Search Results

Search found 14131 results on 566 pages for 'of note'.

Page 439/566 | < Previous Page | 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446  | Next Page >

• Problem shrinking with StretchBlt()

  - by SparkyNZ

  Hi. I have some code that paints my own rectangular buttons based on a source bitmap. Most of the time the destination buttons are bigger than my source bitmap image and StretchBlt works fine. However, when the destination is smaller than the source image, StretchBlt refuses to fill the entire destination area. I know StretchBlt isn't great on quality when it comes to scaling down images but I'm not too concerned about that. I just don't want missing pixels. Here a link with the source image at the top and destination at the bottom: link text Note, I am actually shrinking parts of the source image into the destination. I am not shrinking the entire image down. So for example, I copy the corners size for size with BitBlt() then I stretch (squash) the horizontal pixel data between the corners from the source image into the destination DC. There is no fault with my source and destination coordinates. If I change from SRCCOPY to WHITENESS, the entire area fills with white as you'd expect. There is no grey bar where pixels haven't copied as you see in the Broken.bmp image above. Has anyone had this problem before, and if so, can somebody please suggest a solution? Cheers

  Read the article

• Simple matrix example using C++ template class

  - by skyeagle

  I am trying to write a trivial Matrix class, using C++ templates in an attempt to brush up my C++, and also to explain something to a fellow coder. This is what I have som far: template class<T> class Matrix { public: Matrix(const unsigned int rows, const unsigned int cols); Matrix(const Matrix& m); Matrix& operator=(const Matrix& m); ~Matrix(); unsigned int getNumRows() const; unsigned int getNumCols() const; template <class T> T getCellValue(unsigned int row, unsigned col) const; template <class T> void setCellValue(unsigned int row, unsigned col, T value) const; private: // Note: intentionally NOT using smart pointers here ... T * m_values; }; template<class T> inline T Matrix::getCellValue(unsigned int row, unsigned col) const { } template<class T> inline void Matrix::setCellValue(unsigned int row, unsigned col, T value) { } I'm stuck on the ctor, since I need to allocate a new[] T, it seems like it needs to be a template method - however, I'm not sure I have come accross a templated ctor before. How can I implemnt the ctor?

  Read the article

• OSGi bundle imports packages from non-bundle jars: create bundles for them?

  - by John Simmons

  I am new to OSGi, and am using Equinox. I have done several searches and can find no answer to this. The discussion at OSGI - handling 3rd party JARs required by a bundle helps somewhat, but does not fully answer my question. I have obtained a jar file, rabbitmq-client.jar, that is already packaged as an OSGi bundle (with Bundle-Name and other such properties in its MANIFEST.MF), that I would like to install as a bundle. This jar imports packages org.apache.commons.io and org.apache.commons.io.input from commons-io-1.2.jar. The RabbitMQ client 2.7.1 distribution also includes commons-cli-1.1.jar, so I presume that it is required as well. I examined the manifests of these commons jars and found that they do not appear to be packaged as bundles. That is, their manifests have none of the standard bundle properties. My specific question is: if I install rabbitmq-client.jar as a bundle, what is the proper way to get access to the packages that it needs to import from the commons jars? There are only three alternatives that I can think of, without rebuilding rabbitmq-client.jar. The packages from the commons jars are already included in the Equinox global classpath, and rabbitmq-client.jar will get them automatically from there. I must make another bundle with the two commons jars, export the needed packages, and install that bundle in Equinox. I must put these two commons jars in the global classpath when I start Equinox, and they will be available to rabbitmq-client.jar from there. I have read that one normally does not use the global classpath in an OSGi container. I am not clear on whether items from the global classpath are even available when building individual bundle classpaths. However, I note that rabbitmq-client.jar also imports other packages such as javax.net, which I presume come from the global classpath. Or is there some other bundle that exports them? Thanks for any assistance!

