Search Results

Search found 12599 results on 504 pages for 'd language'.

Page 440/504 | < Previous Page | 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447  | Next Page >

• How to hide div serverside by reading cookie

  - by user338109

  I am using following a tutorial from here: http://www.shopdev.co.uk/blog/cookies-with-jquery-designing-collapsible-layouts/ This is the script I use: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(function() { // SETUP: // When the info banner is clicked: $('#setup').click(function() { $('#intro').css("display","none"); $.cookie('intro', 'collapsed'); }); // COOKIES // Info banner state var intro = $.cookie('intro'); // READ THE COOKIES if (intro == 'collapsed') { $('#intro').css("display","none"); }; }); </script> The script hides the following div as the cookie is read: <div class="feedback attention" id="intro"> Text goes here <a id="setup" href="#">Ok I get it, please hide this</a> </div> Everything work great but when the page loads the div is shown for a split second. I guess the solution is to present two different pieces of markup serverside according to the cookie info. I have no idea how to go about this.

  Read the article

• Optimizing T-SQL where an array would be nice

  - by Polatrite

  Alright, first you'll need to grab a barf bag. I've been tasked with optimizing several old stored procedures in our database. This SP does the following: 1) cursor loops through a series of "buildings" 2) cursor loops through a week, Sunday-Saturday 3) has a huge set of IF blocks that are responsible for counting how many Objects of what Types are present in a given building Essentially what you'll see in this code block is that, if there are 5 objects of type #2, it will increment @Type_2_Objects_5 by 1. IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 0 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_0 = @Type_1_Objects_0 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 1 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_1 = @Type_1_Objects_1 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 2 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_2 = @Type_1_Objects_2 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 3 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_3 = @Type_1_Objects_3 + 1 END [... Objects_4 through Objects_20 for Type_1] IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 0 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_0 = @Type_2_Objects_0 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 1 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_1 = @Type_2_Objects_1 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 2 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_2 = @Type_2_Objects_2 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 3 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_3 = @Type_2_Objects_3 + 1 END [... Objects_4 through Objects_20 for Type_2] In addition to being extremely hacky (and limited to a quantity of 20 objects), it seems like a terrible way of handling this. In a traditional language, this could easily be solved with a 2-dimensional array... objects[type][quantity] += 1; I'm a T-SQL novice, but since writing stored procedures often uses a lot of temporary tables (which could essentially be a 2-dimensional array) I was wondering if someone could illuminate a better way of handling a situation like this with two dynamic pieces of data to store. Requested in comments: The columns are simply Number_Type_1_Objects, Number_Type_2_Objects, Number_Type_3_Objects, Number_Type_4_Objects, Number_Type_5_Objects, and CurrentDateTime. Each row in the table represents 5 minutes. The expected output is to figure out what percentage of time a given quantity of objects is present throughout each day. Sunday - Object Type 1 0 objects - 69 rows, 5:45, 34.85% 1 object - 85 rows, 7:05, 42.93% 2 objects - 44 rows, 3:40, 22.22% On Sunday, there were 0 objects of type 1 for 34.85% of the day. There was 1 object for 42.93% of the day, and 2 objects for 22.22% of the day. Repeat for each object type.

  Read the article

• Why is my JavaScript function "a" not defined?

  - by 4l3x

  When I call my JavaScript function B, the javascript console in firefox said that function A is not defined, but on chrome browser if defined. And when I call function "A" in body segment: <input type="button" onclick="A()" value=" ..A.. "> , firefox said that function B is not defined? :S <html> <head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function B(){ alert(" hi B "); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onClick="A()" value=" ..A..">'); }; function A(){ alert(" hi A"); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..b..">'); if (window.WebCL == undefined) { alert("Unfortunately your system does not support WebCL. "); return false; } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..B.. "> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• How to write to a Text File in Pipe delimited format from MS Sql Server / ASP.Net?

