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  • Compare system date with a date field in SQL

    - by JeT_BluE
    I am trying to compare a date record in SQL Server with the system date. In my example the user first register with his name and date of birth which are then stored in the database. The user than logs into the web application using his name only. After logging in, his name is shown on the side where it says "Welcome "player name" using Sessions. What I am trying to show in addition to his name is a message saying "happy birthday" if his date of birth matches the system date. I have tried working with System.DateTime.Now, but what I think is that it is also comparing the year, and what I really want is the day and the month only. I would really appreciate any suggestion or help. CODE In Login page: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { String name = TextBox1.Text; String date = System.DateTime.Today.ToShortDateString(); SqlConnection myconn2 = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["User"].ToString()); SqlCommand cmd2 = new SqlCommand(); SqlDataReader reader; myconn2.Open(); cmd2 = new SqlCommand("Select D_O_B from User WHERE Username = @username", myconn2); cmd2.Parameters.Add("@username", SqlDbType.NVarChar).Value = name; cmd2.Connection = myconn2 cmd2.ExecuteNonQuery(); reader = cmd2.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read().ToString() == date) { Session["Birthday"] = "Happy Birthday"; } } Note: I using the same reader in the code above this one, but the reader here is with a different connection. Also, reader.Read() is different than reader.HasRows? Code in Web app Page: string date = (string)(Session["Birthday"]); // Retrieving the session Label6.Text = date;

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  • C++ AI Design Question

    - by disney
    Hi, I am currently writing a bot for a MMORPG. Though, currently I am stuck at trying to figure out how to nicely implement this. The design problem is related to casting the character spells in the correct order. Here is a simple example to what I need to archieve. It's not related to casting them, but doing it in the correct order. I would know how simply cast them randomly, by checking which skill has not yet been casted, but in right order as being shown in the GUI, not really. note: the skill amount may differ, it's not always 3, maximum 10 though. Charactername < foobar has 3 skills. Skill 1: Name ( random1 ) cooldown ( 1000 ms ) cast duration ( 500 ms ) Skill 2: Name ( random2 ) cooldown ( 1500 ms ) cast duration ( 700 ms ) Skill 3: Name ( random3 ) cooldown ( 2000 ms ) cast duration ( 900 ms ) I don't really know how I could implement this, if anyone has some thoughts, feel free to share. I do know that most of the people don't like the idea of cheating in games, I don't like it either, nor I am actually playing the game, but its an interesting field for me. Thank you.

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  • Recreating a workflow instance with the same instance id

    - by Miron Brezuleanu
    We have some objects that have an associated workflow instance. The objects are identified with a GUID, which is also the GUID of the workflow instance associated with the object. We need to restart (see NOTE 3 for the meaning of 'restart') the workflow instance if the workflow definition changed (there is no state in the workflow itself and it is written to support restarting in this manner). The restarting is performed by calling Terminate on the WorkflowInstance, then recreating the instance with the same GUID. The weird part is that this works every other attempt (odd attempts - the workflow is stopped, but for some reason doesn't restart, even attempt - the already terminated workflow is recreated and started successfully). While I admit that using 'second hand' GUIDs is a sign of extraordinary cheapness (and something we plan to change), I'm wondering why this isn't working. Any ideas? NOTES: The terminated workflow instance is passivated (waiting for a notification) at the time of the termination. The Terminate call successfully deletes the data persisted in the database for that instance. We're using 'restarting' with a meaning that's less common in the context of WF - not restarting a passivated instance, but force the workflow to start again from the beginning of its definition. Thanks!

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  • Custom Image Button and Radio/Toggle Button from Common Base Class

    - by Wonko the Sane
    Hi All, I would like to create a set of custom controls that are basically image buttons (it's a little more complex than that, but that's the underlying effect I'm going for) that I've seen a few different examples for. However, I would like to further extend that to also allow radio/toggle buttons. What I'd like to do is have a common abstract class called ImageButtonBase that has default implementations for ImageSource and Text, etc. That makes a regular ImageButton implementation pretty easy. The issue I am having is creating the RadioButton flavor of it. As I see it, there are at least three options: It would be easy to create something that derives from RadioButton, but then I can't use the abstract class I've created. I could change the abstract class to an interface, but then I lose the abstract implementations, and will in fact have duplication of code. I could derive from my abstract class, and re-implement the RadioButton-type properties and events (IsChecked, GroupName, etc.), but that certainly doesn't seem like a great idea. Note: I have seen http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2362641/how-to-get-a-group-of-toggle-buttons-to-act-like-radio-buttons-in-wpf, but what I want to do is a little more complex. I'm just wondering if anybody has an example of an implementation, or something that might be adapted to this kind of scenario. I can see pros and cons of each of the ideas above, but each comes with potential pitfalls. Thanks, wTs