  Read the article

• C++ : integer constant is too large for its type

  - by user38586

  I need to bruteforce a year for an exercise. The compiler keep throwing this error: bruteforceJS12.cpp:8:28: warning: integer constant is too large for its type [enabled by default] My code is: #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(){ unsigned long long year(0); unsigned long long result(318338237039211050000); unsigned long long pass(1337); while (pass != result) { for (unsigned long long i = 1; i<= year; i++) { pass += year * i * year; } cout << "pass not cracked with year = " << year << endl; ++year; } cout << "pass cracked with year = " << year << endl; } Note that I already tried with unsigned long long result(318338237039211050000ULL); I'm using gcc version 4.8.1 EDIT: Here is the corrected version using InfInt library http://code.google.com/p/infint/ #include <iostream> #include "InfInt.h" using namespace std; int main(){ InfInt year = "113"; InfInt result = "318338237039211050000"; InfInt pass= "1337"; while (pass != result) { for (InfInt i = 1; i<= year; i++) { pass += year * i * year; } cout << "year = " << year << " pass = " << pass << endl; ++year; } cout << "pass cracked with year = " << year << endl; }

  Read the article

• Can I use Eclipse JDT to create new 'working copies' of source files in memory only?

  - by RYates

  I'm using Eclipse JDT to build a Java refactoring platform, for exploring different refactorings in memory before choosing one and saving it. I can create collections of working copies of the source files, edit them in memory, and commit the changes to disk using the JDT framework. However, I also want to generate new 'working copy' source files in memory as part of refactorings, and only create the corresponding real source file if I commit the working copy. I have seen various hints that this is possible, e.g. http://www.jarvana.com/jarvana/view/org/eclipse/jdt/doc/isv/3.3.0-v20070613/isv-3.3.0-v20070613.jar!/guide/jdt%5Fapi%5Fmanip.htm says "Note that the compilation unit does not need to exist in the Java model in order for a working copy to be created". So far I have only been able to create a new real file, i.e. ICompilationUnit newICompilationUnit = myPackage.createCompilationUnit(newName, "package piffle; public class Baz{private int i=0;}", false, null); This is not what I want. Does anyone know how to create a new 'working copy' source file, that does not appear in my file system until I commit it? Or any other mechanism to achieve the same thing?

  Read the article

• Using the AutoComplete feature of ComboBox, while limiting values to those in the list?

  - by Schmuli

  In WinForms 2.0, a ComboBox has an Auto-Complete feature, that displays a custom Drop-Down list with only the values that start with the entered text. However, if I want to limit valid values to only those that appear in the ComboBox's list of items, I can do that by setting the DropDownStyle to DropDownList, which stops the user from entering a value. However, now I can't use the Auto-Complete feature, which requires user input. Is there another way to limit input to the list, while still allowing use of the Auto-Complete feature? Note that I have seen some custom solutions for this, but I really like the way the matching Auto-Complete items are displayed in a Drop-Down list, and sorted even though the original list may not be. EDIT: I have thought about just validating the entered value, i.e. testing user input if it is valid in, say, the TextChanged event, or even using the Validating event. The question then is what is the expected behavior? Do I clear their value (an empty value is also invalid), or do I use a default value? Closest matching value? P.s. Is there any other tags that I could add to this question?

  Read the article

• How can I measure the time it takes a file to upload to a PHP script?

  - by Gustav Bertram

  I am trying to measure the time a script takes to upload a file to a PHP script, inside the receiving script. Here's a short example: <form action="#" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post"> Upload: <input type="file" name="datafile" size="40"> <input type="submit" value="Send"> </form> <?php $upload_time = time() - $_SERVER['REQUEST_TIME']; echo $upload_time . " seconds."; I've submitted 4MB, 25MB, 100MB and 1.4GB files. They took anything from a fraction of a second, to almost a minute, yet the script above always yielded 0 seconds. NOTE: I know that this is a duplicate question, but the accepted answer on the other question did not work for me (at least, initially): Detect how long it takes for a file to upload (PHP) I've tried it using PHP 5.3.3 with Apache 2.2.16 on Ubuntu 10.4. UPDATE: I've discovered that both the Apache header and Ajax solutions work. In fact, the solution on the duplicate question also works. The critical element to making these solutions work is to ensure that the following values in the php.ini are sufficiently high: memory_limit = 1000M upload_max_filesize = 1000M post_max_size = 1000M I am accepting the Apache header solution, since it only uses PHP.

