Search Results

Search found 66233 results on 2650 pages for 'class method'.

Page 438/2650 | < Previous Page | 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445  | Next Page >

  • jquery validation plugin doesn't seem to work ....

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    asp.net mvc's Html.BeginForm() seems to work with jquery validation plugin but the validation plugin doesn't seem to work with a form which i ve added to a page.... This works, <% using (Html.BeginForm("Login", "Registration", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "Loginform" })) {%> <fieldset> <legend>Login</legend> <p> <label for="EmailId">EmailId:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("EmailId", null, new { @class = "text_box_height_14_width_150" })%> </p> <div class="status"></div> <p> <label for="Password">Password:</label> <%= Html.Password("Password",null, new { @class = "text_box_height_14_width_150" }) %> </p> <div class="status"></div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Login" id="login" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> But this doesn't work, <form id="Loginform" method="post" action="Registration/Login"> <table cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" style="border:none;"> <tr> <td width="12%">Email Id&nbsp;:&nbsp;</td><td width="15%"> <input id="EmailId" type="text" class="text_box_height_14_width_150 name="EmailId" /></td><td width="20%" class="status"></td> <td width="12%">Password&nbsp;:&nbsp;<td width="15%"><input id="Password" type="password" class="text_box_height_14_width_150 name="Password" /></td> <td width="20%" class="status"></td> <td width="5%"><input type="submit" value="Login" id="BtnLogin" /></td> </tr> </table> </form> and my jquery function has this, $(document).ready(function() { var validator = $("#Loginform").validate({ rules: { EmailId: "required", Password: { required: true, minlength: 6 } }, messages: { EmailId: "Enter your EMail ID", Password: { required: "Please Provide a password", rangelength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") } }, // the errorPlacement has to take the table layout into account errorPlacement: function(error, element) { error.appendTo(element.parent().next()); }, // set this class to error-labels to indicate valid fields success: function(label) { // set &nbsp; as text for IE label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); }); Any suggestion... Am i missing something?

    Read the article

  • Generics vs Object performance

    - by Risho
    I'm doing practice problems from MCTS Exam 70-536 Microsft .Net Framework Application Dev Foundation, and one of the problems is to create two classes, one generic, one object type that both perform the same thing; in which a loop uses the class and iterated over thousand times. And using the timer, time the performance of both. There was another post at C# generics question that seeks the same questoion but nonone replied. Basically if in my code I run the generic class first it takes loger to process. If I run the object class first than the object class takes longer to process. The whole idea was to prove that generics perform faster. I used the original users code to save me some time. I didn't particularly see anything wrong with the code and was puzzled by the outcome. Can some one explain why the unusual results? Thanks, Risho Here is the code: class Program { class Object_Sample { public Object_Sample() { Console.WriteLine("Object_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(Object a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } class Generics_Samle<T> { public Generics_Samle() { Console.WriteLine("Generics_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(T a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } static void Main(string[] args) { long ticks_initial, ticks_final, diff_generics, diff_object; Object_Sample OS = new Object_Sample(); Generics_Samle<int> GS = new Generics_Samle<int>(); //Generic Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = GS.getTicks(); for (int i = 0; i < 50000; i++) { GS.display(i); } ticks_final = GS.getTicks(); diff_generics = ticks_final - ticks_initial; //Object Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = OS.getTicks(); for (int j = 0; j < 50000; j++) { OS.display(j); } ticks_final = OS.getTicks(); diff_object = ticks_final - ticks_initial; Console.WriteLine("\nPerformance of Generics {0}", diff_generics); Console.WriteLine("Performance of Object {0}", diff_object); Console.ReadKey(); } }