  - by NJTechGuy

  I have a text file which needs to be constantly updated (regular intervals). All I want is the syntax and possibly some code that outputs data from a MS Sql Database using ASP.Net. The code I have so far is : <%@ Import Namespace="System.IO" %> <script language="vb" runat="server"> sub Page_Load(sender as Object, e as EventArgs) Dim FILENAME as String = Server.MapPath("Output.txt") Dim objStreamWriter as StreamWriter ' If Len(Dir$(FILENAME)) > 0 Then Kill(FILENAME) objStreamWriter = File.AppendText(FILENAME) objStreamWriter.WriteLine("A user viewed this demo at: " & DateTime.Now.ToString()) objStreamWriter.Close() Dim objStreamReader as StreamReader objStreamReader = File.OpenText(FILENAME) Dim contents as String = objStreamReader.ReadToEnd() lblNicerOutput.Text = contents.Replace(vbCrLf, "<br>") objStreamReader.Close() end sub </script> <asp:label runat="server" id="lblNicerOutput" Font-Name="Verdana" /> With PHP, it is a breeze, but with .Net I have no clue. If you could help me with the database connectivity and how to write the data in pipe delimited format to an Output.txt file, that had be awesome. Thanks guys!

  Read the article

• Recursive powerof-function, see if you can solve it

  - by Jonas B

  First of all, this is not schoolwork - just my curiousity as I for some reason can't get my head around it and solve it. I come up with these stupid things all the time and it annoys the hell out of me when I cant solve them. Code example is in C# but solution doesn't have to be in any particular programming-language. long powerofnum(short num, long powerof) { return powerofnum2(num, powerof, powerof); } long powerofnum2(short num, long powerof, long holder) { if (num == 1) return powerof; else { return powerof = powerofnum2(num - 1, holder * powerof, holder); } } As you can see I have two methods. I call for powerofnum(value, powerofvalue) which then calls the next method with the powerofvalue also in a third parameter as a placeholder so it remembers the original powerof value through the recursion. What I want to accomplish is to do this with only one method. I know I could just declare a variable in the first method with the powerof value to remember it and then iterate from 0 to value of num. But as this is a theoretical question I want it done recursively. I could also in the first method just take a third parameter called whatever to store the value just like I do in the second method that is called by the first, but that looks really stupid. Why should you have to write what seems like the same parameter twice? Rules explained in short: no iteration scope-specific variables only only one method Anyhow, I'd appreciate a clean solution. Good luck :)

  Read the article

• How can I solve the Log Pile wooden puzzle with a computer program?

  - by craig1410

  Can anyone suggest how to solve the Log Pile wooden puzzle using a computer program? See here to visualise the puzzle: http://www.puzzlethis.co.uk/products/madcow/the_log_pile.htm The picture only shows some of the pieces. The full set of 10 pieces are configured as follows with 1 representing a peg, -1 representing a hole and 0 representing neither a peg nor a hole. -1,1,0,-1,0 1,0,1,0,0 1,-1,1,0,0 -1,-1,0,0,-1 -1,1,0,1,0 0,1,0,0,1 1,0,-1,0,-1 0,-1,0,1,0 0,0,-1,1,-1 1,0,-1,0,0 The pieces can be interlocked in two layers of 5 pieces each with the top layer at 90 degrees to the bottom layer as shown in the above link. I have already created a solution to this problem myself using Java but I feel that it was a clumsy solution and I am interested to see some more sophisticated solutions. Feel free to either suggest a general approach or to provide a working program in the language of your choice. My approach was to use the numeric notation above to create an array of "Logs". I then used a combination/permutation generator to try all possible arrangements of the Logs until a solution was found where all the intersections equated to zero (ie. Peg to Hole, Hole to Peg or Blank to Blank). I used some speed-ups to detect the first failed intersection for a given permutation and move on to the next permutation. I hope you find this as interesting as I have. Thanks, Craig.

  Read the article

• how to run href="#var=something" before onclick function fires in javascript?

