignoring the IF/ELSE and attempting to add the WHERE clause twice. It also works fine if I change it like so: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N'' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' One of the WHERE clauses has been removed, and there's no longer a conflict on the .NET side. So I'm pretty sure it has to do with the 2 WHERE clauses, and not with anything else. The sproc runs perfectly fine in SQL Server, and it even runs in .NET despite the error if I click "Preview Data". The only problem is that it won't auto-populate the list of fields, which I need for creating a report. Has anybody seen this before and have a suggestion?

    Read the article

  • Extract 2 numbers preceded with two different strings in a paragrapf using TCL Regular Expression

    - by Madhu
    Hi, I need to extract two different numbers preceded by two different strings. Employee Id-- Employee16(I need 16) and Employee links-- Employee links:2 (I need 2). Source String looks like following: Employee16, Employee name is QueenRose Working for 46w0d Billing is Distributed 65537 assigned tasks, 0 reordered, 0 unassigned 0 discarded, 0 lost received, 5/255 load received sequence unavailable, 0xC2E7 sent sequence Employee links: 2 active, 0 inactive (max not set, min not set) Dt3/5/10:0, since 46w0d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:10, since 21w0d, no tasks rcvd Employee is currently working in Hardware section. Employee19, Employee name is Edward11 Working for 48w4d Billing is Distributed 206801498 assigned tasks, 0 reordered, 0 unassigned 655372 discarded, 0 lost received, 9/255 load received sequence unavailable, 0x23CA sent sequence Employee links: 7 active, 0 inactive (max not set, min not set) Dt3/5/10:0, since 47w2d, tasks pending Dt3/5/10:10, since 28w6d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:11, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:12, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:13, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:14, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:15, since 7w2d, no tasks pending Employee is currently working in Hardware sectione. Employee6 (inactive) Employee links: 2 Dt3/5/10:0 (inactive) Dt3/5/10:10 (inactive) Employee7 (inactive) Employee links: 2 Dt3/5/10:0 (inactive) Dt3/5/10:10 (inactive) Tried with the following: Multilink(\d+)[^\n\r]*[^M]*Member links:\s+(\d+) But is not listing all the Ids and links. Can anybody help me getting this? Thanks in advance, Madhu.

    Read the article

  • IBOutlet instances are (null) after loading from NIB

    - by Zach
    I am working on an iPhone app and am getting (null) references to IBOutlet fields in my controller. I have a UIViewController subclass that is set as the File's Owner in my XIB. I have a set of UI elements that are wired into the controller. After loading from NIB and attempting to set properties on those UI elements, I find that they are (null). To clarify, some code: ExpandSearchPageController.h: @interface ExpandSearchPageController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; } -(void)checkTextField; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; ExpandSearchPageController.m: @implementation ExpandSearchPageController @synthesize completeMessageView; -(void)checkTextField { NSLog(@"text field: %@",completeMessageView); } ExpandSearchPageController is set as the File's Owner for ExpandSearchPage.xib. ExpandSearchPage.xib's UITextView is wired to the completeMessageView. When I call ExpandSearchPageController * searchExpanderPage = [[ExpandSearchPageController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ExpandSearchPage" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [searchExpanderPage checkTextField]; the result is "text field: (null)" Sorry if this is a total newb question, but I guess I'm still a newb at iPhone programming! Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • codegen:nullValue vs msprop:nullValue

    - by Ken
    Ok, I have datasets that I created way back in 1.1 framework to which we used codegen:nullValue within the XSD to handle null values. However if I open one of these datasets with vs 2005 (i.e. 2.0 framework) and add a column, it removes the codegen setting from the entire xsd but adds in msprop:nullValue However, unlike previous years, I noticed this time the proper property code was NOT over riden from returning the null value specified in codegen as it was doing in the past. Meaning the msprop appears to be creating the proper code behind the scenes (See example). Anyone know of any other differnces? Should I be concerned with deploying a new xsd, WITHOUT the codegen code but instead with the msprop xml? Example: Original creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property New creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property BUT is there anything else that might be occuring that I am NOT seeing thus MAKING me re-enter all the codegen settings? THANKS!

