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Why Firebug pretends that my stylesheet is calling my xmlrpc ?

- by Rebol Tutorial

Firebug shows a request which causes a huge delay to http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/none Details below but I don't understand why it says it comes from xmlrpc and the stylesheet: Date Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:02 GMT Server Apache X-Powered-By PHP/5.2.13 X-Pingback http://reboltutorial.com/xmlrpc.php Expires Wed, 11 Jan 1984 05:00:00 GMT Cache-Control no-cache, must-revalidate, max-age=0 Pragma no-cache Set-Cookie wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; path=/; domain=.reboltutorial.com Last-Modified Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:03 GMT Vary Accept-Encoding Content-Encoding gzip Keep-Alive timeout=2, max=94 Connection Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding chunked Content-Type text/html; charset=UTF-8 Requêtemise en page impression GET /wp-content/themes/minaflow/none HTTP/1.1 Host: reboltutorial.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; fr; rv:1.9.2) Gecko/20100115 Firefox/3.6 Accept: image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language: fr,fr-fr;q=0.8,en-us;q=0.5,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/style.css Cookie: _csoot=1267966575980; _csuid=4b6f27395991a2ff; wp-settings-1=editor%3Dhtml%26align%3Dleft%26m0%3Do%26m1%3Do%26m2%3Do%26m3%3Dc%26m4%3Do%26m5%3Dc%26m6%3Do%26m7%3Do%26m8%3Dc%26m9%3Dc%26m10%3Dc%26m11%3Do%26m12%3Dc%26m13%3Dc%26m14%3Dc%26m15%3Dc; wp-settings-time-1=1270384700; subscribe_checkbox_=unchecked; PHPSESSID=o70hjpjf7uj2hb4doe4k0o5co5; wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; xumgeqhxmhohxipF=Erjixxeeskfgnlba; SJECT=CKON; wordpress_=admin%7C1271592539%7C392c555d9051c6fa184074d8441cc472; wordpress_logged_in_=admin%7C1271592539%7C0e7a92bda53cc2f5afc32962237a1037; rcBDvgtspmuEsyzp=rmqjtFbCfheGCjBw; prli_click_15=creatingstandard; prli_visitor=m7928r

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Calling jQuery method from onClick attribute in HTML

- by Russell

I am relatively new to implementing JQuery throughout an entire system, and I am enjoying the opportunity. I have come across one issue I would love to find the correct resolve for. Here is a simple case example of what I want to do: I have a button on a page, and on the click event I want to call a jquery function I have defined. Here is the code I have used to define my method (Page.js): (function($) { $.fn.MessageBox = function(msg) { alert(msg); }; }); And here is my HTML page: <HTML> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="C:\Sandpit\jQueryTest\jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script language="javascript" src="Page.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="Title">Welcome!</div> <input type="button" value="ahaha" onclick="$().MessageBox('msg');" /> </body> </HTML> (The above code displays the button, but clicking does nothing.) I am aware I could add the click event in the document ready event, however it seems more maintainable to put events in the HTML element instead. However I have not found a way to do this. Is there a way to call a jquery function on a button element (or any input element)? Or is there a better way to do this? Thanks

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Javascript + PHP $_POST array empty

- by Peterim

While trying to send a POST request via xmlhttp.open("POST", "url", true) (javascript) to the server I get an empty $_POST array. Firebug shows that the data is being sent. Here is the data string from Firebug: a=1&q=151a45a150.... But $_POST['q'] returns nothing. The interesting thing is that file_get_contents('php://input') does have my data (the string above), but PHP somehow doesn't recognize it. Tried both $_POST and $_REQUEST, nothing works. Headers being sent: POST /test.php HTTP/1.1 Host: website.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us;q=0.7,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://website.com/ Content-Length: 156 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Pragma: no-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Thank you for any suggestions.