  - by korben

  i'm using the below javascript to change an image on an aspx in asp.net c# <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript"> var updateImageWhenHashChanges = function() { theImage = document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_Image1a"); if(window.location.hash == "#size=2") { theImage.src = "<%# Eval("realfilename", "/files/l{0}") %>"; } else if(window.location.hash == "#size=3") { theImage.src = "<%# Eval("realfilename", "/files/{0}") %>"; } else if(window.location.hash == "#size=1") { theImage.src = "<%# Eval("fullthumbname", "/thumbnails/{0}") %>"; } else { } } </script> here's how i call it with a link <a href="#size=3" onclick="updateImageWhenHashChanges();">test</a> the problem is that it only does what i'm expecting on the SECOND click of the link, because it seems onclick fires before the href, so the first time i'm just placing the var and the 2nd time i'm actually getting what i want. does anyone know how i can fix this? i'm trying to get the image to change on each click

  Read the article

• PostgreSQL storing paths for reference in scripts

  - by Brian D.

  I'm trying to find the appropriate place to store a system path in PostgreSQL. What I'm trying to do is load values into a table using the COPY command. However, since I will be referring to the same file path regularly I want to store that path in one place. I've tried creating a function to return the appropriate path, but I get a syntax error when I call the function in the COPY command. I'm not sure if this is the right way to go about it, but I'll post my code anyway. COPY command: COPY employee_scheduler.countries (code, name) FROM get_csv_path('countries.csv') WITH CSV; Function Definition: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION employee_scheduler.get_csv_path(IN file_name VARCHAR(50)) RETURNS VARCHAR(250) AS $$ DECLARE path VARCHAR(200) := E'C:\\Brian\\Work\\employee_scheduler\\database\\csv\\'; file_path VARCHAR(250) := ''; BEGIN file_path := path || file_name; RETURN file_path; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; If anyone has a different idea on how to accomplish this I'm open to suggestions. Thanks for any help!

  Read the article

• If statement doesn't work? do download without filed name and email

  - by user1833871

  I've created some if / else statements to get a download when a user hit click jf he fields name and email but doesn"t work for my site http://my-easy-woodworking-projects.com because it is do download without field name and email contact.php is <?php $field_name = $_POST['cf_name']; $field_email = $_POST['cf_email']; $field_message = $_POST['cf_message']; $mail_to = '[email protected]'; $subject = 'Message from a site visitor '.$field_name; $body_message = 'From: '.$field_name."\n"; $body_message .= 'E-mail: '.$field_email."\n"; $body_message .= 'Message: '.$field_message; $headers = 'From: '.$field_email."\r\n"; $headers .= 'Reply-To: '.$field_email."\r\n"; $mail_status = mail($mail_to, $subject, $body_message, $headers); if ($mail_status) { echo <script>\n" echo "var str = \"download\"; \n"" echo "document.write(str.link("http://www.myshedplans.com/12BY8SHED.pdf"));\n" echo "</script>\n" } echo else { echo <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> echo // Print a message echo alert('Message failed. Please, send an email to [email protected]'); echo // Redirect to some page of the site. You can also specify full URL, e.g. http://template-help.com window.location = 'contact_page.html'; echo </script> }?>