  Read the article

• Numbers localization

  - by Reza

  How can I set the variant of Arabic numeral without changing number characters ? Eastern Arabic ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? Persian variant ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? Western Arabic 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 here is a sample code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <meta charset="utf-8"> <head> <title></title> </head> <body> <div lang="fa">123456789</div> <div lang="ar">123456789</div> <div lang="en">123456789</div> </body> </html> Also note that in Windows text boxes (e.g. Run) numbers are displayed correctly according to surrounding text languages.

  Read the article

• What's the best way to communicate the purpose of a string parameter in a public API?

  - by Dave

  According to the guidance published in New Recommendations for Using Strings in Microsoft .NET 2.0, the data in a string may exhibit one of the following types of behavior: A non-linguistic identifier, where bytes match exactly. A non-linguistic identifier, where case is irrelevant, especially a piece of data stored in most Microsoft Windows system services. Culturally-agnostic data, which still is linguistically relevant. Data that requires local linguistic customs. Given that, I'd like to know the best way to communicate which behavior is expected of a string parameter in a public API. I wasn't able to find an answer in the Framework Design Guidelines. Consider the following methods: f(string this_is_a_linguistic_string) g(string this_is_a_symbolic_identifier_so_use_ordinal_compares) Is variable naming and XML documentation the best I can do? Could I use attributes in some way to mark the requirements of the string? Now consider the following case: h(Dictionary<string, object> dictionary) Note that the dictionary instance is created by the caller. How do I communicate that the callee expects the IEqualityComparer<string> object held by the dictionary to perform, for example, a case-insensitive ordinal comparison?

  Read the article

• Test the sequentiality of a column with a single SQL query

  - by LauriE

  Hey, I have a table that contains sets of sequential datasets, like that: ID set_ID some_column n 1 'set-1' 'aaaaaaaaaa' 1 2 'set-1' 'bbbbbbbbbb' 2 3 'set-1' 'cccccccccc' 3 4 'set-2' 'dddddddddd' 1 5 'set-2' 'eeeeeeeeee' 2 6 'set-3' 'ffffffffff' 2 7 'set-3' 'gggggggggg' 1 At the end of a transaction that makes several types of modifications to those rows, I would like to ensure that within a single set, all the values of "n" are still sequential (rollback otherwise). They do not need to be in the same order according to the PK, just sequential, like 1-2-3 or 3-1-2, but not like 1-3-4. Due to the fact that there might be thousands of rows within a single set I would prefer to do it in the db to avoid the overhead of fetching the data just for verification after making some small changes. Also there is the issue of concurrency. The way locking in InnoDB (repeatable read) works (as I understand) is that if I have an index on "n" then InnoDB also locks the "gaps" between values. If I combine set_ID and n to a single index, would that eliminate the problem of phantom rows appearing? Looks to me like a common problem. Any brilliant ideas? Thanks! Note: using MySQL + InnoDB

  Read the article

• How do I alias the scala setter method 'myvar_$eq(myval)' to something more pleasing when in java?

  - by feydr

  I've been converting some code from java to scala lately trying to teach myself the language. Suppose we have this scala class: class Person() { var name:String = "joebob" } Now I want to access it from java so I can't use dot-notation like I would if I was in scala. So I can get my var's contents by issuing: person = Person.new(); System.out.println(person.name()); and set it via: person = Person.new(); person.name_$eq("sallysue"); System.out.println(person.name()); This holds true cause our Person Class looks like this in javap: Compiled from "Person.scala" public class Person extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public Person(); public void name_$eq(java.lang.String); public java.lang.String name(); public int $tag() throws java.rmi.RemoteException; } Yes, I could write my own getters/setters but I hate filling classes up with that and it doesn't make a ton of sense considering I already have them -- I just want to alias the _$eq method better. (This actually gets worse when you are dealing with stuff like antlr because then you have to escape it and it ends up looking like person.name_\$eq("newname"); Note: I'd much rather have to put up with this rather than fill my classes with more setter methods. So what would you do in this situation?