    Read the article

  • validate uniqueness amongst multiple subclasses with Single Table Inheritance

    - by irkenInvader
    I have a Card model that has many Sets and a Set model that has many Cards through a Membership model: class Card < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :sets, :through => :memberships end class Membership < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :card belongs_to :set validates_uniqueness_of :card_id, :scope => :set_id end class Set < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships validates_presence_of :cards end I also have some sub-classes of the above using Single Table Inheritance: class FooCard < Card end class BarCard < Card end and class Expansion < Set end class GameSet < Set validates_size_of :cards, :is => 10 end All of the above is working as I intend. What I'm trying to figure out is how to validate that a Card can only belong to a single Expansion. I want the following to be invalid: some_cards = FooCard.all( :limit => 25 ) first_expansion = Expansion.new second_expansion = Expansion.new first_expansion.cards = some_cards second_expansion.cards = some_cards first_expansion.save # Valid second_expansion.save # **Should be invalid** However, GameSets should allow this behavior: other_cards = FooCard.all( :limit => 10 ) first_set = GameSet.new second_set = GameSet.new first_set.cards = other_cards # Valid second_set.cards = other_cards # Also valid I'm guessing that a validates_uniqueness_of call is needed somewhere, but I'm not sure where to put it. Any suggestions? UPDATE 1 I modified the Expansion class as sugested: class Expansion < Set validate :validates_uniqueness_of_cards def validates_uniqueness_of_cards membership = Membership.find( :first, :include => :set, :conditions => [ "card_id IN (?) AND sets.type = ?", self.cards.map(&:id), "Expansion" ] ) errors.add_to_base("a Card can only belong to a single Expansion") unless membership.nil? end end This works when creating initial expansions to validate that no current expansions contain the cards. However, this (falsely) invalidates future updates to the expansion with new cards. In other words: old_exp = Expansion.find(1) old_exp.card_ids # returns [1,2,3,4,5] new_exp = Expansion.new new_exp.card_ids = [6,7,8,9,10] new_exp.save # returns true new_exp.card_ids << [11,12] # no other Expansion contains these cards new_exp.valid? # returns false ... SHOULD be true

    Read the article

  • Why this java application print "true"?

    - by user292084
    This is my first Class Hello.java public class Hello { String name = ""; } This is my second Class Test1.java public class Test1 { public static void main(String[] args) { Hello h = new Hello(); Test1 t = new Test1(); t.build(h); System.out.println((h.name)); } void build(Hello h){ h.name = "me"; } } When I run Test1.java, it prints "me". I think I understand, because of "reference transfer". This is my third Class Test2.java public class Test2 { public static void main(String[] args) { Hello h = null; Test2 t = new Test2(); t.build(h); System.out.println(((h == null))); } void build(Hello h){ h = new Hello(); } } When I run Test2.java, it prints "true", why ? Is it "reference transfer" no longer? I am confused.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate - EhCache - Which region to Cache associations/sets/collections ??

    - by lifeisnotfair
    Hi all, I am a newcomer to hibernate. It would be great if someone could comment over the following query that i have: Say i have a parent class and each parent has multiple children. So the mapping file of parent class would be something like: parent.hbm.xml <hibernate-mapping > <class name="org.demo.parent" table="parent" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.parent"/> <id name="id" column="id" type="integer" length="10"> <generator class="native"> </generator> </id> <property name="name" column="name" type="string" length="50"/> <set name="children" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.parent.children" /> <key column="parent_id"/> <one-to-many class="org.demo.children"/> </set> </class> </hibernate-mapping> children.hbm.xml <hibernate-mapping > <class name="org.demo.children" table="children" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.children"/> <id name="id" column="id" type="integer" length="10"> <generator class="native"> </generator> </id> <property name="name" column="name" type="string" length="50"/> <many-to-one name="parent_id" column="parent_id" type="integer" length="10" not-null="true"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So for the set children, should we specify the region org.demo.parent.children where it should cache the association or should we use the cache region of org.demo.children where the children would be getting cached. I am using EHCache as the 2nd level cache provider. I tried to search for the answer to this question but couldnt find any answer in this direction. It makes more sense to use org.demo.children but I dont know in which scenarios one should use a separate cache region for associations/sets/collections as in the above case. Kindly provide your inputs also let me know if I am not clear in my question. Thanks all.

    Read the article

  • Serialization of an object and its Contained Objects

    - by Amit
    There is a main class having 2 subClasses(each represent separate entity) and all classes needs to be serialized.. how should I proceed ? My requirement is when I serelize MainClass, I should get the xml for each sub class and main class as well. Thanks in advance... and if my approach is incorrect... correct that as well.. Ex given below... class MainClass { SubClass1 objSubclass1 = null; SubClass2 objSubclass2 = null; public MainClass() { objSubclass1 = new SubClass1(); objSubclass2 = new SubClass2(); } [XmlElement("SubClass1")] public SubClass1 SubClass1 {get {return objSubclass1;} } [XmlElement("SubClass2")] public SubClass2 SubClass2 {get {return objSubclass2;} } } Class SubClass1 { Some properties here... } Class SubClass2 { Some properties here... }