    Read the article

  • MySQL default value based on view

    - by Jake
    Basically I have a bunch of views based on a simple discriminator column (eg. CREATE VIEW tablename AS SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE discrcolumn = "discriminator value"). Upon inserting a new row into this view, it should insert "discriminator value" into discrcolumn. I tried this, but apparently MySQL doesn't figure this out itself, as it throws an error "Field of view viewname underlying table does not have a default value". The discriminator column is set to NOT NULL of course. How do I mend this? Perhaps a pre-insert trigger? UPDATE: Triggers won't work on views, see below comment. Would it work to create a trigger on the table which uses a variable, and set that variable at establishing the connection? For each connection the value of that variable would be the same, but it could differ from other connections. EDIT: This appears to work... Setup: CREATE TRIGGER insert_[tablename] BEFORE INSERT ON [tablename] FOR EACH ROW SET NEW.[discrcolumn] = @variable Runtime: SET @variable = [descrvalue]; INSERT INTO [viewname] ([columnlist]) VALUES ([values]);

    Read the article

  • Transitioning from Domain Authentication to SQL Server Authentication

    - by Albert Perrien
    Greetings all, I've run into a problem that has me stumped. I've put together a database in SQL Server Express, and I'm having a strange permissions problem. The database is on my development machine with a domain user: DOMAIN\albertp. My development database server is set for "SQL Server and Windows Authentication" mode. I can edit and query my database without any problems when I log in using Windows Authentication. However, when I log in to any user that uses SQL Server authentication (Including sa) I get this message when I run queries against my database. SELECT * FROM [Testing].[dbo].[AuditingReport] I get: Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 1 Login failed for user 'auditor'. I'm logged into the server from SQL Server Management Studio as 'auditor' and I don't see anything in the error log about the login failure. I've already run: Use Testing; Grant All to auditor; Go And I still get the same error. What permissions do I have to set for the database to be usable by others outside of my personal domain login? Or am I looking at the wrong problem? My ultimate goal is to have the database be accessible from a set of PHP pages, using a either a common login (hence 'auditor') or a login specific to a set of individual users.

    Read the article

  • Excel VBA ComboBox2 doesn't get the right content

    - by Marc
    Hi, I'm having a problem with the content of a combobox. On my userform, there are 3 comboboxes. Depending on the chosen item from combobox1, combobox2 should display either set 1 or set 2. The same will be happening with the content of combobox 3, which depends upon the combination of chosen items from combobox 1 and 2. However, I'm running into problems with combobox 2, which is always populated by set 2, even if I select the item in combobox 1 that should generate set 1 in the second combobox. This is the code I used: Private Sub UserForm_Initialize() With ComboBox1 .Clear .AddItem "In contrast" .AddItem "Eng?" .AddItem "Trillers" .AddItem "Natuur(lijk)" .AddItem "Muziektrafiek" End With If ComboBox1.Value = "In contrast" Then GoTo LineComboBox1Set1 End If If ComboBox1.Value = "Eng?" Then GoTo LineComboBox1set2 End If If ComboBox1.Value = "Trillers" Then GoTo LineComboBox1set2 End If If ComboBox1.Value = "Natuur(lijk)" Then GoTo LineComboBox1set2 End If If ComboBox1.Value = "Muziektrafiek" Then GoTo LineComboBox1set2 End If LineComboBox1Set1: With ComboBox2 .Clear .AddItem "Op verkenning" .AddItem "Gehoord? Gezien?" .AddItem "On stage" .AddItem "Creabende" .AddItem "Ingeblikt" End With LineComboBox1set2: With ComboBox2 .Clear .AddItem "Op verkenning" .AddItem "Gehoord? Gezien?" .AddItem "On stage" .AddItem "Creabende" .AddItem "Ingeblikt" .AddItem "Speak up" .AddItem "In de kijker" End With Can anyone help me on this one? Thanks a lot in advance!! Kind regards, Marc