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  • Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

    - by Joe White
    Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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  • Code Golf: Numeric Ranges

    - by SLaks
    Mods: Can you please make this Community Wiki? Challenge Compactify a long list of numbers by replacing consecutive runs with ranges. Example Input 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 10, 12, 13, 14, 15 Output: 1 - 4, 7, 8, 10, 12 - 15 Note that ranges of two numbers should be left as is. (7, 8; not 7 - 8) Rules You can accept a list of integers (or equivalent datatype) as a method parameter, from the commandline, or from standard in. (pick whichever option results in shorter code) You can output a list of strings by printing them, or by returning either a single string or set of strings. Reference Implementation (C#) IEnumerable<string> Sample(IList<int> input) { for (int i = 0; i < input.Count; ) { var start = input[i]; int size = 1; while (++i < input.Count && input[i] == start + size) size++; if (size == 1) yield return start.ToString(); else if (size == 2) { yield return start.ToString(); yield return (start + 1).ToString(); } else if (size > 2) yield return start + " - " + (start + size - 1); } }

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • Querying the size of a drive on a remote server is giving me an error

    - by Testifier
    Here's what I have: public static bool DriveHasLessThanTenPercentFreeSpace(string server) { long driveSize = 0; long freeSpace = 0; var oConn = new ConnectionOptions {Username = "username", Password = Settings.Default.SQLServerAdminPassword}; var scope = new ManagementScope("\\\\" + server + "\\root\\CIMV2", oConn); //connect to the scope scope.Connect(); //construct the query var query = new ObjectQuery("SELECT FreeSpace FROM Win32_LogicalDisk where DeviceID = 'D:'"); //this class retrieves the collection of objects returned by the query var searcher = new ManagementObjectSearcher(scope, query); //this is similar to using a data adapter to fill a data set - use an instance of the ManagementObjectSearcher to get the collection from the query and store it ManagementObjectCollection queryCollection = searcher.Get(); //iterate through the object collection and get what you're looking for - in my case I want the FreeSpace of the D drive foreach (ManagementObject m in queryCollection) { //the FreeSpace value is in bytes freeSpace = Convert.ToInt64(m["FreeSpace"]); //error happens here! driveSize = Convert.ToInt64(m["Size"]); } long percentFree = ((freeSpace / driveSize) * 100); if (percentFree < 10) { return true; } return false; } This line of code is giving me an error: driveSize = Convert.ToInt64(m["Size"]); The error says: ManagementException was unhandled by user code Not found I'm assuming the query to get the drive size is wrong. Please note that I AM getting the freeSpace value at the line: freeSpace = Convert.ToInt64(m["FreeSpace"]); So I know the query IS working for freeSpace. Can anyone give me a hand?

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  • rbind.zoo doesn't seem create consistent zoo object

    - by a-or-b
    I want to rbind.zoo two zoo object together. When I was testing I came across the following issue(?)... Note: The below is an example, there is clearly no point to it apart from being illustrative. I have an zoo object, call it, 'X'. I want to break it into two parts and then rbind.zoo them together. When I compare it to the original object then all.equal gives differences. It appears that the '$class' attribute differs, but I can't see how or why. Is I make these xts objects then the all.equal works as expected. i.e. ..... X.date <- as.POSIXct(paste("2003-", rep(1:4, 4:1), "-", sample(1:28, 10, replace = TRUE), sep = "")) X <- zoo(matrix(rnorm(24), ncol = 2), X.date) a <- X[c(1:3), ] # first 3 elements b <- X[c(4:6), ] # second 3 elements c <- rbind.zoo(a, b) # rbind into an object of 6 elements d <- X[c(1:6), ] # all 6 elements all.equal(c, d) # are they equal? ~~~~ all.equal gives me the following difference: "Attributes: < Component 3: Attributes: < Length mismatch: comparison on first 1 components "

