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  • NSMutableDictionary with UIButton* as keys - iPhone development

    - by Alejandro A.
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone development and I have a question that may have a very simple answer. I am trying to add buttons to a view and these buttons are associated with a custom class that I defined. When I add the buttons to the view, I would like to know what class these buttons correspond to. This is because when I press the button, I need to get some information about the class, but the receiver of the message is another class. I couldn't find information about an error that I'm getting on the web. The problem I have is that I'm trying to create an NSMutableDictionary where the keys are of type UIButton* and the values are of my custom type: // create button for unit UIButton* unitButton = [[UIButton alloc] init]; [sourceButtonMap setObject:composite forKey:unitButton]; Of course, the sourceButtonMap is defined in the class and initialized in the init function as sourceButtonMap = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; The error I get when I try to add the key-value pair is: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton copyWithZone:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3931e90' Is this happening because I can't store UIButton* as keys? Can anyone point me why I'm getting this error? Thank you all, aa

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  • call lynx from jsp script

    - by Piero
    Hi, I have an execute(String cmd) in a jsp script that calls the exec method from the Runtime class. It works when I call a local command, like a php script stored on the server. for example: /usr/bin/php /path/to/php/script arg1 arg2 So I guess my execute command is ok, since it is working with that. Now when I try to call lynx, the text-based web browser, it does not work. If I call it in a terminal, it works fine: /usr/bin/lynx -dump -accept_all_cookies 'http://www.someurl.net/?arg1=1&arg2=2' But when I call this from my execute command, nothing happens... Any idea why? This is my execute method: public String execute(String cmd){ Runtime r = Runtime.getRuntime(); Process p = null; String res = ""; try { p = r.exec(cmd); InputStreamReader isr = new InputStreamReader(p.getInputStream()); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(isr); String line = null; //out.println(res); while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { res += line; } p.waitFor(); } catch (Exception e) { res += e; } System.out.println(p.exitValue()); return res; }

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  • How can you handle cross-cutting conerns in JAX-WS without Spring or AOP? Handlers?

    - by LES2
    I do have something more specific in mind, however: Each web service method needs to be wrapped with some boiler place code (cross cutting concern, yes, spring AOP would work great here but it either doesn't work or unapproved by gov't architecture group). A simple service call is as follows: @WebMethod... public Foo performFoo(...) { Object result = null; Object something = blah; try { soil(something); result = handlePerformFoo(...); } catch(Exception e) { throw translateException(e); } finally { wash(something); } return result; } protected abstract Foo handlePerformFoo(...); (I hope that's enough context). Basically, I would like a hook (that was in the same thread - like a method invocation interceptor) that could have a before() and after() that could could soil(something) and wash(something) around the method call for every freaking WebMethod. Can't use Spring AOP because my web services are not Spring managed beans :( HELP!!!!! Give advice! Please don't let me copy-paste that boiler plate 1 billion times (as I've been instructed to do). Regards, LES

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  • HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

    - by stormin986
    My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

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  • Use the output of logs in the execution of a program

    - by myle
    When I try to create a specific object, the program crashes. However, I use a module (mechanize) which logs useful information just before the crash. If I had somehow this information available I could avoid it. Is there any way to use the information which is logged (when I use the function set_debug_redirects) during the normal execution of the program? Just to be a bit more specific, I try to emulate the login behavior in a webpage. The program crashes because it can't handle a specific Following HTTP-EQUIV=REFRESH to <omitted_url>. Given this url, which is available in the logs but not as part of the exception which is thrown, I could visit this page and complete successfully the login process. Any other suggestions that may solve the problem are welcomed. It follows the code so far. SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL = "https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginBox?service=adsense&ltmpl=login&ifr=true&rm=hide&fpui=3&nui=15&alwf=true&passive=true&continue=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&followup=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&hl=en_US" def init_browser(): # Browser br = mechanize.Browser() # Cookie Jar cj = cookielib.LWPCookieJar() br.set_cookiejar(cj) # Browser options br.set_handle_equiv(True) br.set_handle_gzip(False) br.set_handle_redirect(True) br.set_handle_referer(True) br.set_handle_robots(True) br.set_handle_refresh(mechanize._http.HTTPRefreshProcessor(), max_time=30.0, honor_time=False) # Want debugging messages? #br.set_debug_http(True) br.set_debug_redirects(True) #br.set_debug_responses(True) return br def adsense_login(login, password): br = init_browser() r = br.open(SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL) html = r.read() # Select the first (index zero) form br.select_form(nr=0) br.form['Email'] = login br.form['Passwd'] = password br.submit() req = br.click_link(text='click here to continue') try: # this is where it crashes br.open(req) except HTTPError, e: sys.exit("post failed: %d: %s" % (e.code, e.msg)) return br