    Read the article

  • how to automate the testing of a text based menu

    - by Reagan Penner
    Hi there, I have a text based menu running on a remote Linux host. I am using expect to ssh into this host and would like to figure out how to interact with the menus. Interaction involves arrowing up, down and using the enter and back arrow keys. For example, Disconnect Data Collection > Utilities > Save Changes When you enter the system Disconnect is highlighted. So simply pressing enter twice you can disconnect from the system. Second enter confirms the disconnect. The following code will ssh into my system and bring up the menu. If I remove the expect eof and try to send "\r" thinking that this would select the Disconnect menu option I get the following error: "write() failed to write anything - will sleep(1) and retry..." #!/usr/bin/expect set env(TERM) vt100 set password abc123 set ipaddr 162.116.11.100 set timeout -1 match_max -d 100000 spawn ssh root@$ipaddr exp_internal 1 expect "*password:*" send -- "$password\r" expect "Last login: *\r" expect eof I have looked at the virterm and term_expect examples but cannot figure out how to tweak them to work for me. If someone can point me in the right direction I would greatly appreciate it. What I need to know is can I interact with a text based menu system and what is the correct method for doing this, examples if any exist would be great. thanks, -reagan

    Read the article

  • OpenAL not playing on Max OS X 10.6

    - by Grimless
    I've been working on getting a basic audio engine running on my Mac using OpenAL. It seems relatively straightforward after working with OpenGL for a while. However, despite the fact that I believe I have everything in place, my sound will not play. Here is the order of things I am doing: //Creating a new device ALCdevice* device = alcOpenDevice(NULL); //Create a new context with the device ALCcontext* context = alcCreateContext(device, NULL); //Make that context current alcMakeContextCurrent(context); //Do lots of loading stuff to bring in an AIFF... voodooAIFF = myAIFFLoader("name"); //Then use that data ALuint buf; alGenBuffers(1, &buf); //Check for errors, but none happen... //Bind buffer data. alBufferData(buf, voodooAIFF.format, voodooAIFF.data, voodooAIFF.sizeInBytes, voodooAIFF.frequency); //Check for errors, none here either... //Create Source ALuint src; alGenSources(1, &src); //Error check again, no errors. //Bind source to buffer alSourcei(src, AL_BUFFER, buf); //Set reference distance alSourcei(sourceID, AL_REFERENCE_DISTANCE, 1); //Set source attributes including gain and pitch to 1 (direction set to 0,0,0) //Check for errors, nothing... //Set up listener attributes. //Check for errors, no errors. //Begin playing. alSourcePlay(src); Observe silence... Any insight, what steps am I missing here?

    Read the article

  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

    Read the article

  • how to use a parameterized function for the Default Binding of a Sql Server column

    - by Walt Gaber
    I have a table that catalogs selected files from multiple sources. I want to record whether a file is a duplicate of a previously cataloged file at the time the new file is cataloged. I have a column in my table (“primary_duplicate”) to record each entry as ‘P’ (primary) or ‘D’ (duplicate). I would like to provide a Default Binding for this column that would check for other occurrences of this file (i.e. name, length, timestamp) at the time the new file is being recorded. I have created a function that performs this check (see “GetPrimaryDuplicate” below). But I don’t know how to bind this function which requires three parameters to the table’s “primary_duplicate” column as its Default Binding. I would like to avoid using a trigger. I currently have a stored procedure used to insert new records that performs this check. But I would like to ensure that the flag is set correctly if an insert is performed outside of this stored procedure. How can I call this function with values from the row that is being inserted? USE [MyDatabase] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog]( [id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [catalog_timestamp] [datetime] NOT NULL, [primary_duplicate] nchar NOT NULL, [name] nvarchar NULL, [length] [bigint] NULL, [timestamp] [datetime] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_id] DEFAULT (newid()) FOR [id] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_catalog_timestamp] DEFAULT (getdate()) FOR [catalog_timestamp] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_primary_duplicate] DEFAULT (N'GetPrimaryDuplicate(name, length, timestamp)') FOR [primary_duplicate] GO USE [MyDatabase] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[GetPrimaryDuplicate] ( @name nvarchar(255), @length bigint, @timestamp datetime ) RETURNS nchar(1) AS BEGIN DECLARE @c int SELECT @c = COUNT(*) FROM FileCatalog WHERE name=@name and length=@length and timestamp=@timestamp and primary_duplicate = 'P' IF @c > 0 RETURN 'D' -- Duplicate RETURN 'P' -- Primary END GO

    Read the article

  • Hide table rows if Cookie is there

    - by kuswantin
    Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Get the last checked checkboxes...

