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  • Using the standard OBJECT tag, how can I display a java applet with automatic prompts to install Java and with fallback content?

    - by CB
    This is the code i'm currently using: (note - %s is replaced on the server side) <!--[if !IE]>--> <object type="application/x-java-applet" width="300" height="300" > <!--<![endif]--> <!--[if IE]> <object classid="clsid:8AD9C840-044E-11D1-B3E9-00805F499D93" codebase="http://java.sun.com/update/1.6.0/jinstall-6u22-windows-i586.cab" type="application/x-java-applet" width="300" height="300" > <!--><!-- <![endif]--> <param name="codebase" value="/media/vnc/" > <param name="archive" value="TightVncViewer.jar" /> <param name="code" value="com.tightvnc.vncviewer.VncViewer" /> <param name="port" value="%s" /> <param name="Open New Window" value="yes" /> </object> When Java is installed, this works perfectly in both IE and Firefox. When Java is not installed, IE and Firefox both correctly prompt for an autodownload of Java 1.6 from the codebase line. (IE via the activex url given firefox via the Plugin Finder Service) Now, suppose I want fallback content to be shown if the plugin isn't installed, say a simple message like "Get Java". From reading the specs, i'd assume this should not change the plugin finding prompt - that is, rendering the fallback should be seen as a failure to render the object tag. Thus, I should still get the plugin finder service prompting me to install Java. Instead, simply adding a single character to the innerHTML of the object element causes Firefox to no longer prompt. Test this by visiting data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'>Java failed to load</object>. How can I keep firefox prompting to install Java while providing fallback content? URL to test Firefox's Java Plugin Finder Service: data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'/>

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  • How to configure multiple mappings using FluentHibernate?

    - by chris.baglieri
    First time rocking it with NHibernate/Fluent so apologies in advance if this is a naive question. I have a set of Models I want to map. When I create my session factory I'm trying to do all mappings at once. I am not using auto-mapping (though I may if what I am trying to do ends up being more painful than it ought to be). The problem I am running into is that it seems only the top map is taking. Given the code snippet below and running a unit test that attempts to save 'bar', it fails and checking the logs I see NHibernate is trying to save a bar entity to the foo table. While I suspect it's my mappings it could be something else that I am simply overlooking. Code that creates the session factory (note I've also tried separate calls into .Mappings): Fluently.Configure().Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(c => c .Server(@"localhost\SQLEXPRESS") .Database("foo") .Username("foo") .Password("foo"))) .Mappings(m => { m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<FooMap>() .Conventions.Add(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Helpers .Table.Is(x => "foos")); m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<BarMap>() .Conventions.Add(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Helpers .Table.Is(x => "bars")); }) .BuildSessionFactory(); Unit test snippet: using (var session = Data.SessionHelper.SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { var bar = new Bar(); session.Save(bar); Assert.NotNull(bar.Id); }

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  • Unable to diligently close the excel process running in memory

    - by NewAutoUser
    I have developed a VB.Net code for retrieving data from excel file .I load this data in one form and update it back in excel after making necessary modifications in data. This complete flow works fine but most of the times I have observed that even if I close the form; the already loaded excel process does not get closed properly. I tried all possible ways to close it but could not be able to resolve the issue. Find below code which I am using for connecting to excel and let me know if any other approach I may need to follow to resolve this issue. Note: I do not want to kill the excel process as it will kill other instances of the excel Dim connectionString As String connectionString = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; Data Source=" & ExcelFilePath & "; Extended Properties=excel 8.0; Persist Security Info=False" excelSheetConnection = New ADODB.Connection If excelSheetConnection.State = 1 Then excelSheetConnection.Close() excelSheetConnection.Open(connectionString) objRsExcelSheet = New ADODB.Recordset If objRsExcelSheet.State = 1 Then objRsExcelSheet.Close() Try If TestID = "" Then objRsExcelSheet.Open("Select * from [" & ActiveSheet & "$]", excelSheetConnection, 1, 1) Else objRsExcelSheet.Open("Select Test_ID,Test_Description,Expected_Result,Type,UI_Element,Action,Data,Risk from [" & ActiveSheet & "$] WHERE TEST_Id LIKE '" & TestID & ".%'", excelSheetConnection, 1, 1) End If getExcelData = objRsExcelSheet Catch errObj As System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException MsgBox(errObj.Message, , errObj.Source) Return Nothing End Try excelSheetConnection = Nothing objRsExcelSheet = Nothing