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  • How can we call an activity through service in android???

    - by Shalini Singh
    Hi! friends, i am a android developer,,, want to know is it possible to call an activity through background service in android like : import android.app.Service; import android.content.Intent; import android.content.SharedPreferences; import android.media.MediaPlayer; import android.os.Handler; import android.os.IBinder; import android.os.Message; public class background extends Service{ private int timer1; @Override public void onCreate() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(); SharedPreferences preferences = getSharedPreferences("SaveTime", MODE_PRIVATE); timer1 = preferences.getInt("time", 0); startservice(); } @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } private void startservice() { Handler handler = new Handler(); handler.postDelayed(new Runnable(){ public void run() { mediaPlayerPlay.sendEmptyMessage(0); } }, timer1*60*1000); } private Handler mediaPlayerPlay = new Handler(){ @Override public void handleMessage(Message msg) { try { getApplication(); MediaPlayer mp = new MediaPlayer(); mp = MediaPlayer.create(background.this, R.raw.alarm); mp.start(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } super.handleMessage(msg); } }; /* * (non-Javadoc) * * @see android.app.Service#onDestroy() */ @Override public void onDestroy() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onDestroy(); } } i want to call my activity......

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  • Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

    - by Gishu
    As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

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  • Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

    - by Oddthinking
    Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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  • SQL Server 2000 intermittent connection exceptions on production server - specific environment probl

    - by StickyMcGinty
    We've been having intermittent problems causing users to be forcibly logged out of out application. Our set-up is ASP.Net/C# web application on Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition with SQL Server 2000 on the back end. We've recently performed a major product upgrade on our client's VMWare server (we have a guest instance dedicated to us) and whereas we had none of these issues with the previous release the added complexity that the new upgrade brings to the product has caused a lot of issues. We are also running SQL Server 2000 (build 8.00.2039, or SP4) and the IIS/ASP.NET (.Net v2.0.50727) application on the same box and connecting to each other via a TCP/IP connection. Primarily, the exceptions being thrown are: System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Cannot find table 0. System.ArgumentException: Column 'password' does not belong to table Table. [This exception occurs in the log in script, even though there is clearly a password column available] System.InvalidOperationException: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. [This one is occurring very regularly] System.InvalidOperationException: This SqlTransaction has completed; it is no longer usable. System.ApplicationException: ExecuteReader requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is connecting. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. And just today, for the first time: System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. We have load tested the app using the same number of concurrent users as the production server and cannot reproduce these errors. They are very intermittent and occur even when there are only 8/9/10 user connections. My gut is telling me its ASP.NET - SQL Server 2000 connection issues.. We've pretty much ruled out code-level Data Access Layer errors at this stage (we've a development team of 15 experienced developers working on this) so we think its a specific production server environment issue.