    - by Sara
    Hi everyone, I'm not sure how to accomplish this issue which has been confusing me for a few days. I have a form that updates a user record in MySQL when a checkbox is checked. Now, this is how my form does this: if (isset($_POST['Update'])) { $paymentr = $_POST['paymentr']; //put checkboxes array into variable $paymentr2 = implode(', ', $paymentr); //implode array for mysql $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentreceived=NULL"; $result = mysql_query($query); $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentdate='0000-00-00'"; $result = mysql_query($query); $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentreceived='Yes' WHERE id IN ($paymentr2)"; $result = mysql_query($query); $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentdate=NOW() WHERE id IN ($paymentr2)"; $result = mysql_query($query); foreach ($paymentr as $v) { //should collect last updated records and put them into variable for emailing. $query = "SELECT id, refid, affid FROM transactions WHERE id = '$v'"; $result = mysql_query($query) or die("Query Failed: ".mysql_errno()." - ".mysql_error()."<BR>\n$query<BR>\n"); $trans = mysql_fetch_array($result, MYSQL_ASSOC); $transactions .= '<br>User ID:'.$trans['id'].' -- '.$trans['refid'].' -- '.$trans['affid'].'<br>'; } } Unfortunately, it then updates ALL the user records with the latest date which is not what I want it to do. The alternative I thought of was, via Javascript, giving the checkbox a value that would be dynamically updated when the user selected it. Then, only THOSE checkboxes would be put into the array. Is this possible? Is there a better solution? I'm not even sure I could wrap my brain around how to do that WITH Javascript. Does the answer perhaps lie in how my mysql code is written? Thanks - I sincerely appreciate it!!!

    Read the article

  • How to change the behavior of string objects in web service calls via Windows Communication Foundati

    - by Geri Langlois
    I have third party api's which require string values to be submitted as empty strings. On an asp.net page I can use this code (abbreviated here) and it works fine: public class Customer { private string addr1 = ""; public string Addr1 { get {return addr1;} set {addr1 = value;} } private string addr2 = ""; public string Addr2 { get {return addr2;} set {addr2 = value;} } private string city = ""; public string City { get {return city;} set {city = value;} } } Customer cust = new Customer(); cust.Addr1 = "1 Main St."; cust.City = "Hartford"; int custno = CustomerController.InsertCustomer(cust); The Addr2 field, which was not initialized is still an empty string when inserted. However, using the same code but called it through a web service based on Windows Communication Foundation the Addr2 field is null. Is there a way (or setting) where all string fields, even if uninitialized, would return an empty string (unless, of course, a value was set).

    Read the article

  • VB.NET class inherits a base class and implements an interface issue (works in C#)

    - by 300 baud
    I am trying to create a class in VB.NET which inherits a base abstract class and also implements an interface. The interface declares a string property called Description. The base class contains a string property called Description. The main class inherits the base class and implements the interface. The existence of the Description property in the base class fulfills the interface requirements. This works fine in C# but causes issues in VB.NET. First, here is an example of the C# code which works: public interface IFoo { string Description { get; set; } } public abstract class FooBase { public string Description { get; set; } } public class MyFoo : FooBase, IFoo { } Now here is the VB.NET version which gives a compiler error: Public Interface IFoo Property Description() As String End Interface Public MustInherit Class FooBase Private _Description As String Public Property Description() As String Get Return _Description End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _Description = value End Set End Property End Class Public Class MyFoo Inherits FooBase Implements IFoo End Class If I make the base class (FooBase) implement the interface and add the Implements IFoo.Description to the property all is good, but I do not want the base class to implement the interface. The compiler error is: Class 'MyFoo' must implement 'Property Description() As String' for interface 'IFoo'. Implementing property must have matching 'ReadOnly' or 'WriteOnly' specifiers. Can VB.NET not handle this, or do I need to change my syntax somewhere to get this to work?