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  • Bootstrap inline button dropdown within <p> jumbotron

    - by C.B.
    Currently I have a jumbotron setup with some paragraph text, and I would like to stick a button dropdown inline with the text. Dropdown button <span class="btn-group"> <button type="button" class="btn btn-default dropdown-toggle" data-toggle="dropdown"> Button... <span class="caret"></span> </button> <ul class="dropdown-menu" role="menu"> <li><a href="#">Opt 1</a></li> <li><a href="#">Opt 2</a></li> </ul> </span> Jumbotron <div class="jumbotron"> <h1>Hello!</h1> <p>Welcome</p> <p>Another paragraph <!-- dropdown is here --> </p> </div> <!-- jumbotron --> If the dropdown is within the <p> tag, it does not "dropdown" (but renders). If it is outside of the <p> tag it functions fine, but I would like it to be inline with the text and need the text to be in the <p> tag to get the style. Any ideas? Things to note -- If I replace the <span> tags with <div> tags, it will work fine within the <p> tags, but won't be inline.

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  • How to automatically display relationships in logical diagram?

    - by Cliff Chaney
    Consider a Logical Model where Entity A and Entity B are connected via Relationship Z. If I create a Logical Diagram (note: not another logical MODEL), I am able to drag Entity A and Entity B onto the diagram. Since the Logical Model already "knows" that Entity A and Entity B have a relationship, I would like to be able to easily add it to my logical diagram. I am already aware of the "Show Symbols" option whereby I can select the specific relationship that I want and have it appear. That is not a solution for me. The problem is that I have a LARGE logical model consisting of HUNDREDS of Entities and their various relationships. I then need to create application-specific diagrams consisting of a subset of those entities. I can easily identify and drag the 50+ entities onto a new diagram. But identifying and selecting all the associations is an exercise in frustration. Is there an option or some sort of feature that I'm missing - or any other trick - that would allow me to add only the relationships between selected entities or all entities on a diagram?

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  • Can a custom MFC window/dialog be a template class?

    - by John
    There's a bunch of special macros that MFC uses when creating dialogs, and in my quick tests I'm getting weird errors trying to compile a template dialog class. Is this likely to be a big pain to achieve? Here's what I tried: MyDlg.h template <class W> class CMyDlg : public CDialog { typedef CDialog super; DECLARE_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg <W>) public: CMyDlg (CWnd* pParent); // standard constructor virtual ~CMyDlg (); // Dialog Data enum { IDD = IDD_MYDLG }; protected: virtual void DoDataExchange(CDataExchange* pDX); // DDX/DDV support DECLARE_MESSAGE_MAP() private: W *m_pWidget; //W will always be a CDialog }; IMPLEMENT_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg<W>, super) <------------------- template <class W> CMyDlg<W>::CMyDlg(CWnd* pParent) : super(CMyDlg::IDD, pParent) { m_pWidget = new W(this); } I get a whole bunch of errors but main one appears to be: error C2955: 'CMyDlg' : use of class template requires template argument list I tried using some specialised template versions of macros but it doesn't help much, other errors change but this one remains. Note my code is all in one file, since C++ templates don't like .h/.cpp like normal.

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  • Why Is the sender type null when dealing with events

    - by ChloeRadshaw
    From C# Via CLR: Note A lot of people wonder why the event pattern requires the sender parameter to always be of type Object After all, since the MailManager will be the only type raising an event with a NewMail EventArgs object, it makes more sense for the callback method to be prototyped like this: void MethodName(Mai l Manager sender, NewMail EventArgs e); The pattern requires the sender parameter to be of type Object mostly because of inheritance What if Mai lManager were used as a base class for SmtpMailManager? In this case, the callback method should have the sender parameter prototyped as SmtpMailManager instead of Mail Manager, but this can’t happen because SmtpMai lManager just inherited the NewMai l event So the code that was expecting SmtpMail Manager to raise the event must still have to cast the sender argument to SmtpMailManager In other words, the cast is still required, so the sender parameter might as well be typed as Obj ect The next reason for typing the sender parameter as Obj ect is just fexibility It allows the delegate to be used by multiple types that offer an event that passes a NewMail EventArgs object For example, a PopMai lManager class could use the delegate even if this class were not derived from Mail Manager I just simply cannot understand why the sender is an object - Why can it not be generified? so most of the time we do not need to do generic casts