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  • inconsistent setTexture behavior in cocos2d on iPhone after using CCAnimate/CCAnimation

    - by chillid
    Hi, I have a character that goes through multiple states. The state changes are reflected by means of a sprite image (texture) change. The state change is triggered by a user tapping on the sprite. This works consistently and quite well. I then added an animation during State0. Now, when the user taps - setTexture gets executed to change the texture to reflect State1, however some of the times (unpredictable) it does not change the texture. The code flows as below: // 1. // Create the animation sequence CGRect frame1Rect = CGRectMake(0,32,32,32); CGRect frame2Rect = CGRectMake(32,32,32,32); CCTexture2D* texWithAnimation = [[CCTextureCache sharedTextureCache] addImage:@"Frames0_1_thinkNthickoutline32x32.png"]; id anim = [[[CCAnimation alloc] initWithName:@"Sports" delay:1/25.0] autorelease]; [anim addFrame:[CCSpriteFrame frameWithTexture:texWithAnimation rect:frame1Rect offset:ccp(0,0)]]; [anim addFrame:[CCSpriteFrame frameWithTexture:texWithAnimation rect:frame2Rect offset:ccp(0,0)]]; // Make the animation sequence repeat forever id myAction = [CCAnimate actionWithAnimation: anim restoreOriginalFrame:NO]; // 2. // Run the animation: sports = [[CCRepeatForever alloc] init]; [sports initWithAction:myAction]; [self.sprite runAction:sports]; // 3. stop action on state change and change texture: NSLog(@"Stopping action"); [sprite stopAction:sports]; NSLog(@"Changing texture for kCJSports"); [self setTexture: [[CCTextureCache sharedTextureCache] addImage:@"SportsOpen.png"]]; [self setTextureRect:CGRectMake(0,0,32,64)]; NSLog(@"Changed texture for kCJSports"); Note that all the NSLog lines get logged - and the texture RECT changes - but the image/texture changes only some of the times - fails for around 10-30% of times. Locking/threading/timing issue somewhere? My app (game) is single threaded and I only use the addImage and not the Async version. Any help much appreciated.

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  • How to Populate a 'Tree' structure 'Declaratively'

    - by mackenir
    I want to define a 'node' class/struct and then declare a tree of these nodes in code in such a way that the way the code is formatted reflects the tree structure, and there's not 'too much' boiler plate in the way. Note that this isn't a question about data structures, but rather about what features of C++ I could use to arrive at a similar style of declarative code to the example below. Possibly with C++0X this would be easier as it has more capabilities in the area of constructing objects and collections, but I'm using Visual Studio 2008. Example tree node type: struct node { string name; node* children; node(const char* name, node* children); node(const char* name); }; What I want to do: Declare a tree so its structure is reflected in the source code node root = node("foo", [ node("child1"), node("child2", [ node("grand_child1"), node("grand_child2"), node("grand_child3" ]), node("child3") ]); NB: what I don't want to do: Declare a whole bunch of temporary objects/colls and construct the tree 'backwards' node grandkids[] = node[3] { node("grand_child1"), node("grand_child2"), node("grand_child3" }; node kids[] = node[3] { node("child1"), node("child2", grandkids) node("child3") }; node root = node("foo", kids);

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  • Disabling browser print options (headers, footers, margins) from page?

    - by Anthony
    I have seen this question asked in a couple of different ways on SO and several other websites, but most of them are either too specific or out-of-date. I'm hoping someone can provide a definitive answer here without pandering to speculation. Is there a way, either with CSS or javascript, to change the default printer settings when someone prints within their browser? And of course by "prints from their browser" I mean some form of HTML, not PDF or some other plug-in reliant mime-type. Please note: If some browsers offer this and others don't (or if you only know how to do it for some browsers) I welcome browser-specific solutions. Similarly, if you know of a mainstream browser that has specific restrictions against EVER doing this, that is also helpful, but some fairly up-to-date documentation would be appreciated. (simply saying "that goes against XYZ's security policy" isn't very convincing when XYZ has made significant changes in said policy in the last three years). Finally, when I say "change default print settings" I don't mean forever, just for my page, and I am referring specifically to print margins, headers, and footers. I am very aware that CSS offers the option of changing the page orientation as well as the page margins. One of the many struggles is with Firefox. If I set the page margins to 1 inch, it ADDS this to the half inch it already puts into place. I very much want to reduce the usage of PDFs on my client's site, but the infringement on presentation (as well as the lack of reliability) are their main concern.