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  • Loading a class file immediately AFTER startup

    - by Striker
    We have a few war files deployed inside an ear file. Some of the war files have a class that caches static data from our PLM system in singletons. Since some of the classes take several minutes to load we use the load-on-startup in the web.xml to load them ahead of time. This all works fine until we attempt to re-deploy the application on our production servers. (WebLogic 10.3) We get an exception from our PLM API about a dll already being loaded. Our PLM vendor has confirmed that this is a problem and stated that they don't support using the load-on-startup. This is also a huge problem on our development boxes where we have redeploy the app all the time. Most of us, when we're not working on one of the apps that uses a cache, have them commented out. Obviously we can't do that for the production servers. Right now we transfer the ear to the production server, deploy it in the console, wait for it to crash, shut the app server instance down and then start it up again. We need to find a way around this... One suggestion was to create a servlet that we can call after the server boots that will load the various caches. While this will work I'm looking for something a bit cleaner. Is there anyway to detect once the server started and then fire off the methods? Thanks.

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  • java connectivity with mysql error

    - by abson
    I just started with the connectivity and tried this example. I have installed the necessary softwares. Also copied the jar file into the /ext folder.Yet the code below has the following error import java.sql.*; public class Jdbc00 { public static void main(String args[]){ try { Statement stmt; Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/mysql" DriverManager.getConnection(url,"root", "root"); //Display URL and connection information System.out.println("URL: " + url); System.out.println("Connection: " + con); //Get a Statement object stmt = con.createStatement(); //Create the new database stmt.executeUpdate( "CREATE DATABASE JunkDB"); stmt.executeUpdate( "GRANT SELECT,INSERT,UPDATE,DELETE," + "CREATE,DROP " + "ON JunkDB.* TO 'auser'@'localhost' " + "IDENTIFIED BY 'drowssap';"); con.close(); }catch( Exception e ) { e.printStackTrace(); }//end catch }//end main }//end class Jdbc00 But it gave the following error D:\Java12\Explore>java Jdbc00 java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Unknown Source) at Jdbc11.main(Jdbc00.java:11) Could anyone please guide me in correcting this?

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  • Can't access annotation property of subclassed uibutton

    - by Tzur Gazit
    I have a mapView to which I add annotations. The pin's callout have a button (rightCalloutAccessoryView). In order to be able to display various information when the button is pushed, i've subclassed uibutton and added a class called "Annotation". @interface CustomButton : UIButton { NSIndexPath *indexPath; Annotation *mAnnotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSIndexPath *indexPath; @property (nonatomic, copy) Annotation *mAnnotation; - (id) setAnnotation2:(Annotation *)annotation; @end Here is "Annotation": @interface Annotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *mPhotoID; NSString *mPhotoUrl; NSString *mPhotoName; NSString *mOwner; NSString *mAddress; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoID; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoUrl; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoName; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mOwner; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mAddress; - (id) initWithCoordinates:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)coordinate; - (id) setPhotoId:(NSString *)id url:(NSString *)url owner:(NSString *)owner address:(NSString *)address andName:(NSString *)name; @end I want to set the annotation property of the uibutton at - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)pMapView viewForAnnotation:(id )annotation, in order to refer to it at the button push handler (-(IBAction) showDetails:(id)sender). The problem is that I can't set the annotation property of the button. I get the following message at run time: 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400' 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] Stack: ( 32080987, 2472563977, 32462907, 32032374, 31884994, 55885, 30695992, 30679095, 30662137, 30514190, 30553882, 30481385, 30479684, 30496027, 30588515, 63333386, 31865536, 31861832, 40171029, 40171226, 2846639 ) I appreciate the help. Tzur.

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  • Can I ignore a SIGFPE resulting from division by zero?

    - by Mikeage
    I have a program which deliberately performs a divide by zero (and stores the result in a volatile variable) in order to halt in certain circumstances. However, I'd like to be able to disable this halting, without changing the macro that performs the division by zero. Is there any way to ignore it? I've tried using #include <signal.h> ... int main(void) { signal(SIGFPE, SIG_IGN); ... } but it still dies with the message "Floating point exception (core dumped)". I don't actually use the value, so I don't really care what's assigned to the variable; 0, random, undefined... EDIT: I know this is not the most portable, but it's intended for an embedded device which runs on many different OSes. The default halt action is to divide by zero; other platforms require different tricks to force a watchdog induced reboot (such as an infinite loop with interrupts disabled). For a PC (linux) test environment, I wanted to disable the halt on division by zero without relying on things like assert.