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  • Apache POI rows number

    - by sys_debug
    I am using Apache POI java and want to get the total number of rows which are not empty. I successfully processed a whole row with all its columns. Now I am assuming that I get an excel sheet with multiple rows and not a single row...so how to go about that? I was thinking of getting total number of rows (int n) and then loop until i<=n but not sure. Suggestions are most welcome :) Note: Apache POI version is 3.8. I am not dealing with Xlsx format...only xls. Yes I tried this code but got 20 in return....which is not possible given I have only 5 rows FileInputStream fileInputStream = new FileInputStream("COD.xls"); HSSFWorkbook workbook = new HSSFWorkbook(fileInputStream); HSSFSheet worksheet = workbook.getSheet("COD"); HSSFRow row1 = worksheet.getRow(3); Iterator rows = worksheet.rowIterator(); int noOfRows = 0; while( rows.hasNext() ) { HSSFRow row = (HSSFRow) rows.next(); noOfRows++; } System.out.println("Number of Rows: " + noOfRows);

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  • Binding ComboBox Item with a text property of different DataContext

    - by Jhelumi786
    Hi Everyone, I have a comboBox as below. What I want is to bind the selectedItem value to a Text property of a datacontext so that another DataTemplate can show the Image. Please note that the Combobox and Target Image elements are on two different DataTemplates so that's why I need to update the Text Property (ImageName) ofDataContext at backend. <ComboBox x:Name="cboOverlay" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" SelectedIndex="0" > <ComboBoxItem Name="BC_OL" IsSelected="True"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Source="Images\BC_OL.jpg" Width="100" Height="25" Canvas.Top="0" Canvas.Left="0" /> <TextBlock Width="100" VerticalAlignment="Center" TextAlignment="Center"><Bold>Image1</Bold></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem Name="Indian_OL"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Source="Images\Indian_OL.jpg" Width="100" Height="25" Canvas.Top="0" Canvas.Left="0" /> <TextBlock Width="100" VerticalAlignment="Center" TextAlignment="Center"><Bold>Image2</Bold></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> <Image Source="{Binding Path=Image}" Width="81" Height="25" Canvas.Top="0" Canvas.Left="0" />

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  • Locking database edit by key name

    - by Will Glass
    I need to prevent simultaneous edits to a database field. Users are executing a push operation on a structured data field, so I want to sequence the operations, not simply ignore one edit and take the second. Essentially I want to do synchronized(key name) { push value onto the database field } and set up the synchronized item so that only one operation on "key name" will occur at a time. (note: I'm simplifying, it's not always a simple push). A crude way to do this would be a global synchronization, but that bottlenecks the entire app. All I need to do is sequence two simultaneous writes with the same key, which is rare but annoying occurrence. This is a web-based java app, written with Spring (and using JPA/MySQL). The operation is triggered by a user web service call. (the root cause is when a user sends two simultaneous http requests with the same key). I've glanced through the Doug Lea/Josh Bloch/et al Concurrency in Action, but don't see an obvious solution. Still, this seems simple enough I feel there must be an elegant way to do this.

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  • Passing objects across Appdomains

    - by MUSTAQ
    My issue is similar to the one posted in "http://stackoverflow.com/questions/981773/moving-objects-across-appdomains-in-net". In one of my application, I am creating a separate appdomain. I need to create an instance of a class (Note: this class is derived by MarshalByRefObject) in my parent domain and invoke a MethodA in that instance. This instance is created using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap". The problem is that this MethodA takes objects of type class as an argument. These objects are not created in the MethodB where i created the appdomain. It was passed as an argument to the MethodB where i create the appdomain. So is it necessary to create a new instance of these objects using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap" before passing it to the created domain. Not doing this gives me an error in the created domain mentioning that "MyClass object has no attribute foo" during some invocation. Please let me know how to pass the objects across appdomains and execute the method. My statements might be confusing, please let me know for any specific details required.