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How spoof referrer using curl

- by golu molu

I am using curl code below to spoof referrer , it works fine but there is error on every page - Curl error: $url = somesite.com function doMagic($url) { $curl = curl_init(); $header[0] = "Accept: text/xml,application/xml,application/xhtml+xml,"; $header[0] .= "text/html;q=0.9,text/plain;q=0.8,image/png,*/*;q=0.5"; $header[] = "Cache-Control: max-age=0"; $header[] = "Connection: keep-alive"; $header[] = "Keep-Alive: 300"; $header[] = "Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7"; $header[] = "Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5"; $header[] = "Pragma: "; curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; rv:7.0.1) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/7.0.12011-10-16 20:23:00"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $header); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_REFERER, "http://www.facebook.com"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_ENCODING, "gzip,deflate"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_AUTOREFERER, true); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 30); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION,true); $html = curl_exec($curl); echo 'Curl error: '. curl_error($curl); curl_close($curl); return $html; } $text = doMagic($url); print("$text"); what i'm doing wrong?

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Getting Preferred, Varied Products -- Tough Pseudocode Question

- by Volomike

I have a Dallas client who has given me a tough process to work out. I'm seeking your advice. I use PHP, but the language doesn't matter. We can work this out in pseudocode. In a nutshell, this involves showing products on a page based on matching keyword phrases, and using a preferred product provider, but varying this up so that I try to show products from each provider as much as possible when I can. He has 3 product companies: Amazon, eBay, and Overstock. I already have worked out with the API to get products back in an array via a function. He wants to give the user the preference of which one to use primarily -- so a priority number on each. He wants to display anywhere from 1 to 6 products on a page from them. Let's go with 6 for now in this example to start with. Let's assume Amazon first, then eBay, then Overstock as far as priority. He wants me to attempt to take a keyword phrase and find relevant products (all the keywords found in product title) from Amazon, eBay, and Overstock. If we find 1 product from each provider, he wants me to only display one product from each. But if we run out of a particular provider with a matching product, I start over again and grab another product from another provider until we reach 6 products. If there just aren't 6 relevant products, then I do the best I can -- even if I only display one product. If no relevant products, then I don't display anything.

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How to output multicolumn html without "widows"?

- by user314850

I need to output to HTML a list of categorized links in exactly three columns of text. They must be displayed similar to columns in a newspaper or magazine. So, for example, if there are 20 lines total the first and second columns would contain 7 lines and the last column would contain 6. The list must be dynamic; it will be regularly changed. The tricky part is that the links are categorized with a title and this title cannot be a "widow". If you have a page layout background you'll know that this means the titles cannot be displayed at the bottom of the column -- they must have at least one link underneath them, otherwise they should bump to the next column (I know, technically it should be two lines if I were actually doing page layout, but in this case one is acceptable). I'm having a difficult time figuring out how to get this done. Here's an example of what I mean: Shopping Link 3 Link1 Link 1 Link 4 Link2 Link 2 Link 3 Link 3 Cars Link 1 Music Games Link 2 Link 1 Link 1 Link 2 News As you can see, the "News" title is at the bottom of the middle column, and so is a "widow". This is unacceptable. I could bump it to the next column, but that would create an unnecessarily large amount of white space at the bottom of the second column. What needs to happen instead is that the entire list needs to be re-balanced. I'm wondering if anyone has any tips for how to accomplish this, or perhaps source code or a plug in. Python is preferable, but any language is fine. I'm just trying to get the general concept down.

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For a set of sql-queries, how do you determine which result-set contains a certain row?