  Read the article

• RPC command to initiate a software install

  - by ericmayo

  I was recently working with a product from Symantech called Norton EndPoint protection. It consists of a server console application and a deployment application and I would like to incorporate their deployment method into a future version of one of my products. The deployment application allows you to select computer workstations running Win2K, WinXP, or Win7. The selection of workstations is provided from either AD (Active Directory) or NT Domain (WINs/DNS NetBIOS lookup). From the list, one can click and choose which workstations to deploy the end point software which is Symantech's virus & spyware protection suite. Then, after selecting which workstations should receive the package, the software copies the setup.exe program to each workstation (presumable over the administrative share \pcname\c$) and then commands the workstation to execute setup.exe resulting in the workstation installing the software. I really like how their product works but not sure what they are doing to accomplish all the steps. I've not done any deep investigations into this such as sniffing the network, etc... and wanted to check here to see if anyone is familiar with what I'm talking about and if you know how it's accomplished or have ideas how it could be accomplished. My thinking is that they are using the admin share to copy the software to the selected workstations and then issuing an RPC call to command the workstation to do the install. What's interesting is that the workstations do this without any of the logged in users knowing what's going on until the very end where a reboot is necessary. At which point, the user gets a pop-up asking to reboot now or later, etc... My hunch is that the setup.exe program is popping this message. To the point: I'm looking to find out the mechanism by which one Windows based machine can tell another to do some action or run some program. My programming language is C/C++ Any thoughts/suggestions appreciated.

  Read the article

• how to use a PHP Constant that gets pulled from a database

  - by Ronedog

  Can you read out the name of a PHP constant from a database and use it inside of a php variable, to display the value of the constant for use in a menu? For example here's what I'm trying to accomplish In SQL: select menu_name AS php_CONSTANT where menu_id=1 the value returned would be L_HOME which is the name of a CONSTANT in a php config page. The php config page looks like this define('L_HOME','Home'); and gets loaded before the database call. The php usage would be $db_returned_constant which has a value of L_HOME that came from the db call, then I would place this into a string such as $string = '<ul><li>' . $db_returned_constant . '</li></ul>' and thus return a string that looks like $string = '<ul><li><a href="#" onclick="path_from_db">Home</a></li></ul>'. To sum up what I'm trying to do Load a config file based on the language preference query the db to return the menu name, which is the name of a CONSTANT in the config file loaded in step one, and also retrieve the menu_link which is used in the "onclick" event. Use a php variable to hold the name of the CONSTANT Place the variable into a string that gets echo'd out to create the menu displaying the value of the CONSTANT. I hope this makes enough sense...is it even possible to use a constant like this? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Fastest way to become a MySQL expert?

  - by Kerry

  I have been using MySQL for years, mainly on smaller projects until the last year or so. I'm not sure if it's the nature of the language or my lack of real tutorials that gives me the feeling of being unsure if what I'm writing is the proper way for optimization purposes and scaling purposes. While self-taught in PHP I'm very sure of myself and the code I write, easily can compare it to others and so on. With MySQL, I'm not sure whether (and in what cases) an INNER JOIN or LEFT JOIN should be used, nor am I aware of the large amount of functionality that it has. While I've written code for databases that handled tens of millions of records, I don't know if it's optimum. I often find that a small tweak will make a query take less than 1/10 of the original time... but how do I know that my current query isn't also slow? I would like to become completely confident in this field in the ability to optimize databases and be scalable. Use is not a problem -- I use it on a daily basis in a number of different ways. So, the question is, what's the path? Reading a book? Website/tutorials? Recommendations?

  Read the article

• CSS with Java Script

  - by Field

  I have been at this for a long time. I have a css div that is center on page. It floats on bottom. When I add content to div #menu i can not get it to shift right. I want to add full menu that float on the page. It have a live chat button coded. It just does not seem to work right #menu { background: url("grid2.gif") repeat scroll 0 0 transparent; margin:0 auto; border: 0px solid #888888; color: #FFFFFF; display: block; font-weight: bold; padding: 0px; position: fixed; align: right; bottom: 30px; width: 970px; } * html #menu { position: absolute; } #menu a:visited, #menu a { color: #000000; display: block; height: 20px; line-height: 20px; margin: 0 auto; text-align: center; text-decoration: none; } <div id="menu"><script language="JavaScript" src="/livehelp/js/status_image.php?base_url=/livehelp&l=adminlive&x=1&deptid=1&"></a></script></div>

  Read the article

• Would an immutable keyword in Java be a good idea?