    Read the article

  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

    Read the article

  • Change ID to text in paragraph with jQuery

    - by Reuben
    I would like to take what text is in my p tag and make that the p tags parent (div) that ID. I would also like to add a _ for any spaces in the p tag. Example: <div class="circle"><p>Apple</p></div> <div class="circle"><p>Banana</p></div> <div class="circle"><p>Carrot Juice</p></div> to <div id="Apple" class="circle"><p>Apple</p></div> <div id="Banana" class="circle"><p>Banana</p></div> <div id="Carrot_Juice" class="circle"><p>Carrot Juice</p></div>

    Read the article

  • jQuery script to move an attribute of matched element to their children

    - by UserControl
    I have a set of anchors like <a class="lb" href="#">text</a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="width:200px">text</a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="color: reen; width:200px">text</a> that needs to be transformed to the following: <a class="lb" href="#"><span>text</span></a> <a class="lb" href="#"><span style="width:200px">text</span></a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="color:green"><span style="width:200px">text</span></a> I have no problem creating child span but don't know how to move parent's width styling.

    Read the article

  • 'is instanceof' Interface bad design

    - by peterRit
    Say I have a class A class A { Z source; } Now, the context tells me that 'Z' can be an instance of different classes (say, B and C) which doesn't share any common class in their inheritance tree. I guess the naive approach is to make 'Z' an Interface class, and make classes B and C implement it. But something still doesn't convince me because every time an instance of class A is used, I need to know the type of 'source'. So all finishes in multiple 'ifs' making 'is instanceof' which doesn't sound quite nice. Maybe in the future some other class implements Z, and having hardcoded 'ifs' of this type definitely could break something. The escence of the problem is that I cannot resolve the issue by adding functions to Z, because the work done in each instance type of Z is different. I hope someone can give me and advice, maybe about some useful design pattern. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Generic TypeIdenitifier convertion.How?

    - by John
    How do I convert the TypeIdenitifier to a class type? I need to use implicit convertion. type TMyChildArray<T>=class(TMyArray<T>) private FData:Array of T; procedure AddEnd(); end; TTypeIdenitifierParentClass=class(TAnotherParentClass) protected TestField:Cardinal; end; procedure TMyChildArray<T>.AddEnd(); var elem:T; begin for elem in Fdata do TTypeIdenitifierParentClass(elem).TestField:=0; end; I get "Invalid typecast" on the implicit convertion "TTypeIdenitifierParentClass(elem).TestField:=0;". The principle I want to use is that the TypeIdenitifier will represent a class that descends from TTypeIdenitifierParentClass.There are many class types,but all of them descend that class. How do I do this?

    Read the article

  • jQuery script to move an attribute of matched elements to their children

    - by UserControl
    I have a set of anchors like <a class="lb" href="#">text</a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="width:200px">text</a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="color: reen; width:200px">text</a> that needs to be transformed to the following: <a class="lb" href="#"><span>text</span></a> <a class="lb" href="#"><span style="width:200px">text</span></a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="color:green"><span style="width:200px">text</span></a> I have no problem creating child span but don't know how to move parent's width styling.

    Read the article

  • The type{0} does not support direct content - WPF / XAML

    - by Levo
    Hi there: I defined in my code two classes: a "Person" class with public "Age" and "Name" property, and a "People" class that inherits from Generic.List(of T). The code for People class is as followed: Public Class People Inherits Collections.Generic.List(Of Person) ... End Class What I want to achieve is to directly initialize the People class, and add individual Person to it in XAML, i.e.: <local:People x:Key="Familty"> <local:Person Age="11" Name="John" /> <local:Person Age="12" Name="John2" /> ... </local:People> But I keep getting an error in XAML saying: The type 'People' does not support direct content. Any idea as for how to solve this problem? Thank you very much!

    Read the article

  • Manage bad_alloc exception in C++ construtor

    - by Jimmy zhang
    I have Java experience and recently am doing some C++ coding. My question is that if I have class A, in which I have to instantiate class B and class C as two of the member variables of A. If in the constructor of A, should I assume that allocations of class B and C never fail, and handle the bad allocation exception in the destructor of A? If I don't make that assumption, meaning that I add some try catch block to catch bad_alloc of class B and class C, then if the allocation exception occurs, should I do clean up in the constructor of A? What are the recommended practices? If "new" generates a bad allocation, what value does the pointer carry?