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  • How to differentiate between two similar fields in Linq Join tables

    - by Azhar
    How to differentiate between two select new fields e.g. Description c.Description and lt.Description DataTable lDt = new DataTable(); try { lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("AreaTypeID", typeof(Int32))); lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("CategoryRef", typeof(Int32))); lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("Description", typeof(String))); lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("CatDescription", typeof(String))); EzEagleDBDataContext lDc = new EzEagleDBDataContext(); var lAreaType = (from lt in lDc.tbl_AreaTypes join c in lDc.tbl_AreaCategories on lt.CategoryRef equals c.CategoryID where lt.AreaTypeID== pTypeId select new { lt.AreaTypeID, lt.Description, lt.CategoryRef, c.Description }).ToArray(); for (int j = 0; j< lAreaType.Count; j++) { DataRow dr = lDt.NewRow(); dr["AreaTypeID"] = lAreaType[j].LandmarkTypeID; dr["CategoryRef"] = lAreaType[j].CategoryRef; dr["Description"] = lAreaType[j].Description; dr["CatDescription"] = lAreaType[j].; lDt.Rows.Add(dr); } } catch (Exception ex) { }

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  • Coda Slider and Fancybox Conflict

    - by Jings
    Hey there, i have some issues with Coda Slider and Fancybox. I use Fancybox to load an external Site within an Iframe and Coda Slider is for the Content Slider on the Startpage. If i have the jquery-easing Plugin called in my Head fpr the Coda Slider, the Fancybox doesn't work. When i delete the link to jquery-easing-1.3 the Coda Slider throws an Exception but the Fancybox works perfectly Here is some Code: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/js/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/fancybox/jquery.fancybox-1.3.4.pack.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/js/coda-slider.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/js/jquery.easing.1.3.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".book a").fancybox({ 'width' : '75%', 'height' : '75%', 'speedIn' : 600, 'speedOut' : 200, 'overlayShow' : true, 'type' : 'iframe', 'autoscale' : false, 'hideOnOverlayClick' : true }); $('#coda-slider').codaSlider({ autoSlide: true, autoSlideInterval: 5500, autoHeightEaseDuration: 2500, autoHeightEaseFunction: "easeInOutElastic", slideEaseDuration: 2500, slideEaseFunction: "easeInOutElastic", dynamicArrows: false, dynamicTabs: false }); }); </script> Don't know why this doesn't work as it should :) Hope you Guys know =)

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  • How can I get at the raw bytes of the request in WCF?

    - by Gregory Higley
    For logging purposes, I want to get at the raw request sent to my RESTful web service implemented in WCF. I have already implemented IDispatchMessageInspector. In my implementation of AfterReceiveRequest, I want to spit out the raw bytes of the message even (and especially) if the content of the message is invalid. This is for debugging purposes. My service works perfectly already, but it is often helpful when working through problems with clients who are trying to call the service to know what it was they sent, i.e., the raw bytes. For example, let's say that instead of sending a well-formed XML document, they post the string "your mama" to my service endpoint. I want to see that that's what they did. Unfortunately using MessageBuffer::CreateBufferedCopy() won't work unless the contents of the message are already well-formed XML. Here's (roughly) what I already have in my implementation of AfterReceiveRequest: // The immediately following line raises an exception if the message // does not contain valid XML. This is uncool because I want // the raw bytes regardless of whether they are valid or not. using (MessageBuffer buffer = request.CreateBufferedCopy(Int32.MaxValue)) { using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream()) using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(stream)) { buffer.WriteMessage(stream); stream.Position = 0; Trace.TraceInformation(reader.ReadToEnd()); } request = buffer.CreateMessage(); } My guess here is that I need to get at the raw request before it becomes a Message. This will most likely have to be done at a lower level in the WCF stack than an IDispatchMessageInspector. Anyone know how to do this?