- by ManBugra

I have a set of sql - queries: List<String> queries = ... queries[0] = "select id from person where ..."; ... queries[8756] = "select id from person where ..."; Each query selects rows from the same table 'person'. The only difference is the where-clause. Table 'person' looks like this: id | name | ... many other columns How can i determine which queries will contain a certain person in their subset? For example: List<Integer> matchingQueries = magicMethod(queries, [23,45]); The list obtained by 'magicMethod' filters all sql queries present in the list 'queries' (defined above) and returns only those that contain either the person with id 23 OR a person with id 45. Why i need it: I am dealing with an application that contains products and categories where the categories are sql queries that define which products belong to them (queries stored in a table also). Now i have a requirement where an admin has to see all categories an item belongs to immediately after the item was created. Btw, over 8.000 categories defined (so far, more to come). language and db: java && postgreSQL Thanks,

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"Access is denied" by executing .hta file with JScript on Windows XP x64

- by mem64k

I have a simple HTML (as HTA) application that shows strange behavior on Windows XP x64 machine. I getting periodically (not every time) error message "Access is denied." when i start the application. The same application on Windows XP 32bit runs just fine... Does somebody has any idea or explanation? Error message: Line: 18 Char: 6 Error: Access is denied. Code: 0 URL: file:///D:/test_j.hta Here is the code of my "test_j.hta": <html> <head> <title>Test J</title> <HTA:APPLICATION ID="objTestJ" APPLICATIONNAME="TestJ" SCROLL="no" SINGLEINSTANCE="yes" WINDOWSTATE="normal" > <script language="JScript"> function main() { //window.alert("test"); window.resizeTo(500, 300); } function OnExit() { window.close(); } </script> </head> <body onload="main()"> <input type="button" value="Exit" name="Exit" onClick="OnExit()" title="Exit"> </body> </html>

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Google Maps API v3 not working

- by user1496322

I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

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Fastest inline-assembly spinlock

- by sigvardsen

I'm writing a multithreaded application in c++, where performance is critical. I need to use a lot of locking while copying small structures between threads, for this I have chosen to use spinlocks. I have done some research and speed testing on this and I found that most implementations are roughly equally fast: Microsofts CRITICAL_SECTION, with SpinCount set to 1000, scores about 140 time units Implementing this algorithm with Microsofts InterlockedCompareExchange scores about 95 time units Ive also tried to use some inline assembly with __asm {} using something like this code and it scores about 70 time units, but I am not sure that a proper memory barrier has been created. Edit: The times given here are the time it takes for 2 threads to lock and unlock the spinlock 1,000,000 times. I know this isn't a lot of difference but as a spinlock is a heavily used object, one would think that programmers would have agreed on the fastest possible way to make a spinlock. Googling it leads to many different approaches however. I would think this aforementioned method would be the fastest if implemented using inline assembly and using the instruction CMPXCHG8B instead of comparing 32bit registers. Furthermore memory barriers must be taken into account, this could be done by LOCK CMPXHG8B (I think?), which guarantees "exclusive rights" to the shared memory between cores. At last [some suggests] that for busy waits should be accompanied by NOP:REP that would enable Hyper-threading processors to switch to another thread, but I am not sure whether this is true or not? From my performance-test of different spinlocks, it is seen that there is not much difference, but for purely academic purpose I would like to know which one is fastest. However as I have extremely limited experience in the assembly-language and with memory barriers, I would be happy if someone could write the assembly code for the last example I provided with LOCK CMPXCHG8B and proper memory barriers in the following template: __asm { spin_lock: ;locking code. spin_unlock: ;unlocking code. }

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AnyCPU/x86/x64 for C# application and it's C++/CLI dependency