  - by berry120

  Generally speaking, the more I use immutable objects in Java the more I'm thinking they're a great idea. They've got lots of advantages from automatically being thread-safe to not needing to worry about cloning or copy constructors. This has got me thinking, would an "immutable" keyword go amiss? Obviously there's the disadvantages with adding another reserved word to the language, and I doubt it will actually happen primarily for the above reason - but ignoring that I can't really see many disadvantages. At present great care has to be taken to make sure objects are immutable, and even then a dodgy javadoc comment claiming a component object is immutable when it's in fact not can wreck the whole thing. There's also the argument that even basic objects like string aren't truly immutable because they're easily vunerable to reflection attacks. If we had an immutable keyword the compiler could surely recursively check and give an iron clad guarantee that all instances of a class were immutable, something that can't presently be done. Especially with concurrency becoming more and more used, I personally think it'd be good to add a keyword to this effect. But are there any disadvantages or implementation details I'm missing that makes this a bad idea?

  Read the article

• Haskell Cons Operator (:)

  - by Carson Myers

  I am really new to Haskell (Actually I saw "Real World Haskell" from O'Reilly and thought "hmm, I think I'll learn functional programming" yesterday) and I am wondering: I can use the construct operator to add an item to the beginning of a list: 1 : [2,3] [1,2,3] I tried making an example data type I found in the book and then playing with it: --in a file data BillingInfo = CreditCard Int String String | CashOnDelivery | Invoice Int deriving (Show) --in ghci $ let order_list = [Invoice 2345] $ order_list [Invoice 2345] $ let order_list = CashOnDelivery : order_list $ order_list [CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, ...- etc... it just repeats forever, is this because it uses lazy evaluation? -- EDIT -- okay, so it is being pounded into my head that let order_list = CashOnDelivery:order_list doesn't add CashOnDelivery to the original order_list and then set the result to order_list, but instead is recursive and creates an infinite list, forever adding CashOnDelivery to the beginning of itself. Of course now I remember that Haskell is a functional language and I can't change the value of the original order_list, so what should I do for a simple "tack this on to the end (or beginning, whatever) of this list?" Make a function which takes a list and BillingInfo as arguments, and then return a list? -- EDIT 2 -- well, based on all the answers I'm getting and the lack of being able to pass an object by reference and mutate variables (such as I'm used to)... I think that I have just asked this question prematurely and that I really need to delve further into the functional paradigm before I can expect to really understand the answers to my questions... I guess what i was looking for was how to write a function or something, taking a list and an item, and returning a list under the same name so the function could be called more than once, without changing the name every time (as if it was actually a program which would add actual orders to an order list, and the user wouldn't have to think of a new name for the list each time, but rather append an item to the same list).

  Read the article

• Convert a image to a monochrome byte array

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I am writing a library to interface C# with the EPL2 printer language. One feature I would like to try to implement is printing images, the specification doc says p1 = Width of graphic Width of graphic in bytes. Eight (8) dots = one (1) byte of data. p2 = Length of graphic Length of graphic in dots (or print lines) Data = Raw binary data without graphic file formatting. Data must be in bytes. Multiply the width in bytes (p1) by the number of print lines (p2) for the total amount of graphic data. The printer automatically calculates the exact size of the data block based upon this formula. I plan on my source image being a 1 bit per pixel bmp file, already scaled to size. I just don't know how to get it from that format in to a byte[] for me to send off to the printer. I tried ImageConverter.ConvertTo(Object, Type) it succeeds but the array it outputs is not the correct size and the documentation is very lacking on how the output is formatted. My current test code. Bitmap i = (Bitmap)Bitmap.FromFile("test.bmp"); ImageConverter ic = new ImageConverter(); byte[] b = (byte[])ic.ConvertTo(i, typeof(byte[])); Any help is greatly appreciated even if it is in a totally different direction.