  Read the article

• measure the response time of a link

  - by Ahoura Ghotbi

  I am trying to create a simple load balance script and I was wondering if it is possible to find the response time of a server live? By that I mean is it possible to measure how long it takes for a server to respond after the request has been sent out? What I am trying to do is fairly simple, I want to send a request to a link/server and do a count down, if the server took more than 5 seconds to reply, I would like to fall on the backup server. Note that it doesnt have to be in pure php, I wouldnt mind using other languages such as javascript, C/C++, asp, but I prefer to do it in PHP. if it is possible to do the task, could you just point me to the right direction so I can read up on it. Clarification What I want to do is not to download a file and see how long it took, my servers have high load and it takes a while for them to respond when you click on a file to download, what I want to do is to measure the time it takes the server to respond (in this situation, its the time it takes the server to respond and allow the user to download the file), and if it takes longer than x seconds, it should fall back on a backup server.

  Read the article

• Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

  - by Tony_Henrich

  My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

  Read the article

• glDrawArrays() slow on iPad?

  - by Nick

  Hey guys, I was wondering how to speed up my iPad application using OpenGLES 2.0. At the moment we have every drawable object draw itself with a call to glDrawArrays(). Blend mode is on, we really need it. Without disabling blendmode, how would we improve performance for this app? For instances, if we now draw 1 texture across the whole screen, the app only gets 15FPS, which is really slow I think? Are we doing something terribly wrong? Our drawing code (for each drawable), is as follows: - (void) draw { GLuint textureAvailable = 0; if(texture != nil){ textureAvailable = 1; } glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texture.name); glVertexAttribPointer(ATTRIB_VERTEX, 2, GL_FLOAT, 0, 0, vertices); glEnableVertexAttribArray(ATTRIB_VERTEX); glVertexAttribPointer(ATTRIB_COLOR, 4, GL_FLOAT, 1, 0, colorsWithMultipliedAlpha); glEnableVertexAttribArray(ATTRIB_COLOR); glVertexAttribPointer(ATTRIB_TEXTUREMAP, 2, GL_FLOAT, 1, 0, textureMapping); glEnableVertexAttribArray(ATTRIB_TEXTUREMAP); //Note that we are NOT using position.z here because that is only used to determine drawing order int *jnUniforms = JNOpenGLConstants::getInstance().uniforms; glUniform4f(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_TRANSLATE], position.x, position.y, 0.0, 0.0); glUniform4f(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_SCALE], scale.x, scale.y, 1.0, 1.0); glUniform1f(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_ROTATION], rotation); glUniform1i(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_TEXTURE_SAMPLE], 0); glUniform2f(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_TEXTURE_REPEAT], textureRepeat.x, textureRepeat.y); glUniform1i(jnUniforms[UNIFORM_TEXTURE_AVAILABLE], textureAvailable); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, 4); }

  Read the article

• AngularJS: Using Shared Service(with $resource) to share data between controllers, but how to define callback functions?

  - by shaunlim

  Note: I also posted this question on the AngularJS mailing list here: https://groups.google.com/forum/#!topic/angular/UC8_pZsdn2U Hi All, I'm building my first AngularJS app and am not very familiar with Javascript to begin with so any guidance will be much appreciated :) My App has two controllers, ClientController and CountryController. In CountryController, I'm retrieving a list of countries from a CountryService that uses the $resource object. This works fine, but I want to be able to share the list of countries with the ClientController. After some research, I read that I should use the CountryService to store the data and inject that service into both controllers. This was the code I had before: CountryService: services.factory('CountryService', function($resource) { return $resource('http://localhost:port/restwrapper/client.json', {port: ':8080'}); }); CountryController: //Get list of countries //inherently async query using deferred promise $scope.countries = CountryService.query(function(result){ //preselected first entry as default $scope.selected.country = $scope.countries[0]; }); And after my changes, they look like this: CountryService: services.factory('CountryService', function($resource) { var countryService = {}; var data; var resource = $resource('http://localhost:port/restwrapper/country.json', {port: ':8080'}); var countries = function() { data = resource.query(); return data; } return { getCountries: function() { if(data) { console.log("returning cached data"); return data; } else { console.log("getting countries from server"); return countries(); } } }; }); CountryController: $scope.countries = CountryService.getCountries(function(result){ console.log("i need a callback function here..."); }); The problem is that I used to be able to use the callback function in $resource.query() to preselect a default selection, but now that I've moved the query() call to within my CountryService, I seemed to have lost what. What's the best way to go about solving this problem? Thanks for your help, Shaun