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  • Completed Event not triggering for web service on some systems

    - by Farukh
    Hi, This is rather weird issue that I am facing with by WCF/Silverlight application. I am using a WCF to get data from a database for my Silverlight application and the completed event is not triggering for method in WCF on some systems. I have checked the called method executes properly has returns the values. I have checked via Fiddler and it clearly shows that response has the returned values as well. However the completed event is not getting triggered. Moreover in few of the systems, everything is fine and I am able to process the returned value in the completed method. Any thoughts or suggestions would be greatly appreciated. I have tried searching around the web but without any luck :( Following is the code.. Calling the method.. void RFCDeploy_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { btnSelectFile.IsEnabled = true; btnUploadFile.IsEnabled = false; btnSelectFile.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(btnSelectFile_Click); btnUploadFile.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(btnUploadFile_Click); RFCChangeDataGrid.KeyDown += new KeyEventHandler(RFCChangeDataGrid_KeyDown); btnAddRFCManually.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(btnAddRFCManually_Click); ServiceReference1.DataService1Client ws = new BEVDashBoard.ServiceReference1.DataService1Client(); ws.GetRFCChangeCompleted += new EventHandler<BEVDashBoard.ServiceReference1.GetRFCChangeCompletedEventArgs>(ws_GetRFCChangeCompleted); ws.GetRFCChangeAsync(); this.BusyIndicator1.IsBusy = true; } Completed Event.... void ws_GetRFCChangeCompleted(object sender, BEVDashBoard.ServiceReference1.GetRFCChangeCompletedEventArgs e) { PagedCollectionView view = new PagedCollectionView(e.Result); view.GroupDescriptions.Add(new PropertyGroupDescription("RFC")); RFCChangeDataGrid.ItemsSource = view; foreach (CollectionViewGroup group in view.Groups) { RFCChangeDataGrid.CollapseRowGroup(group, true); } this.BusyIndicator1.IsBusy = false; } Please note that this WCF has lots of other method as well and all of them are working fine.... I have problem with only this method... Thanks...

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  • How to detect the root recursive call?

    - by ahmadabdolkader
    Say we're writing a simple recursive function fib(n) that calculates the nth Fibonacci number. Now, we want the function to print that nth number. As the same function is being called repeatedly, there has to be a condition that allows only the root call to print. The question is: how to write this condition without passing any additional arguments, or using global/static variables. So, we're dealing with something like this: int fib(int n) { if(n <= 0) return 0; int fn = 1; if(n > 2) fn = fib(n-2) + fib(n-1); if(???) cout << fn << endl; return fn; } int main() { fib(5); return 0; } I thought that the root call differs from all children by returning to a different caller, namely the main method in this example. I wanted to know whether it is possible to use this property to write the condition and how. Update: please note that this is a contrived example that only serves to present the idea. This should be clear from the tags. I'm not looking for standard solutions. Thanks.

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  • sendto is returning ENOBUF

    - by user338159
    Hi, I am currently running an old system on Tru64 which involves lots of UDP sockets using the sendto() function. The sockets are used in our code to send messages to/from various processes and then eventually on to a thick client app that is connected remotely. Occasionally the socket to the thick client gets stuck, this can cause some of these messages to get built up. My question is how can I determine the current buffer size, and how do I determine the maximum message buffer. The code below gives a snippet of how I set up the port and use the sendto function. /* need to adjust the maximum size we can send on this / / as it needs to be able to cope with the biggest / / messages we send / lenlen = sizeof(len) ; / allow double for when the system is under load */ len = 2 * C_MAX_MESSAGE_DATA_SIZE ; lpos_setsockopt(FATAL, msg_socket,SOL_SOCKET, SO_SNDBUF, &len, lenlen, &error_no) ; result = sendto( msg_socket, (char *)message, (int)message_len, flags, dest_addr, addrlen); Note. We have ported this application to Linux and the problem does not seem to appear there. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Regards

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  • Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by Tony_Henrich
    My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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  • mailing system DB structure, need help

    - by Anna
    i have a system there user(sender) can write a note to friends(receivers), number of receivers=0. Text of the message is saved in DB and visible to sender and all receivers then they login to system. Sender can add more receivers at any time. More over any of receivers can edit the message and even remove it from DB. For this system i created 3 tables, shortly: users(userID, username, password) messages(messageID, text) list(id, senderID, receiverID, messageID) in table "list" each row corresponds to pair sender-receiver, like sender_x_ID -- receiver_1_ID -- message_1_ID sender_x_ID -- receiver_2_ID -- message_1_ID sender_x_ID -- receiver_3_ID -- message_1_ID Now the problem is: 1. if user deletes the message from table "messages" how to automatically delete all rows from table "list" which correspond to deleted message. Do i have to include some foreign keys? More important: 2. if sender has let say 3 receivers for his message1 (username1, username2 and username3) and at certain moment decides to add username4 and username5 and at the same time exclude username1 from the list of receivers. PHP code will get the new list of receivers (username2, username3, username4, username5) That means insert to table "list" sender_x_ID -- receiver_4_ID -- message_1_ID sender_x_ID -- receiver_5_ID -- message_1_ID and also delete from table "list" the row corresponding to user1 (which is not in the list or receivers any more) sender_x_ID -- receiver_1_ID -- message_1_ID which sql query to send from PHP to make it in an easy and intelligent way? Please help! Examples of sql queries would be perfect!