- by Soonts

I'm Windows developer, I'm using Microsoft visual studio 2008 SP1. My developer machine is 64 bit. The software I'm currently working on is managed .exe written in C#. Unfortunately, I was unable to solve the whole problem solely in C#. That's why I also developed a small managed DLL in C++/CLI. Both projects are in the same solution. My C# .exe build target is "Any CPU". When my C++ DLL build target is "x86", the DLL is not loaded. As far as I understood when I googled, the reason is C++/CLI language, unlike other .NET languages, compiles to the native code, not managed code. I switched the C++ DLL build target to x64, and everything works now. However, AFAIK everything will stop working as soon as my client will install my product on a 32-bit OS. I have to support Windows Vista and 7, both 32 and 64 bit versions of each of them. I don't want to fall back to 32 bits. That 250 lines of C++ code in my DLL is only 2% of my codebase. And that DLL is only used in several places, so in the typical usage scenario it's not even loaded. My DLL implements two COM objects with ATL, so I can't use "/clr:safe" project setting. Is there way to configure the solution and the projects so that C# project builds "Any CPU" version, the C++ project builds both 32 bit and 64 bit versions, then in the runtime when the managed .EXE is starting up, it uses either 32-bit DLL or 64-bit DLL depending on the OS? Or maybe there's some better solution I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

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How can I bind a simple Javascript array to an MVC3 controller action method?

- by Sergio Tapia

Here is the javascript code I use to create the array and send it on it's way: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#update-cart-btn").click(function() { var items = []; $(".item").each(function () { var productKey = $(this).find("input[name='item.ProductId']").val(); var productQuantity = $(this).find("input[type='text']").val(); items[productKey] = productQuantity; }); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "@Url.Action("UpdateCart", "Cart")", data: items, success: function () { alert("Successfully updated your cart!"); } }); }); }); </script> The items object is properly constructed with the values I need. What data type must my object be on the backend of my controller? I tried this but the variable remains null and is not bound. [Authorize] [HttpPost] public ActionResult UpdateCart(object[] items) // items remains null. { // Some magic here. return RedirectToAction("Index"); }

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How do common web frameworks (Django, Rails, Symfony, etc) handle multiple instances of the same plu

- by Steven Wei

Do any of the popular web frameworks solve this problem well? Here's an example: suppose you're running one of these web frameworks and you want to install a blog plugin. Except instead of a single blog, you need to run two separate instances of the blog plugin, and you want to keep them segregated. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a user authentication plugin, because you want to segregate your administrative users from your customer user accounts. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a wiki plugin for different parts of your site, or multiple instances of a comments plugin, or whatever else. It seems to me that at the basic level, each instance of plugin would need to be able to configured with a different set of database tables, and would need to be 'installed' at a different URL path. My experience is mostly with Django and Symfony, and I haven't seen a clean solution to this problem in either of them. They both tend to assume that each plugin (or app, in Django's case) is only ever going to be installed once. I'm curious if the Rails folks have figured out a clean solution to this problem, or any other framework authors (in any language). And if you were going to design a solution to this problem, what would it look like?

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Does/Will autofac's ASP.NET integration support PreInit or Init events?

- by David Rubin

I see from poking around in the 1.4.4 source that Autofac's ASP.NET integration (via Autofac.Integration.Web) peforms injection of properties on the Page as part of the HttpContext.PreRequestHandlerExecute event handling, but that the page's child controls don't get their properties injected until Page.PreLoad. What this means, though is that the injected properties of child controls are unavailable for use in the OnInit event handler. For example, this works fine: HelloWorld.aspx: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="HelloWorld.aspx.cs" Inherits="HelloWorld" %> <html> <body> <asp:Label runat="server" id="lblMsg" OnInit="HandleInit"/> </body> </html> HelloWorld.aspx.cs: ... protected void HandleInit() { lblMsg.Text = _msgProvider.GetMessage(); } public IMsgProvider _msgProvider { private get; set; } // <-- Injected But changing the HelloWorld Page to a UserControl (.acsx) and putting the UserControl in another page doesn't work because _msgProvider isn't injected early enough. Is there a way to make Autofac inject properties of child controls earlier? Or is this something that can be addressed in a future build? Thanks!

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Do you like languages that let you put the "then" before the "if"?