  Read the article

• Create lambda action from function expression

  - by Martin Robins

  It is relatively easy to create a lambda function that will return the value of a property from an object, even including deep properties... Func<Category, string> getCategoryName = new Func<Category, string>(c => c.Name); and this can be called as follows... string categoryName = getCategoryName(this.category); But, given only the resulting function above (or the expression originally used to create the function), can anybody provide an easy way to create the opposing action... Action<Category, string> setCategoryName = new Action<Category, string>((c, s) => c.Name = s); ...that will enable the same property value to be set as follows? setCategoryName(this.category, ""); Note that I am looking for a way to create the action programatically from the function or expression - I hope that I have shown that I already know how to create it manually. I am open to answers that work in both .net 3.5 and 4.0. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Periodic GPU performance problem

  - by Peter Lillevold

  Hi folks! I have a WinForms application that uses XNA to animate 3D models in a control. The app have been doing just fine for months but recently I've started to experience periodic pauses in the animation. Setting out to investigate what is going on I have established these facts: It (currently) happens on my machine only Removing everything from my render loop does not improve the problem In 2. I didn't actually remove everything, I limited my loop to set the viewport on my GraphicsDevice and then do a GraphicsDevice.Present. Trying to dig further I fired up PIX to capture some statistics. Screenshots of two PIX runs can be viewed here (Run6) and here (Run14). Run6 is using my original render loop and Run14 is using the bare-bones Present loop. PIX tells me that the GPU is periodically doing something, and I assume this is causing the pauses. What could be the cause of this? Or how do I go about finding out what the GPU is actually doing? Note: I'm using XNA 3.1 on a Windows 7 x64 dual-core machine with 8GB RAM. Note2: also posted this question on the XNA Creators forums here.

  Read the article

• Why does Python sometimes upgrade a string to unicode and sometimes not?

  - by samtregar

  I'm confused. Consider this code working the way I expect: >>> foo = u'Émilie and Juañ are turncoats.' >>> bar = "foo is %s" % foo >>> bar u'foo is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' And this code not at all working the way I expect: >>> try: ... raise Exception(foo) ... except Exception as e: ... foo2 = e ... >>> bar = "foo2 is %s" % foo2 ------------------------------------------------------------ Traceback (most recent call last): File "<ipython console>", line 1, in <module> UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode characters in position 0-1: ordinal not in range(128) Can someone explain what's going on here? Why does it matter whether the unicode data is in a plain unicode string or stored in an Exception object? And why does this fix it: >>> bar = u"foo2 is %s" % foo2 >>> bar u'foo2 is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' I am quite confused! Thanks for the help! UPDATE: My coding buddy Randall has added to my confusion in an attempt to help me! Send in the reinforcements to explain how this is supposed to make sense: >>> class A: ... def __str__(self): return "string" ... def __unicode__(self): return "unicode" ... >>> "%s %s" % (u'niño', A()) u'ni\xc3\xb1o unicode' >>> "%s %s" % (A(), u'niño') u'string ni\xc3\xb1o' Note that the order of the arguments here determines which method is called!

  Read the article

• tbody td borders not scrolling with content in tbody overflow:auto;

  - by tester

  I am unable to get the borders of these td's to follow their rows as I scroll through this overflow:auto; . Any ideas on a fix? Note: Setting table-layout:fixed or making rows display:block isn't an option as the rows will lose their fluidity.. You can see the issue in the latest Firefox, so I assume it's messed up elsewhere. Here is a test I setup (scroll to the bottom for the demo): http://www.webdevout.net/test?01y HTML: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Test</title> </head> <body> <table> <thead><th>One</th><th>Two</th><th>Three</th></thead> <tbody> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> </tbody> </table> </body> </html> CSS: table {width:100%;border-collapse:collapse;} tbody {height:200px;overflow:auto;} td {border-bottom:1px solid #f00;}