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  • How to best manage multi-frame MovieClips with classes?

    - by Arms
    After switching to AS3, I've been having a hell of a time figuring out the best way to manage MovieClips that have UI elements spread across multiple frames with a single class. An example that I am working on now is a simple email form. I have a MovieClip with two frames: the 1st frame has the form elements (text inputs, submit button) the 2nd frame has a "thank you" message and a button to go back to the first frame (to send another email) In the library I have linked the MovieClip to a custom class (Emailer). My immediate problem is how do I assign a MouseEvent.CLICK event to the button on the 2nd frame? I should note at this point that I am trying to avoid putting code on the timeline (except for stop() calls). This is how I am 'solving' the problem now: Emailer registers an event listener for a frame change ( addEventListener("frame 2", onFrameChange) ) On the 2nd frame of the MovieClip I am calling dispatchEvent(new Event("frame 2")); (I would prefer to not have this code on the frame, but I don't know what else to do) My two complaints with this method are that, first I have calls to addEventListener spread out across different class methods (I would rather have all UI event listeners registered in one method), and second that I have to dispatch those custom "onFrameChange" events. The second complaint grows exponentially for MovieClips that have more than just 2 frames. My so called solution feels makes me feel dirty and makes my brain hurt. I am looking for any advice on what to do differently. Perhaps there's a design pattern I should be looking at? Should I swallow my pride and write timeline code even though the rest of my application is written in class files (and I abhor the Flash IDE code editor)? I absolutely LOVE the event system, and have no problem coding applications with it, but I feel like I'm stuck thinking in terms of AS2 when working with mutl-frame movieclips and code. Any and all help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • PHP | SQL syntax error when inserting array

    - by Philip
    Hi guys, I am having some trouble inserting an array into the sql database. my error is as follows: Unable to add : You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '06:45:23,i want to leave a comment)' at line 1 My query var_dump is: string(136) "INSERT INTO news_comments (news_id,comment_by,comment_date,comment) VALUES (17263,Philip,2010-05-11 06:45:23,i want to leave a comment)" My question is how can i add an empty value to id as it is the primary key and not news_id my insert function looks like this: function insertQuery($tbl, &$data) { global $mysqli; $_SESSION['errors'] = array(); require_once '../config/mysqli.php'; $query = "INSERT INTO $tbl (".implode(',',array_keys($data)).") VALUES (".implode(',',array_values($data)).")"; var_dump($query); if($result = mysqli_query($mysqli, $query)) { //$id = mysqli_insert_id($mysqli); print 'Very well done sir!'; } else { array_push($_SESSION['errors'], 'Unable to add : ' . mysqli_error($mysqli)); } } Note: arrays are not my strong point so i may be using them in-correctly!

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  • asp.net gridview bind dateformat not working with update

    - by Brabbeldas
    I have a GridView with a TemplateField column which shows a DateTime from a DataSource. <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Start Date"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDateStart" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("dtDateStart", "{0:dd/MM/yyyy}") %>'</asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("dtDateStart", "{0:dd/MM/yyyy}") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> Displaying the date in the correct format works as it should. Note that the format starts with DAY followed by MONTH. When I switch to edit mode, change the date in the TextBox to '31-01-2013' and press the GridView's update-link i get an error: Cannot convert value of parameter 'dtDateStart' from 'System.String' to 'System.DateTime' The error is generated by the GridView not my own code. It happens before the UpdateMethod of my DataSource is called. When i type '01-31-2012' the data is processed correctly and the value is updated into the database. Somehow when the date is displayed it uses format dd-MM-yyyy (just as I need it to) But when it reads the new value form the TextBox it uses MM-dd-yyyy Can somebody please help me?