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  • Using LinqExtender to make OData feed fails

    - by BurningIce
    A pretty simple question, has anyone here tried to make a OData feed based on a IQueryable created with LinqExtender? I have created a simple Linq-provider that supports Where, Select, OrderBy and Take and wanted to expose it as an OData Feed. I keep getting an error though, and the Exception is a NullReference with the following StackTrace at System.Data.Services.Serializers.Serializer.GetObjectKey(Object resource, IDataServiceProvider provider, String containerName) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.Serializer.GetUri(Object resource, IDataServiceProvider provider, ResourceContainer container, Uri absoluteServiceUri) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteEntryElement(IExpandedResult expanded, Object element, Type expectedType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem target) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.<DeferredFeedItems>d__0.MoveNext() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteItems(XmlWriter writer, IEnumerable`1 items, Uri feedBaseUri) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeedTo(XmlWriter writer, SyndicationFeed feed, Boolean isSourceFeed) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeed(XmlWriter writer) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteTo(XmlWriter writer) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteTopLevelElements(IExpandedResult expanded, IEnumerator elements, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.Serializer.WriteRequest(IEnumerator queryResults, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.ResponseBodyWriter.Write(Stream stream) I've kinda narrowed it down to a issue where LinqExtender wraps every returned object, so that my object actually inherits itself - thats at least how it looks like in the debugger. These two queries are basicly the same. The first is the legacy-api where the OrderBy and Select is regular Linq to Objects. The second query is a "real" linq-provider made with LinqExtender. var db = CalendarDataProvider.GetCalendarEntriesByDate(DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMonths(1), Guid.Empty) .OrderBy(o => o.Title) .Select(o => new ODataCalendarEntry(o)); var query = new ODataCalendarEntryQuery() .Where(o => o.Start > DateTime.Now && o.End < DateTime.Now.AddMonths(1)) .OrderBy(o => o.Title); When returning db for the OData feed everything is fine, but returning query throws a NullRefenceException. I've tried all kind of tricks and even tried to project all the data into a new object like this, but still the same error return query.Select(o => new ODataCalendarEntry { Title = o.Title, Start = o.Start, End = o.End, Name = o.Name });

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  • about Quick Sort

    - by matin1234
    Hi I have written this code but it will print these stack traces in the console please help me thanks! (Aslo "p" and "q" are the first and last index of our array ,respectively) public class JavaQuickSort { public static void QuickSort(int A[], int p, int q) { int i, last = 0; Random rand = new Random(); if (q < 1) { return; } **swap(A, p, rand.nextInt() % (q+1));** for (i = p + 1; i <= q; i++) { if (A[i] < A[p]) { swap(A, ++last, i); } } swap(A, p, last); QuickSort(A, p, last - 1); QuickSort(A, last + 1, q); } private static void swap(int[] A, int i, int j) { int temp; temp = A[i]; **A[i] = A[j];** A[j] = temp; } public static void main(String[] args){ int[] A = {2,5,7,3,9,0,1,6,8}; **QuickSort(A, 0,8 );** System.out.println(Arrays.toString(A)); } } the Stack traces : run: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: -3 at JavaQuickSort.swap(JavaQuickSort.java:38) at JavaQuickSort.QuickSort(JavaQuickSort.java:22) at JavaQuickSort.main(JavaQuickSort.java:45) Java Result: 1 BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 2 seconds) I also bold those statements that cause these stack traces. like == ** ...**

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  • Problem with RVM and gem that has an executable