  Read the article

• Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

  - by Mike Monkiewicz

  So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Regular expression test can't decide between true and false (JavaScript)

  - by nw

  I get this behavior in both Chrome (Developer Tools) and Firefox (Firebug). Note the regex test returns alternating true/false values: > var re = /.*?\bbl.*\bgr.*/gi; undefined > re /.*?\\bbl.*\\bgr.*/gi > re.test("Blue-Green"); true > re.test("Blue-Green"); false > re.test("Blue-Green"); true > re.test("Blue-Green"); false However, testing the same regex as a literal: > /.*?\bbl.*\bgr.*/gi.test("Blue-Green"); true > /.*?\bbl.*\bgr.*/gi.test("Blue-Green"); true > /.*?\bbl.*\bgr.*/gi.test("Blue-Green"); true > /.*?\bbl.*\bgr.*/gi.test("Blue-Green"); true I can't explain this and it's making debugging very difficult. Can anyone explain this behavior?

  Read the article

• Access-specifiers are not foolproof?

  - by Nawaz

  If I've a class like this, class Sample { private: int X; }; Then we cannot access X from outside, so this is illegal, Sample s; s.X = 10; // error - private access But we can make it accessible without editing the class! All we need to do is this, #define private public //note this define! class Sample { private: int X; }; //outside code Sample s; s.X = 10; //no error! Working code at ideone : http://www.ideone.com/FaGpZ That means, we can change the access-specifiers by defining such macros just before the class definition, or before #include <headerfile.h>, #define public private //make public private //or #define protected private //make protected private //or #define so on Isn't it a problem with C++ (Macros/access-specifiers/whatever)? Anyway, the point of this topic is: Using macros, we can easily violate encapsulation. Access-specifiers are not foolproof! Am I right?

  Read the article

• Getting the value of an input inside a td for each row with jQuery

  - by Anne

  I am still having so many problems with this: function padTitles() { $('tr').each(function () { var tds = $(this).find('input'), text = tds.filter('[id^="TempRowKey_"]').val(), tdToPad = tds.filter('[id^="title_"]'), pad; if (/0\.0$/.test(text)) pad = 10; else if (/\.0$/.test(text)) pad = 35; else pad = 60; tdToPad.css('paddingLeft', pad); }); } Note: here is what I was using before. This worked when the value was not inside an input: var tds = $(this).find('td'), text = tds.filter('[id^="refKey_"]').text(), It is supposed to get the Value of the Inputs with id's that start with TempRowKey_ and then use these for padding. But the code does nothing. Here is my HTML: <tr id="row_1"> <td id="tempRowKey_1" > <input type="text" size="10" value="1.0.0" class="updatable" id="TempRowKey_1"> </td> <td id="title_1"> <input id="Title_1" class="updatable" type="text" value="zxxx" size="100" name="item.Title"> </td>. <td ... </tr> Is there some way I can test this. I can't get access to anything inside the jQuery block?

  Read the article

• How is the C++ synthesized move constructor affected by volatile and virtual members?

  - by user1827766

  Look at the following code: struct node { node(); //node(const node&); //#1 //node(node&&); //#2 virtual //#3 ~node (); node* volatile //#4 next; }; main() { node m(node()); //#5 node n=node(); //#6 } When compiled with gcc-4.6.1 it produces the following error: g++ -g --std=c++0x -c -o node.o node.cc node.cc: In constructor node::node(node&&): node.cc:3:8: error: expression node::next has side-effects node.cc: In function int main(): node.cc:18:14: note: synthesized method node::node(node&&) first required here As I understand the compiler fails to create default move or copy constructor on line #6, if I uncomment either line #1 or #2 it compiles fine, that is clear. The code compiles fine without c++0x option, so the error is related to default move constructor. However, what in the node class prevents default move constructor to be created? If I comment any of the lines #3 or #4 (i.e. make the destructor non-virtual or make data member non-volatile) it compiles again, so is it the combination of these two makes it not to compile? Another puzzle, line #5 does not cause an compilation error, what is different from line #6? Is it all specific for gcc? or gcc-4.6.1?

  Read the article

• Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

  - by Pazinio

  I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446  | Next Page >