- by Matt Hamilton

I was reading through some C# code of mine today and found this line: if (ProgenyList.ItemContainerGenerator.Status != System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated) return; Notice that you can tell without scrolling that it's an "if" statement that works with ItemContainerGenerator.Status, but you can't easily tell that if the "if" clause evaluates to "false" the method will return at that point. Realistically I should have moved the "return" statement to a line by itself, but it got me thinking about languages that allow the "then" part of the statement first. If C# permitted it, the line could look like this: return if (ProgenyList.ItemContainerGenerator.Status != System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated); This might be a bit "argumentative", but I'm wondering what people think about this kind of construct. It might serve to make lines like the one above more readable, but it also might be disastrous. Imagine this code: return 3 if (x > y); Logically we can only return if x y, because there's no "else", but part of me looks at that and thinks, "are we still returning if x <= y? If so, what are we returning?" What do you think of the "then before the if" construct? Does it exist in your language of choice? Do you use it often? Would C# benefit from it?

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Is learning C++ a good idea?

- by chang

The more I hear and read about C++ (e.g. this: http://lwn.net/Articles/249460/), I get the impression, that I'd waste my time learning C++. I some wrote network routing algorithm in C++ for a simulator, and it was a pain (as expected, especially coming from a perl/python/Java background ...). I'm never happy about giving up on some technology, but I would be happy, if I could limit my knowledge of C-family languages to just C, C# and Objective-C (even OS Xs Cocoa, which is huge and takes a lot of time to learn looks like joy compared to C++ ...). Do I need to consider myself dumb or unwilling, just because I'm not partial to the pain involved learning this stuff? Technologies advance and there will be options other than C++, when deciding on implementation languages, or not? And for speed: If speed were that critical, I'd go for a plain C implementation instead, or write C extensions for much more productive languages like ruby or python ... The one-line version of the above: Will C++ stay such a relevant language that every committed programmer should be familiar with it? [ edit / thank you very much for your interesting and useful answers so far .. ] [ edit / .. i am accepting the top-rated answer; thanks again for all answers! ]

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Haskell Cons Operator (:)

- by Carson Myers

I am really new to Haskell (Actually I saw "Real World Haskell" from O'Reilly and thought "hmm, I think I'll learn functional programming" yesterday) and I am wondering: I can use the construct operator to add an item to the beginning of a list: 1 : [2,3] [1,2,3] I tried making an example data type I found in the book and then playing with it: --in a file data BillingInfo = CreditCard Int String String | CashOnDelivery | Invoice Int deriving (Show) --in ghci $ let order_list = [Invoice 2345] $ order_list [Invoice 2345] $ let order_list = CashOnDelivery : order_list $ order_list [CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, ...- etc... it just repeats forever, is this because it uses lazy evaluation? -- EDIT -- okay, so it is being pounded into my head that let order_list = CashOnDelivery:order_list doesn't add CashOnDelivery to the original order_list and then set the result to order_list, but instead is recursive and creates an infinite list, forever adding CashOnDelivery to the beginning of itself. Of course now I remember that Haskell is a functional language and I can't change the value of the original order_list, so what should I do for a simple "tack this on to the end (or beginning, whatever) of this list?" Make a function which takes a list and BillingInfo as arguments, and then return a list? -- EDIT 2 -- well, based on all the answers I'm getting and the lack of being able to pass an object by reference and mutate variables (such as I'm used to)... I think that I have just asked this question prematurely and that I really need to delve further into the functional paradigm before I can expect to really understand the answers to my questions... I guess what i was looking for was how to write a function or something, taking a list and an item, and returning a list under the same name so the function could be called more than once, without changing the name every time (as if it was actually a program which would add actual orders to an order list, and the user wouldn't have to think of a new name for the list each time, but rather append an item to the same list).