    - by djhworld
    Hi there, I've recently made the plunge to use RVM on Ubuntu. Everything seems to have gone swimmingly...except for one thing. I'm in the process of developing a gem of mine that has a script placed within its own bin/ directory, all of the gemspec and things were generated by Jeweler. The bin/mygem file contains the following code: - #!/usr/bin/env ruby begin require 'mygem' rescue LoadError require 'rubygems' require 'mygem' end app = MyGem::Application.new app.run That was working fine on the system version of Ruby. Now...recently I've moved to RVM to manage my ruby versions a bit better, except now my gem doesn't appear to be working. Firstly I do this: - rvm 1.9.2 Then I do this: - rvm 1.9.2 gem install mygem Which installs fine, except...when I try to run the command for mygem mygem I just get the following exception: - daniel@daniel-VirtualBox:~$ mygem <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require': no such file to load -- mygem (LoadError) from <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/gems/mygem-0.1.4/bin/mygem:2:in `<top (required)>' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/mygem:19:in `load' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/mygem:19:in `<main>'mygem NOTE: I have a similar RVM setup on MAC OSX and my gem works fine there so I think this might be something to do with Ubuntu?

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  • SQL Server Compact timed out waiting for a lock

    - by jankhana
    Hi all, I'm having an application in that i use Sql Compact 3.5 with VS2008. I'm running multiple threads in my application which contacts the compact database and accesses the row. It selects and deletes those rows in a fashion i.e selecting and giving to the application 5 rows and deleting those rows from the table. It works great with a single thread but if i use multiple threads i.e if 3 or more threads are running I get very often the TimeOut Error!!! I have increased the Time out property in the connection string but it didn't give me expected result. The error log is as follow: SQL Server Compact timed out waiting for a lock. The default lock time is 2000ms for devices and 5000ms for desktops. The default lock timeout can be increased in the connection string using the ssce: default lock timeout property. [ Session id = 5,Thread id = 4204,Process id = 4808,Table name = XXX,Conflict type = x lock (s blocks),Resource = TAB ] The Query that I use to retrieve is as follows: " select Top(5) * from TableName order by id; delete from TableName where id in(select top(5) id from TableName order by id); " Is there any way by which we can avoid this Time Out exception??????? The above query I un as a transaction in VS2008 one using SQLCECommand and the other using SqlCEDataAdapter. Any Idea!!!!!! Reply

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  • Why does autoboxing in Java allow me to have 3 possible values for a boolean?

    - by John
    Reference: http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/guide/language/autoboxing.html If your program tries to autounbox null, it will throw a NullPointerException. javac will give you a compile-time error if you try to assign null to a boolean. makes sense. assigning null to a Boolean is a-ok though. also makes sense, i guess. but let's think about the fact that you'll get a NPE when trying to autounbox null. what this means is that you can't safely perform boolean operations on Booleans without null-checking or exception handling. same goes for doing math operations on an Integer. for a long time, i was a fan of autoboxing in java1.5+ because I thought it got java closer to be truly object-oriented. but, after running into this problem last night, i gotta say that i think this sucks. the compiler giving me an error when I'm trying to do stuff with an uninitialized primitive is a good thing. I think I may be misunderstanding the point of autoboxing, but at the same time I will never accept that a boolean should be able to have 3 values. can anyone explain this? what am i not getting?

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  • PHP Error handling in WordPress plugin

    - by AaronM
    I am a newbie to both PHP and Wordpress (but do ok in C#), and am struggling to understand the error handling in a custom plugin I am attempting to write. The basics of the plugin is to query an exsiting MSSQL database (note its not the standard MYSQL db...) and return the rows back to the screen. This was working well, but the hosting provider has taken my database offline, which led me to the error handling problem (which I thought was ok). The following code is failing to connect to the database (as expected), but puts an error onto the screen and stops the page processing. It does not even output the 'or die' error text. QUESTION: How can I just output a simple "Cant load data" message, and continue on normally? function generateData() { global $post; if ("$post->post_title" == "Home") { try { $myServer = "<servername>"; $myUser = "<username>"; $myPass = "<password>"; $myDB = "<dbName>"; //connection to the database $dbhandle = mssql_connect($myServer, $myUser, $myPass) or die("Couldn't open database $myDB"); //... query processing here... } catch (Exception $e) { echo "Cannot load data<br />"; } } return $content; } Error being generated: (line 31 is $dbhandle = mssql_connect...) Warning: mssql_connect() [function.mssql-connect]: Unable to connect to server: <servername> in <file path> on line 31 Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 30 seconds exceeded in <file path> on line 31