    Read the article

  • Confused about UIView frame property

    - by slowfungus
    I'm building a prototype iPad app that draws diagrams. I have the following view hierarchy: UIView UIScrollView DiagramView : UIView TabBar NavigationBar And a UIViewController subclass holding all that together. Before drawing the diagram the first time I calculate the dimensions of the diagram, and set the DiagramView frame to that size, and the content size of the scrollview as well. -(void)recalculateBounds { [renderer diagram:diagram shouldDraw:NO]; SQXRect diagramRect = SQXMakeRect(0.0,0.0,[diagram bounds].size.width,[diagram bounds].size.height); self.frame = diagramRect; [(UIScrollView*)[self superview] setContentSize:diagramRect.size]; } I should disclose that the frame is being set to about 1500 x 3500 which i know is ridiculous. I just want to focus on some other parts of the app before I get into optimizing the render code. This works beautifully, except that the rect being passed to drawRect is not the size that I set, and my drawing is getting clipped at the bottom. Its close the size i set, but bigger in width, and shorter in height. Also of note, is the fact that if I force the frame to be much bigger than what I know the diagram needs, then the drawRect:rect is big enough, and no clipping occurs. Of course this has me wondering if the frame size needs to take into account some other screen real estate like the toolbars but my reading of the docs tells me the frame is in superview coordinates, which would be the scrollview so I reckon I need to worry about such things. Any idea what is causing this discrepancy?

    Read the article

  • Setting acquired location to a text view: How to maintain?

    - by Mark
    Hi, I have built an app for the Motorola Droid which should automatically update a server with the phone's location. After the user performs a particular task on the main activity screen, an alarm is set to update the user's location periodically, using a service. The alarm is explicitly stopped when the user completes another task. Thing is, I have set up a location manager within the main activity's onCreate() method which is supposed to place the first acquired lat/long into two textview fields. Even though the manifest is set up for acquiring coarse and fine coords and I'm using requestLocationUpdates (String provider, long minTime, float minDistance, LocationListener listener), with minTime and minDistance set to zero, I'm not seeing the coords coming up on the screen. With that, I'm not recording any locations on the server. When I seed the textviews with sample coords, they are being recorded fine on the server. I am not at a computer that can run the IDE, so don't currently have the code, but am desperate for some help on this. One other thing is that the main activity screen calls a photography app before the user manually clicks "send data". I'm suspicious that I may need to override the main activity's onResume() method to do this location acquisition. Please help, thanks. Mark.

    Read the article

  • Javascript timezone solution needed(taking into account the actual difference in UTC timestamps)

    - by user198729
    I have unix timestamps from time zone X which is not known, the current timestamp(now()) in TZ X is known 1275143019, how to approach a javascript function so that it can generate the datetime in the users current TZ in the format 2010-05-29 15:32:35 ? UPDATE I'm not a unix timestamp expert,if unix timestamp is always the same in different TZ, then I have to change the question a little,so that the current datetime in TZ X is known(like 2010-05-29 22:32:28),and the other datetime is also in this format,how to convert them to the user's TZ based on the difference between now() ? UPDATE Something strange from MySQL: On server: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 18:34:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275143674 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) On local: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 22:41:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275144091 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Why the difference between now() (2010-05-29 22:41:30-2010-05-29 18:34:30=6hours) and UNIX_TIMESTAMP() (1275144091 - 1275143674 = 417seconds) is not the same ?