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  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help. EDIT I should note that my question is not just aimed at interposing over standard C library functions, but also functions contained in other libraries, perhaps 3rd party, perhaps ones created in-house. Essentially, I want to catch any instance of interpositioning regardless of where the interposed function resides.

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  • How to allow all except part 1 and part 2 ?

    - by Stackfan
    This allows me to get easyly dynamic input variables instead of putting a static prefix like /en/etcetcetc, but the problem is all controllers are blocked. Everything goes to index/index. Question: How can i tell this rule allow evertying as it is now, but do not track if it contains http://site.com/donotcatch/me and http://site.com/iamnotbelongstodynamic1/blabla protected function _initRoutes() { ... $dynamic1 = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( '/:variable0/:variable1', array( 'controller' => 'index', 'action' => 'index'), array( 'variable0' => '^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$', 'variable1' => '^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$', ) ); Follow up: Normally, i always belive yes we can, so, we can do that like this where dynamic1 does not the inter-fare with my other static controllers: // http://site/yeswecan/blabla // variable0 = yeswecan // variable1 = blabla $dynamic1 = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( '/:variable0/:variable1', array( 'controller' => 'index', 'action' => 'index'), array( 'variable0' => '^[a-zA-Z]*$', 'variable1' => '^[a-z0-9_]*$', ) ); // http://site/ajax/whatever... // solves it $dynamic2 = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( '/ajax/:variable0', array( 'controller' => 'ajax', 'action' => '' ), array( 'variable0' => '^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$', ) ); // http://site/order/whatever... // solves it $dynamic3 = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( '/order/:variable0', array( 'controller' => 'order', 'action' => ''), array( 'variable0' => '^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$', ) ); Note: Still the controllers are getting failed for example http://site/ajax/whatever always goes to /ajax/index where i wanted to send it as /ajax/user-inserted-value How can i fix the $dynamic2 and $dynamic3 by keeping $dynamic1 ??

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  • Invoking a SOAP ( Web Services ) from ORACLE DB

    - by Mousarules
    Dears, Kindly note that I’m trying to invoke a SOAP (web services) from ORACLE DB using pl\sql , after I have done some investigations it says that I have to use the UTL_HTTP package but It didn't work with me !!! Kindly to advice me , where should I exactly place the following SOAP in pl\SQL to be invoked .... is it posible ? SOAP 1.1 The following is a sample SOAP 1.1 request and response. The placeholders shown need to be replaced with actual values. POST /gmgwebservice/service.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: bulk.umniah.com Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "http://tempuri.org/SendSMS" <SendSMS xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <UserName>string</UserName> <Password>string</Password> <MessageBody>string</MessageBody> <Sender>string</Sender> <Destination>string</Destination> </SendSMS> HTTP/1.1 200 OK Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length <SendSMSResponse xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <SendSMSResult>string</SendSMSResult> </SendSMSResponse> --This web services refers to a web site called Bulk Messaging ; the web site sends SMS to a specific mobile number by filling in some text boxes , I need it to be done from ORACLE forms when a specific action occurs ( JOB ) but I don’t know how to use it inside my pl\sql code . Hope that it’s clear ,is there something else I have to mention ?

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  • How expensive is a context switch? Is it better to implement a manual task switch than to rely on OS

    - by Vilx-
    The title says it all. Imagine I have two (three, four, whatever) tasks that have to run in parallel. Now, the easy way to do this would be to create separate threads and forget about it. But on a plain old single-core CPU that would mean a lot of context switching - and we all know that context switching is big, bad, slow, and generally simply Evil. It should be avoided, right? On that note, if I'm writing the software from ground up anyway, I could go the extra mile and implement my own task-switching. Split each task in parts, save the state inbetween, and then switch among them within a single thread. Or, if I detect that there are multiple CPU cores, I could just give each task to a separate thread and all would be well. The second solution does have the advantage of adapting to the number of available CPU cores, but will the manual task-switch really be faster than the one in the OS core? Especially if I'm trying to make the whole thing generic with a TaskManager and an ITask, etc?