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  • ASP.Net - Help with datagrid/checkboxes/double submit

    - by Gareth D
    We have a simple datagrid. Each row has a checkbox. The checkbox is set to autopostback, and the code-behind has an event handler for the checkbox check-changed event. This all works as expected, nothing complicated. However, we want to disable the checkboxes as soon as one is checked to prevent a double submit i.e. check box checked, all checkboxes are disabled via client side javascript, form submitted. To achieve this I we are injecting some code into the onclick event as follows (note that the alert is just for testing!): Protected Sub DgAccounts_ItemCreated(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridItemEventArgs) Handles DgAccounts.ItemCreated If e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.Item Or e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.AlternatingItem Then Dim chk As CheckBox = CType(e.Item.FindControl("chkItemChecked"), CheckBox) chk.Attributes.Add("onclick", "alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();") End If End Sub When inspecting the source of the rendered page we get the following: <input id="DgAccounts__ctl2_chkItemChecked" type="checkbox" name="DgAccounts:_ctl2:chkItemChecked" onclick="alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'DgAccounts$_ctl2$chkItemChecked\',\'\')', 0)" language="javascript" /> It all appears in order, however the server side event does not fire – I believe this is due to the checkbox being disabled, as if we just leave the alert in and remove the call to disable the checkbox it all works fine. Can I force the check-changed event to fire even though the check box is disabled?

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  • Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

    - by Sarah
    Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

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  • Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

    - by Pazinio
    I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

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  • Can't delete record via the datacontext it was retrieved from

    - by Antilogic
    I just upgraded one of my application's methods to use compiled queries (not sure if this is relevant). Now I'm getting contradicting error messages when I run the code. This is my method: MyClass existing = Queries.MyStaticCompiledQuery(MyRequestScopedDataContext, param1, param2).SingleOrDefault(); if (existing != null) { MyRequestScopedDataContext.MyClasses.DeleteOnSubmit(existing); } When I run it I get this message: Cannot remove an entity that has not been attached. Note that the compiled query and the DeleteOnSubmit reference the same DataContext. Still I figured I'd humor the application and add an attach command before the DeleteOnSubmit, like so: MyClass existing = Queries.MyStaticCompiledQuery(MyRequestScopedDataContext, param1, param2).SingleOrDefault(); if (existing != null) { MyRequestScopedDataContext.MyClasses.Attach(existing); MyRequestScopedDataContext.MyClasses.DeleteOnSubmit(existing); } BUT... When I run this code, I get a completely different contradictory error message: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported. I'm at a complete loss... Does anyone else have some insight as to why I can't delete a record via the same DataContext I retrieved it from?

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  • MediaWiki: how to hide users from the user list?

    - by Dave Everitt
    I've set up Mediawiki 1.15.1 for a client who has added two users by mistake. They now want to hide these users from the user list. It seems this is done via the $wgGroupPermissions array with $wgGroupPermissions['suppress']['hideuser'] = true;, but it isn't at all clear what entry this needs for the hiding to work, or whether a new group ('hidden' or whatever) has to be created first with $wgAddGroups['bureaucrat'] = true;. For now, I've added the two users to be hidden to the 'Oversight' group which explains 'Block a username, hiding it from the public (hideuser)', but they still appear on the Special:ListUsers page. At a loss as to how the MediWiki arrays alter options displayed in the interface, so far I've added this to LocalSettings.php: $wgGroupPermissions['suppress']['hideuser'] = true; $wgAddGroups['supress'] = true; Or - since they haven't actually added anything to the wiki - could they simply be removed from the MySQL users table - although MediaWiki warns against this? Has anyone else done this successfully? Update - this is a hole in MediaWiki admin (although there are workarounds). See this thread on MediaWIki Users and the note to the reply below.

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  • cURL Affects Cookie Retrieval in PHP?

    - by CJ
    I'm not sure if I'm asking this properly. I have two PHP pages located on the same server. The first PHP page sets a cookie with an expiration and the second one checks to see if that cookie was set. if it is set, it returns "on". If it isn't set, it returns "off". If I just run the pages like "www.example.com/set_cookie.php" AND "www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php" I get an "on" from is_cookie_set.php. Heres the problem, on the set_cookie.php file I have a function called is_set. This function executes the following cURL and returns the contents ("on" or "off"). Unfortunately, the contents are always returned as "off". however, if I check the file manually ("www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php") I can see that the cookie was set. Heres the function : <?php function is_set() { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://example.com/is_cookie_set.php'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $contents = curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); echo $contents; } ?> Please note, I'm not using cURL to GET or SET cookies, only to check a page that checks if the cookie was set. I've looked into CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, and CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, but I believe those are for setting cookies via cURL and I don't want to do this.

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