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  • Altering lazy-loaded object's private variables

    - by Kevin Pang
    I'm running into an issue with private setters when using NHibernate and lazy-loading. Let's say I have a class that looks like this: public class User { public int Foo {get; private set;} public IList<User> Friends {get; set;} public void SetFirstFriendsFoo() { // This line works in a unit test but does nothing during a live run with // a lazy-loaded Friends list Users(0).Foo = 1; } } The SetFirstFriendsFoo call works perfectly inside a unit test (as it should since objects of the same type can access each others private properties). However, when running live with a lazy-loaded Friends list, the SetFirstFriendsFoo call silently fails. I'm guessing the reason for this is because at run-time, the Users(0).Foo object is no longer of type User, but of a proxy class that inherits from User since the Friends list was lazy-loaded. My question is this: shouldn't this generate a run-time exception? You get compile-time exceptions if you try to access another class's private properties, but when you run into a situation like this is looks like the app just ignores you and continues along its way.

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  • Yaml::load_file acting different between development and production (Rails)

    - by James
    Hi, I am completely stumped at the nature of this problem. We export data from our application into a 'cleaned' YAML file (stripping out IDs, created_at etc). Then we (will) allow users to import these files back into the application - it is the import that is completely bugging me out. In development, YAML::load_file(params[:uploaded_data].local_path) returns an array of YAML::Objects's (and it doesn't matter which of the number of different ways the file could be loaded): [#{"exception_count"="0", "title"="Start", "amount"="70.00", "colour"=nil, "repeat_type_id"="0", "repeat_interval"="1"}}, etc etc] Which is very nice, as the attributes also include the (associated model) exceptions that you see an exception_count for. However on production (rails 2.3.2, running REE 1.8.7 and 1.8.6 for testing, tested on two different production env's, and running production locally) it returns an array of the Objects within the YAML - in this case, Event: [#, repeat_type_id: 0, colour: nil, repeat_interval: 1, exception_count: 0, etc etc] Now this would be just perplexing if it also included the associated model Exception with it - however it doesn't. Can anyone at all shed some light on why the Yaml parser would behave so differently between production and development? I'm on rails 2.3.2, running REE 1.8.7; however I've also tested running Ruby 1.8.6 with exactly the same results. Thanks for any help!

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  • How can I automatically release resources RAII-style in Perl?

    - by Philip Potter
    Say I have a resource (e.g. a filehandle or network socket) which has to be freed: open my $fh, "<", "filename" or die "Couldn't open filename: $!"; process($fh); close $fh or die "Couldn't close filename: $!"; Suppose that process might die. Then the code block exits early, and $fh doesn't get closed. I could explicitly check for errors: open my $fh, "<", "filename" or die "Couldn't open filename: $!"; eval {process($fh)}; my $saved_error = $@; close $fh or die "Couldn't close filename: $!"; die $saved_error if $saved_error; but this kind of code is notoriously difficult to get right, and only gets more complicated when you add more resources. In C++ I would use RAII to create an object which owns the resource, and whose destructor would free it. That way, I don't have to remember to free the resource, and resource cleanup happens correctly as soon as the RAII object goes out of scope - even if an exception is thrown. Unfortunately in Perl a DESTROY method is unsuitable for this purpose as there are no guarantees for when it will be called. Is there a Perlish way to ensure resources are automatically freed like this even in the presence of exceptions? Or is explicit error checking the only option?

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