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  • xpath query to find parent tag

    - by cru3l
    for example, i have this xml <elements> <a> <b>6</b> <b>5</b> <b>6</b> </a> <a> <b>5</b> <b>5</b> <b>6</b> </a> <a> <b>5</b> <b>5</b> <b>5</b> <b>5</b> </a> </elements> i need a xpath query, which must return me parent tag, only if all its children are equal to 5 (a[3] in this case). Something like that //b[text()="5"]/.. but with check of all children's tags. Please note that number of children tags can be different from node to node. It's possible with only xpath query? thanks

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  • Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

    - by Sarah
    Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

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  • DotNetOpenAuth getting return_To url as the provider

    - by Jeff
    I have a provider that I'm upgrading from version 2 to version 3. basically a user comes to one of our sites and we say "if you don't have an openID sign up with this one" They click that and are sent to our in house provider what signs them up for an account and has to verify their email address. In the link I send via Email I included the return to url . This way when they click the link to verify their email (sometimes up to a week later) they are sent to our page that knows to send them back to the returnTo to login. I could not find a good way to do this in version 2 so I used a hack. Sadly this hack broke in version 2 so I'm completely stumped as to how to find the login page url that is the return_To Note: I need the full URL not just the domain. old hack: if (ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest != null) { req = ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest.ToString(); int startpos = req.LastIndexOf("CheckIdRequest.ReturnTo = '"); startpos += "CheckIdRequest.ReturnTo = '".Length; int endpos = req.LastIndexOf("token=") - startpos-1; if (endpos > 0) { req = req.Substring(startpos, endpos); } else { log.Fatal("Missing token in url" + ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest.ToString()); return "~/"; } req = req.Replace("&internalLogin=True", ""); req = req.Replace("?internalLogin=True&", "?"); req = req.Replace("?internalLogin=True", ""); }

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  • Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

    - by Avatar_Squadron
    Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

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  • WPF & Linq To SQL binding ComboBox to foreign key

    - by ZeroDelta
    I'm having trouble binding a ComboBox to a foreign key in WPF using Linq To SQL. It works fine when displaying records, but if I change the selection on the ComboBox, that change does not seem to affect the property to which it is bound. My SQL Server Compact file has three tables: Players (PK is PlayerID), Events (PK is EventID), and Matches (PK is MatchID). Matches has FKs for the the other two, so that a match is associated with a player and an event. My window for editing a match uses a ComboBox to select the Event, and the ItemsSource is set to the result of a LINQ query to pull all of the Events. And of course the user should be able to select the Event based on EventName, not EventID. Here's the XAML: <ComboBox x:Name="cboEvent" DisplayMemberPath="EventName" SelectedValuePath="EventID" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=EventID, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> And some code-behind from the Loaded event handler: var evt = from ev in db.Events orderby ev.EventName select ev; cboEvent.ItemsSource = evt.ToList(); var mtch = from m in db.Matches where m.PlayerID == ((Player)playerView.CurrentItem).PlayerID select m; matchView = (CollectionView)CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(mtch); this.DataContext = matchView; When displaying matches, this works fine--I can navigate from one match to the next and the EventName is shown correctly. However, if I select a new Event via this ComboBox, the CurrentItem of the CollectionView doesn't seem to change. I feel like I'm missing something stupid! Note: the Player is selected via a ListBox, and that selection filters the matches displayed--this seems to be working fine, so I didn't include that code. That is the reason for the "PlayerID" reference in the LINQ query

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  • Test the sequentiality of a column with a single SQL query

    - by LauriE
    Hey, I have a table that contains sets of sequential datasets, like that: ID set_ID some_column n 1 'set-1' 'aaaaaaaaaa' 1 2 'set-1' 'bbbbbbbbbb' 2 3 'set-1' 'cccccccccc' 3 4 'set-2' 'dddddddddd' 1 5 'set-2' 'eeeeeeeeee' 2 6 'set-3' 'ffffffffff' 2 7 'set-3' 'gggggggggg' 1 At the end of a transaction that makes several types of modifications to those rows, I would like to ensure that within a single set, all the values of "n" are still sequential (rollback otherwise). They do not need to be in the same order according to the PK, just sequential, like 1-2-3 or 3-1-2, but not like 1-3-4. Due to the fact that there might be thousands of rows within a single set I would prefer to do it in the db to avoid the overhead of fetching the data just for verification after making some small changes. Also there is the issue of concurrency. The way locking in InnoDB (repeatable read) works (as I understand) is that if I have an index on "n" then InnoDB also locks the "gaps" between values. If I combine set_ID and n to a single index, would that eliminate the problem of phantom rows appearing? Looks to me like a common problem. Any brilliant ideas? Thanks! Note: using MySQL + InnoDB

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  • Inline function v. Macro in C -- What's the Overhead (Memory/Speed)?