    Read the article

  • Using "wildcards" in a vlist array to delete rows in Excel

    - by KMinner
    Good Morning All, I'm trying to setup a vba macro to delete all user IDs out of a spreadsheet that do not start with designated prefixes (e.g. US, A1, VM, etc). The below block of code was found on the Code Library and looks to be what I need but there is one problem: When I enter in UserID prefixes into the vlist fields, it treats them as absolute rather then a part of the string that I want to keep. Is there a way to incorporate wildcards into a vlist? Sub Example1() Dim vList Dim lLastRow As Long, lCounter As Long Dim rngToCheck As Range, rngFound As Range, rngToDelete As Range Application.ScreenUpdating = False With Sheet1 lLastRow = Get_Last_Row(.Cells) If lLastRow > 1 Then vList = Array("US", "A1", "EG", "VM") 'we don't want to delete our header row With .Range("A2:A" & lLastRow) For lCounter = LBound(vList) To UBound(vList) Set rngFound = .Find( _ what:=vList(lCounter), _ lookat:=xlWhole, _ searchorder:=xlByRows, _ searchdirection:=xlNext, _ MatchCase:=True) 'check if we found a value we want to keep If rngFound Is Nothing Then 'there are no cells to keep with this value If rngToDelete Is Nothing Then Set rngToDelete = .Cells Else 'if there are no cells with a different value then 'we will get an error On Error Resume Next If rngToDelete Is Nothing Then Set rngToDelete = .ColumnDifferences(Comparison:=rngFound) Else Set rngToDelete = Intersect(rngToDelete, .ColumnDifferences(Comparison:=rngFound)) End If On Error GoTo 0 End If Next lCounter End With If Not rngToDelete Is Nothing Then rngToDelete.EntireRow.Delete End If End With Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub

    Read the article

  • MVC4 - how to vaildate a drop down list?

    - by Grant Roy
    I have a .Net MVC4 model / view with a number of [Required] fields, one of which is selected via a drop down list, "Content_CreatedBy" [the first code block below]. Client side validation fires on all fields except the DDL [although server side validation does not allow no entry in DDL]. I have tried validating on the DDL text as well its numeric value but niether fire on the client side. Can anyone see what I am doing wrong? Thanks Model [Required] [Display(Name = "Author")] [ForeignKey("ContentContrib")] [Range(1, 99, ErrorMessage = "Author field is required.")] public virtual int Content_CreatedBy { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Date")] public virtual DateTime Content_CreatedDate { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] [Display(Name = "Source / Notes ")] [StringLength(10, MinimumLength = 3)] public virtual string Content_Sources { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Keywords")] [StringLength(50, MinimumLength = 3)] public virtual string Content_KeyWords { get; set; } VIEW <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy, new { @class="whitelabel"}) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("Content_CreatedBy", String.Empty) @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy) </div>

    Read the article

  • Git from localhost to remotehost with a team of three

    - by Mark McDonnell
    Hi, I'm completely new to Git. I've only just worked out how to use Github in a basic way (e.g. push my local file changes to Github - so I've not done 'pulling' down of content from Github and 'merging' it into my localhost version or anything like that). I had a look over at this existing question - Git: localhost remote development remote production - but I think it may have been a bit advanced for me at this stage as I didn't quite understand the terminology that most of the people were using. What I would like to achieve is to have a local server set-up that my team of developers can all 'push' to/'pull' from etc. And then have that local server upload any updated files automatically to our web server so we could see the updates live in the browser. I'm happy to get a server set-up in the office running Mac OSX Server and then installing Git on it and then getting the devs to write a shell script to push to the remote server but only if it was fairly easy for the devs local git to push to this new local server. I'm not a network engineer so I don't know what would need to be set-up for that to work, I know obviously we could set-up the server to be accessible via a local ip address like 192.168.0.xxx but not sure how that works with pushing to a git repository on that server? Would that literally be something like doing this on my local machine: git remote add MyGitFile git://192.168.0.xxx/MyGitFile.git ? Any ideas or advice you can give to a total Git newbie trying to help his team get a better work flow. Kind regards, Mark

    Read the article

  • Is this WPF error handling a good idea ?

    - by Adiel
    I have a multi threaded wpf application with various HW interfaces. I want to react to several HW failures that can happen. For example : one of the interfaces is a temperature sensor and i want that from a certain temp. a meesage would appear and notify the user that it happened. i came up with the follwing design : /// <summary> /// This logic reacts to errors that occur during the system run. /// The reaction is set by the component that raised the error. /// </summary> public class ErrorHandlingLogic : Logic { } the above class would consume ErrorEventData that holds all the information about the error that occurred. public class ErrorEventData : IEventData { #region public enum public enum ErrorReaction { } #endregion public enum #region Private Data Memebers and props private ErrorReaction m_ErrorReaction; public ErrorReaction ErrorReactionValue { get { return m_ErrorReaction; } set { m_ErrorReaction = value; } } private string m_Msg; public string Msg { get { return m_Msg; } set { m_Msg = value; } } private string m_ComponentName; public string ComponentName { get { return m_ComponentName; } set { m_ComponentName = value; } } #endregion Private Data Memebers and props public ErrorEventData(ErrorReaction reaction, string msg, string componenetName) { m_ErrorReaction = reaction; m_Msg = msg; m_ComponentName = componenetName; } } the above ErrorHandlingLogic would decide what to do with the ErrorEventData sent to him from various components of the application. if needed it would be forwarded to the GUI to display a message to the user. so what do you think is it a good design ? thanks, Adiel.