  Read the article

• Fun with casting and inheritance

  - by Vaccano

  NOTE: This question is written in a C# like pseudo code, but I am really going to ask which languages have a solution. Please don't get hung up on syntax. Say I have two classes: class AngleLabel: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // code to allow the label to be on an angle } class Label: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // Code for a normal label // Maybe has code not in an AngleLabel (align for example). } They both decend from this class: class CustomLabel: Control { protected bool Bold; } The bold field is exposed as public in the descended classes. No interfaces are available on the classes. Now, I have a method that I want to beable to pass in a CustomLabel and set the Bold property. Can this be done without having to 1) find out what the real class of the object is and 2) cast to that object and then 3) make seperate code for each variable of each label type to set bold. Kind of like this: public void SetBold(customLabel: CustomLabel) { AngleLabel angleLabel; NormalLabel normalLabel; if (angleLabel is AngleLabel ) { angleLabel= customLabel as AngleLabel angleLabel.Bold = true; } if (label is Label) { normalLabel = customLabel as Label normalLabel .Bold = true; } } It would be nice to maybe make one cast and and then set bold on one variable. What I was musing about was to make a fourth class that just exposes the bold variable and cast my custom label to that class. Would that work? If so, which languages would it work for? (This example is drawn from an old version of Delphi (Delphi 5)). I don't know if it would work for that language, (I still need to try it out) but I am curious if it would work for C++, C# or Java. If not, any ideas on what would work? (Remember no interfaces are provided and I can not modify the classes.) Any one have a guess?

  Read the article

• What Test Environment Setup do Committers Use in the Ruby Community?

  - by viatropos

  Today I am going to get as far as I can setting up my testing environment and workflow. I'm looking for practical advice on how to setup the test environment from you guys who are very passionate and versed in Ruby Testing. By the end of the day (6am PST?) I would like to be able to: Type one 1-command to run test suites for ANY project I find on Github. Run autotest for ANY Github project so I can fork and make TESTABLE contributions. Build gems from the ground up with Autotest and Shoulda. For one reason or another, I hardly ever run tests for projects I clone from Github. The major reason is because unless they're using RSpec and have a Rake task to run the tests, I don't see the common pattern behind it all. I have built 3 or 4 gems writing tests with RSpec, and while I find the DSL fun, it's less than ideal because it just adds another layer/language of methods I have to learn and remember. So I'm going with Shoulda. But this isn't a question about which testing framework to choose. So the questions are: What is your, the SO reader and Github project committer, test environment setup using autotest so that whenever you git clone a gem, you can run the tests and autotest-develop them if desired? What are the guys who are writing the Paperclip Tests and Authlogic Tests doing? What is their setup? Thanks for the insight. Looking for answers that will make me a more effective tester.

  Read the article

• Learning PHP - start out using a framework or no?

  - by Kevin Torrent

  I've noticed a lot of jobs in my area for PHP. I've never used PHP before, and figure if I can get more opportunities if I pick it up then it might be a good idea. The problem is that PHP without any framework is ugly and 99% of the time really bad code. All the tutorials and books I've seen are really lousy - it never shows any kind of good programming practice but always the quick and dirty kind of way of doing things. I'm afraid that trying to learn PHP this way will just imprint these bad practices in my head and make me waste time later trying to unlearn them. I've used C# in the past so I'm familiar with OOP and software design patterns and similar. Should I be trying to learn PHP by using one of the better known frameworks for it? I've looked at CakePHP, Symfony and the Zend Framework so far; Zend seems to be the most flexible without being too constraining like Cake and Symfony (although Symfony seemed less constraining than CakePHP which is trying too hard to be Ruby on Rails), but many tutorials for Zend I've seen assume you already know PHP and want to learn to use the framework. What would be my best opportunity for learning PHP, but learning GOOD PHP that uses real software engineering techniques instead of spaghetti code? It seems all the PHP books and resources either assume you are just using raw PHP and therefore showcase bade practices, or that you already know PHP and therefore don't even touch on parts of the language.