    Read the article

  • Jquery expanding the hover area

    - by Shishant
    Hello, This is my my result html And html of it is like this <li id="33"> <div class="todoRow"> <span class="status_1">Test13</span> <img class="delete_todo" alt="Delete" src="trash.png"> </div> </li> I am using toggleClass to change the class of span on hover. I want to make it hover-able till the width of delete icon so I can toggle the class I dont want to use div to trigger the hover because in that case when trash icon is hovered it toggles class of span element too.

    Read the article

  • Symfony 1.3: different form filters generated

    - by user248959
    Hi, i have this class in rs1/lib/filter/doctrine/FelizFormFilter.class.php <?php /** * Feliz filter form. * * @package rs * @subpackage filter * @author Your name here * @version SVN: $Id: sfDoctrineFormFilterTemplate.php 23810 2009-11-12 11:07:44Z Kris.Wallsmith $ */ class FelizFormFilter extends BaseFelizFormFilter { public function configure() { } } and this in rs2/lib/filter/doctrine/FelizFormFilter.class.php <?php /** * Feliz filter form. * * @package filters * @subpackage Feliz * * @version SVN: $Id: sfDoctrineFormFilterTemplate.php 11675 2008-09-19 15:21:38Z fabien $ */ class FelizFormFilter extends BaseFelizFormFilter { public function configure() { } } Both were generated using "php symfony doctrine:build --all --and-load" and the version of symfony is 1.3.4 in both. This is the schema of both cases: Feliz: columns: name: string(20) Could you tell me why are different? One more thing in Eclipse: when i go with the mouse pointer to the word "BaseFelizFormFilter", in the second case (rs2) the yellow window with the information about the class is showed, but in the first case that yellow popup is not showed. Why? Javi

    Read the article

  • Multiple interfaces inhertience. Casting from one to another

    - by yossi1981
    Consider the following set of classes/Interfaces: class IFish{ public: virtual void eat() = 0; } class IFriendly{ public: virtual void protect() = 0; } class IAggresive{ public: virtual void attack(Point inDest) = 0; } class CDolphin : public IFish, IFriendly{ eat... protect.... } class CShark : public IFish, IAggresive{ eat.... attack... } Now I am having the following class void CDiver { Void shouldRunAway(IFish* fish) { //??? } } My question is , can "shouldRunAway" extract from the fish argument whether it is an IAggresive or IFreindly (if it is any of these at all...) is there some kind of casting that can help out?

    Read the article

  • Second Unit Test Not Running

    - by TomJ
    I am having trouble getting my Method B test to run. The logic is fine, but when the unit tests are run, only Method A will run. If Method A and B are switched in terms of spots, only Method B will run. So clearly the code is wrong at some point. Do I need to call method B's test from inside method A in order to get both unit tests to run? I'm pretty new to C#, so forgive my basic question. using redacted; using Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.UnitTesting; using System; namespace UnitTests { [TestClass()] public class ClassTest { public TestContext TestContext{get;set;} [TestMethod()] public void MethodATest() { the unit test } [TestMethod()] public void MethodBTest() { the unit test } } }

    Read the article

  • Bring Control to ToolBox

    - by Mohanavel
    I created a TextBoxControl which is inherited from Infragistics.Win.UltraWinEditors.UltraTextEditor, an Infragistics control. As showed below. public class TextBoxControl : Infragistics.Win.UltraWinEditors.UltraTextEditor { //My Stuff } At some level Infragistics.Win.UltraWinEditors.UltraTextEditor class also inherited from WinForm's "Control" class. My problem is, this control is not appearing in the ToolBox. I done two steps 1. Choose from browse option and select the dll where the class present 2. Drag and drop the dll directly to the ToolBox In-fact both are same, TextBoxControl control is not appearing in the ToolBox, what i missing here. Edit : TextBoxControl class have empty constructor, nothing special in this class.