    - by Jason R. Mick
    I searched Stack Overflow for the pros/cons of function-like macros v. inline functions. I found the following discussion: Pros and Cons of Different macro function / inline methods in C ...but it didn't answer my primary burning question. Namely, what is the overhead in c of using a macro function (with variables, possibly other function calls) v. an inline function, in terms of memory usage and execution speed? Are there any compiler-dependent differences in overhead? I have both icc and gcc at my disposal. My code snippet I'm modularizing is: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = AttractiveTerm * AttractiveTerm; EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); My reason for turning it into an inline function/macro is so I can drop it into a c file and then conditionally compile other similar, but slightly different functions/macros. e.g.: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,9); EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); (note the difference in the second line...) This function is a central one to my code and gets called thousands of times per step in my program and my program performs millions of steps. Thus I want to have the LEAST overhead possible, hence why I'm wasting time worrying about the overhead of inlining v. transforming the code into a macro. Based on the prior discussion I already realize other pros/cons (type independence and resulting errors from that) of macros... but what I want to know most, and don't currently know is the PERFORMANCE. I know some of you C veterans will have some great insight for me!!

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  • Git is not using the first editor in my $PATH

    - by GuillaumeA
    I am using OS X 10.8, and I used brew to install a more recent version of emacs than the one shipped with OS X. The newer emacs binary is installed in /usr/local/bin (24.2.1), and the old "shipped-with-osx" one in /usr/bin (22.1.1). I updated my $PATH env variable by prepending /usr/local/bin to it. It works fine in my shell (ie. typing emacs runs the 24.2.1 version), but when git opens the editor, the emacs version is 22.1.1. Isn't git supposed to use $PATH to find the editor I want to use ? Additional informations: $ type -a emacs emacs is /usr/local/bin/emacs emacs is /usr/bin/emacs emacs is /usr/local/bin/emacs $ env PATH=/usr/local/bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/bin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin:/usr/local/bin SHELL=/bin/zsh PAGER=most EDITOR=emacs -nw _=/usr/bin/env Please note that I'd prefer not to set the absolute path of my editor directly in my git conf, as I use this conf across multiple systems. EDIT: Here's an bit of my .zshrc: # Mac OS X if [ `uname` = "Darwin" ]; then # Brew binaries PATH="/usr/local/bin":"/usr/local/sbin":$PATH else # Everyone else (Linux) # snip fi So, yes, I could add a line export EDITOR='/usr/local/bin emacs -nw' in the first if, but I'd like to understand why git is not using my PATH variable :)

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  • Android newbie installing Eclipse, having issues....

    - by Jeff
    I am a web developer, new to app development and Java/Android. I am about to follow some tutorials to get started learning but I'm running into a wall. The Android dev site says the recommended way to build Android apps is in Java using the Eclipse plug in. So I downloaded Eclipse Classic and unzipped it on to get this error: "A Java Runtime Environment (JRE) or Java Development Kit (JDK) must be available in order to run Eclipse. No Java virtual machine was found after searching the following locations: /Users//Desktop/eclipse/Eclipse.app/Contents/MacOS/jre/bin/java java in your current PATH" Any idea what the issue is and how I can fix it? Again, newbie to java, jre, android, so I apologize if this question has already been asked. In my research I've discovered that most of the posts or solutions I've found are tough for me to follow. There's always a few unclear items that are probably prohibiting me from getting the answer I need. So I'm hoping someone can walk me through installing or configuring whatever I need to regarding Java so I can continue installing Eclipse and begin learning. I should probably note that I'm on Mac OSX 10.6.6 Snow Leopard. Please let me know if you need any other info. Thanks so much in advance for any and all help!!!

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