  Read the article

• DNS protocol message example

  - by virtual-lab

  hello there, I am trying to figure out how to send out DNS messages from an application socket adapter to a DNSBL. I spent the last two days understanding the basics, including experimenting with WireShark to catch an example of message exchanged. Now I would like to query the DNS without using dig or host command (I'm using Ubuntu); how can I perform this action at low level, without the help of these tools in wrapping the request in a proper DNS message format? How the message should be post it? Hex or String? Thanks in advance for any help. Regards Alessandro Ilardo Comment added I am investigating on JDev and Oracle SOA. The platform provides a Socket Adapter which simply apply a transformation (XSLT) and send the message straight to the socket. How the payload parameters (ex. the host I'm looking up) are wrapped within the message is left to the developer. So basically I have an idea on how the all DNS message is structured, but rather than put everything on JDev stright away I'd like to make some tests on my own just to make sure I got a valid message format. So, I am not using any specific language (I don't even understand why they moved my question from serverfault) and I don't want to use any tools which would hide part of the message, such as the header. I know they work well btw. I guess this stuff has something to do with packet injection. Someone suggested me to use telnet, but I've only used for SMTP or HTTP, I haven't got a clue on how it works for DNS request. Does it make more sense now?

  Read the article

• GNU C++ how to check when -std=c++0x is in effect?

  - by TerryP

  My system compiler (gcc42) works fine with the TR1 features that I want, but trying to support newer compiler versions other than the systems, trying to accessing TR1 headers an #error demanding the -std=c++0x option because of how it interfaces with library or some hub bub like that. /usr/local/lib/gcc45/include/c++/bits/c++0x_warning.h:31:2: error: #error This file requires compiler and library support for the upcoming ISO C++ standard, C++0x. This support is currently experimental, and must be enabled with the -std=c++0x or -std=gnu++0x compiler options. Having to supply an extra switch is no problem, to support GCC 4.4 and 4.5 under this system (FreeBSD), but obviously it changes the picture! Using my system compiler (g++ 4.2 default dialect): #include <tr1/foo> using std::tr1::foo; Using newer (4.5) versions of the compiler with -std=c++0x: #include <foo> using std::foo; Is there anyway using the pre processor, that I can tell if g++ is running with C++0x features enabled? Something like this is what I'm looking for: #ifdef __CXX0X_MODE__ #endif but I have not found anything in the manual or off the web. At this rate, I'm starting to think that life would just be easier, to use Boost as a dependency, and not worry about a new language standard arriving before TR4... hehe.

  Read the article

• Cannot redeclare class on a copy of a site

  - by Polity

  I've developed a small SMS utility for a customer in PHP. The details are of non-importance. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer1 Now a second customer requests almost the same functionality, one cheap way of providing this is to copy the project from the first customer and modify it slightly. So i made a direct copy of the project for customer1 to another folder for customer 2. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer2 Now when i try and run the project for customer2 (calling a single page), i get the error message: Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Here, service.class.php is a simple interface with 3 methods: interface SmsService { public function SendSms($mobile, $customerId, $customerName, $message); public function QueryIncomingResponse(); public function CleanExpiredConfirmations($maxConfirmationDays); } printing the backtrace in service.class.php reveals something interresting: #0 require_once() called at [/var/www/html/project/customer2/endpoint/queryIncomingResponse.php:2] Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Line 2 in queryIncomingResponses is the very first require line there is. Line 3 in service.class.php is the first statement there is in the file (Line 2 is an empty line and line 1 is the php file opening tag). Naturally, I only work with relative requires (double checked this) so there is no way one include/require from customer2 actually refers to a file for customer1. It seems to me that in some way SmsService and other classes gets cached by PHP. (I have little control over the server environment). One solution to this would be namespaces. Unfortunatly, we work with PHP 5.1.7 where namespaces are not a part of the language feature just yet. Another way would be to mimic namespaces by prefixing all classes but this approach just feels dirty. Does anyone have more information on this problem and possibly solutions? Many thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• I need an IDE for typo3 core development in php