    Read the article

  • how to add a dynamic param

    - by user569846
    the jquery plugin that im using is this http://code.google.com/p/jquery-in-place-editor/ if i have a table like this <table> <thead> <tr> <th>id</th> <th>first name </th> <th>last name </th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td class="id">1</td> <td class="fname">sarmen</td> <td class="lname">mikey</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="id">2</td> <td class="fname">john</td> <td class="lname">angelo</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="id">3</td> <td class="fname">sarmen</td> <td class="lname">grande</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> and my js looked something like this $("td.fname").editInPlace({ url: 'ajax.php', params: '', show_buttons: true }); then lets say i click on the first record to edit it which is fname of sarmen. how can i pass a param that only accociates id 1 ? because if i do a query of lets say "update tbl_users set fname = '$_POST['update_value']' where fname = '$_POST['original_html']'" (note: im just showing an example so no need to clean posts if that was bothering you :) ) if i run this query the fname of sarmen will update in two records rather than one. How can i only update to id of 1 being to update only one record.

    Read the article

  • How to run a widget inside of an activity in Android?

    - by user220755
    I have a widget built to give the user the chance to choose the date (I did not build it, I am building on top of an open source software). Now, I need to display this widget inside of a class that extends the activity class in Android. Let me show some code. Let us say this is the activity class: public class RandomClass extends Activity { public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // I want to run the widget here when the class is created // (the activity is created) } } The widget i want to run is a widget that lets the user choose the date. I know I code use one of Android's activities but I need to build on top of the code so I have to run it inside of the activity class I created. Sorry if this is not clear, ask any questions and i will be more than glad to answer them and clarify.

    Read the article

  • Select from parent table return ID = 0 column values for child objects

    - by SaD
    Entities: public class Person { public Person(){} public virtual long ID { get; set; } } public class Employee : Person { public Employee(){} public virtual long ID { get; set; } public virtual string Appointment { get; set; } } Mappings: public class PersonMap : ClassMap<Person> { public PersonMap() { Id(x => x.ID) .GeneratedBy.Identity(); } } public class EmployeeMap : SubclassMap<Employee> { public EmployeeMap() { KeyColumn("ID"); Map(x => x.Appointment) .Not.Nullable() .Length(50); } } 2 items in Person table 1 item in Employee table (1 in base class, 1 in child class) Query:var list = Session.CreateQuery("from Person").List<Person>(); Return: 0 | ID = 1 1 | ID = 0, Appointment = "SomeAppointment"

    Read the article

  • Not able to access any mothod with the attribute [webinvoke ] in WCF Restful services

    - by user1335978
    I am not able to access any method with the attribute [webinvoke] in a RESTful WCF service. My code is like this: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "Post", UriTemplate = "Comosite/{composite}", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Xml)] CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract(string composite); On executing the above service I am getting an error message Method not allowed. I tried many ways, by modifying the urltemplate, method name and method type etc. but nothing is working out. But if I use the [WebGet] attribute the the service method is working fine. Can anybody suggest me what can I do make it work? Thanks in advance... :)

    Read the article

  • Covariant return types in Java enums

    - by Kelvin Chung
    As mentioned in another question on this site, something like this is not legal: public enum MyEnum { FOO { public Integer doSomething() { return (Integer) super.doSomething(); } }, BAR { public String doSomething() { return (String) super.doSomething(); } }; public Object doSomething(); } This is due to covariant return types apparently not working on enum constants (again breaking the illusion that enum constants are singleton subclasses of the enum type...) So, how about we add a bit of generics: is this legal? public enum MyEnum2 { FOO { public Class<Integer> doSomething() { return Integer.class; } }, BAR { public Class<String> doSomething() { return String.class; } }; public Class<?> doSomething(); } Here, all three return Class objects, yet the individual constants are "more specific" than the enum type as a whole...

    Read the article

  • Objective C instance variables - Newbie

    - by Dwayne King
    OK - so I'm sure my confusion here is just a result of being stuck in a "Java mindset" and not understanding how Obj C differs in this case. In Java, I can declare a variable in a class, like this, and each instance of that class will have it's own: MyClass { String myVar; MyClass() { // constructor } } In Obj C I tried to do the same thing by declaring a variable only in the .m file like this: #import "MyClass.h" @implementation MyClass NSString *testVar; @end My expectation here was that this variable has a scope limited to this class. So I created a second class (identical): #import "MySecondClass.h" @implementation MySecondClass NSString *testVar; @end What I'm seeing (and has me baffled) is that changing the variable in one class, affects the value seen in the other class. In fact, if I set a breakpoint, and then "Jump to Definition" of the variable, it takes me to th I've created an extremely small XCode project that demonstrates the problem here Nothing more humbling than moving to a new language :) Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445  | Next Page >