    Read the article

  • How to Return Variable for all tests to use Unittest

    - by chrissygormley
    Hello, I have a Python script and I am trying to set a variable so that if the first test fail's the rest of then will be set to fail. The script I have so far is: class Tests(): def function: result function.......... def errorHandle(self): return self.error def sudsPass(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals(): self.error = True self.errorHandle() assert True else: self.error = False self.errorHandle() assert False def sudsFail(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals() or self.error == False: assert False else: assert True class GetStreamUri(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.sudsPass() class GetStreamUriProtocolFail(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.stream.Transport.Protocol = "NoValue" self.errorHandle() self.sudsFail() if __name__ == '__main__': unittest.main() I am trying to get self.error to be set to False if the first test fail. I understand that it is being set in another test but I was hoping someone could help me find a solution to this problem using some other means. Thanks PS. Please ignore the strange tests. There is a problem with the error handling at the moment.

    Read the article

  • Creating PowerShell Automatic Variables from C#

    - by Uros Calakovic
    I trying to make automatic variables available to Excel VBA (like ActiveSheet or ActiveCell) also available to PowerShell as 'automatic variables'. PowerShell engine is hosted in an Excel VSTO add-in and Excel.Application is available to it as Globals.ThisAddin.Application. I found this thread here on StackOverflow and started created PSVariable derived classes like: public class ActiveCell : PSVariable { public ActiveCell(string name) : base(name) { } public override object Value { get { return Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveCell; } } } public class ActiveSheet : PSVariable { public ActiveSheet(string name) : base(name) { } public override object Value { get { return Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveSheet; } } } and adding their instances to the current POwerShell session: runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(new ActiveCell("ActiveCell")); runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(new ActiveSheet("ActiveSheet")); This works and I am able to use those variables from PowerShell as $ActiveCell and $ActiveSheet (their value change as Excel active sheet or cell change). Then I read PSVariable documentation here and saw this: "There is no established scenario for deriving from this class. To programmatically create a shell variable, create an instance of this class and set it by using the PSVariableIntrinsics class." As I was deriving from PSVariable, I tried to use what was suggested: PSVariable activeCell = new PSVariable("ActiveCell"); activeCell.Value = Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveCell; runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(activeCell); Using this, $ActiveCell appears in my PowerShell session, but its value doesn't change as I change the active cell in Excel. Is the above comment from PSVariable documentation something I should worry about, or I can continue creating PSVariable derived classes? Is there another way of making Excel globals available to PowerShell?

    Read the article

  • Shortcut to create automatic properties using Visual Studio 2008/2010 or Resharper 5

    - by Piers Myers
    I have a class that contains a load of properties that contain results of some calculations e.g: public class Results { public double Result1 { get; set; } public double Result2 { get; set; } } In a different class I am doing calculations to populate the above properties, e.g: public class Calc { private Results Calc() { Results res = new Results(); res.Result1 = ... some calculation res.Result2 = ... some other calculation res.Result3 = ... // not yet defined in 'Results' class return res; } } When I am writing the Calc class, 'Result3' will be highlighted in red as it is not yet defined in the 'Results' class. Currently I am using the Resharper ALT-Enter shortcut, selecting "Create Property 'Result3'" which will create the following code int the 'Results' class: public double Result3 { get { throw new NotImplementedException(); } set { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } Which I need to manually change to: public double Result3 { get; set; } Then I use the CTRL-Shift-Backspace shortcut to take me back to the 'Calc' class. How can I easily create automatic properties in the 'Results' class if they are not yet defined directly from the 'Calc' class?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445  | Next Page >