  - by Flugan

  Php in itself is difficult for IDEs because of the dynamic nature of the language. My current development environment is mostly netbeans against a local svn copy of the codebase setup in a local development webserver. The code is full text indexed by vistas search engine for almost instant searches. I do a lot of development directly against the main development server using a combination of tools. Putty to interact with the server and deploy by updating an svn checkout on the development server. Tortoise SVN locally to have a fairly rich SVN experience. Netbeans obviously have SVN integration. Most of the changes on the remote server is commited using the putty session. WinSCP to interact with the development server with norton commander like interface as well as the good putty integration. Finally my text editor for remote editing is notepad++ out of habit and because of some nice features and good price. What I'm really missing is good php editing. Because of the way typo3 works almost all objects are instanciated through make instance abstraction that either returns the base class or the customized class if the framework has been extended. I'm not looking for a magic editing package and would like to find an editor which can use annotations to specify the type of commonly used variables.

  Read the article

• How to write a simple Lexer/Parser with antlr 2.7?

  - by Burkhard

  Hello, I have a complex grammar (in antlr 2.7) which I need to extend. Having never used antlr before, I wanted to write a very simple Lexer and Parser first. I found a very good explanation for antlr3 and tried to adapt it: header{ #include <iostream> using namespace std; } options { language="Cpp"; } class P2 extends Parser; /* This will be the entry point of our parser. */ eval : additionExp ; /* Addition and subtraction have the lowest precedence. */ additionExp : multiplyExp ( "+" multiplyExp | "-" multiplyExp )* ; /* Multiplication and addition have a higher precedence. */ multiplyExp : atomExp ( "*" atomExp | "/" atomExp )* ; /* An expression atom is the smallest part of an expression: a number. Or when we encounter parenthesis, we're making a recursive call back to the rule 'additionExp'. As you can see, an 'atomExp' has the highest precedence. */ atomExp : Number | "(" additionExp ")" ; /* A number: can be an integer value, or a decimal value */ number : ("0".."9")+ ("." ("0".."9")+)? ; /* We're going to ignore all white space characters */ protected ws : (" " | "\t" | "\r" | "\n") { newline(); } ; It does generate four files without errors: P2.cpp, P2.hpp, P2TokenTypes.hpp and P2TokenTypes.txt. But now what? How do I create a working programm with that? I tried to add these files to a VS2005-WinConsole-Project but it does not compile: p2.cpp(277) : fatal error C1010: unexpected end of file while looking for precompiled header. Did you forget to add '#include "stdafx.h"' to your source?

  Read the article

• Appropriate uses of Monad `fail` vs. MonadPlus `mzero`

  - by jberryman

  This is a question that has come up several times for me in the design code, especially libraries. There seems to be some interest in it so I thought it might make a good community wiki. The fail method in Monad is considered by some to be a wart; a somewhat arbitrary addition to the class that does not come from the original category theory. But of course in the current state of things, many Monad types have logical and useful fail instances. The MonadPlus class is a sub-class of Monad that provides an mzero method which logically encapsulates the idea of failure in a monad. So a library designer who wants to write some monadic code that does some sort of failure handling can choose to make his code use the fail method in Monad or restrict his code to the MonadPlus class, just so that he can feel good about using mzero, even though he doesn't care about the monoidal combining mplus operation at all. Some discussions on this subject are in this wiki page about proposals to reform the MonadPlus class. So I guess I have one specific question: What monad instances, if any, have a natural fail method, but cannot be instances of MonadPlus because they have no logical implementation for mplus? But I'm mostly interested in a discussion about this subject. Thanks! EDIT: One final thought occured to me. I recently learned (even though it's right there in the docs for fail) that monadic "do" notation is desugared in such a way that pattern match failures, as in (x:xs) <- return [] call the monad's fail. It seems like the language designers must have been strongly influenced by the prospect of some automatic failure handling built in to haskell's syntax in their inclusion of fail in Monad.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447  | Next Page >