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create jquery array to use as options

- by SoulieBaby

Hi all, I'm sure this is really simple, but I can't seem to get it working. I have a "time" select list, which has a number as "rel" attached to each option. If the user changes the time select, I want a new list of options to display depending on what is selected. If that makes sense? Here's my first select: <select name="time" id="time"> <option value="7:00am" rel="10">7:00am</option> <option value="12:30pm" rel="16">12:30pm</option> </select> If the user selects 7:00am, I want a new option list (using jquery) to give options from 1 - 10. Like this: <select name="quantity" id="quantity"> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> <option value="3">3</option> ............................ <option value="10">10</option> </select> Here's what I have so far... <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> jQuery("#time").change(function(){ var positions = jQuery("#time :selected").attr("rel"); //this grabs the rel from time //this is where it should create a list of options to append(??) to the select list.. jQuery("#showQuantity").show(); //this shows the hidden field for quantity }); </script> I hope it makes sense, but I'm stuck on it. Thank you in advance :)

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Project Euler #14 and memoization in Clojure

- by dbyrne

As a neophyte clojurian, it was recommended to me that I go through the Project Euler problems as a way to learn the language. Its definitely a great way to improve your skills and gain confidence. I just finished up my answer to problem #14. It works fine, but to get it running efficiently I had to implement some memoization. I couldn't use the prepackaged memoize function because of the way my code was structured, and I think it was a good experience to roll my own anyways. My question is if there is a good way to encapsulate my cache within the function itself, or if I have to define an external cache like I have done. Also, any tips to make my code more idiomatic would be appreciated. (use 'clojure.test) (def mem (atom {})) (with-test (defn chain-length ([x] (chain-length x x 0)) ([start-val x c] (if-let [e (last(find @mem x))] (let [ret (+ c e)] (swap! mem assoc start-val ret) ret) (if (<= x 1) (let [ret (+ c 1)] (swap! mem assoc start-val ret) ret) (if (even? x) (recur start-val (/ x 2) (+ c 1)) (recur start-val (+ 1 (* x 3)) (+ c 1))))))) (is (= 10 (chain-length 13)))) (with-test (defn longest-chain ([] (longest-chain 2 0 0)) ([c max start-num] (if (>= c 1000000) start-num (let [l (chain-length c)] (if (> l max) (recur (+ 1 c) l c) (recur (+ 1 c) max start-num)))))) (is (= 837799 (longest-chain))))

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How to return a record from function executed by INSERT/UPDATE rule?

- by seas

Do the following scheme for my database: create sequence data_sequence; create table data_table { id integer primary key; field varchar(100); }; create view data_view as select id, field from data_table; create function data_insert(_new data_view) returns data_view as $$declare _id integer; _result data_view%rowtype; begin _id := nextval('data_sequence'); insert into data_table(id, field) values(_id, _new.field); select * into _result from data_view where id = _id; return _result; end; $$ language plpgsql; create rule insert as on insert to data_view do instead select data_insert(new); Then type in psql: insert into data_view(field) values('abc'); Would like to see something like: id | field ----+--------- 1 | abc Instead see: data_insert ------------- (1, "abc") Is it possible to fix this somehow? Thanks for any ideas. Ultimate idea is to use this in other functions, so that I could obtain id of just inserted record without selecting for it from scratch. Something like: insert into data_view(field) values('abc') returning id into my_variable would be nice but doesn't work with error: ERROR: cannot perform INSERT RETURNING on relation "data_view" HINT: You need an unconditional ON INSERT DO INSTEAD rule with a RETURNING clause. I don't really understand that HINT. I use PostgreSQL 8.4.

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Best Practice: Access form elements by HTML id or name attribute?

- by seth

As any seasoned JavaScript developer knows, there are many (too many) ways to do the same thing. For example, say you have a text field as follows: <form name="myForm"> <input type="text" name="foo" id="foo" /> There are many way to access this in JavaScript: [1] document.forms[0].elements[0]; [2] document.myForm.foo; [3] document.getElementById('foo'); [4] document.getElementById('myForm').foo; ... and so on ... Methods [1] and [3] are well documented in the Mozilla Gecko documentation, but neither are ideal. [1] is just too general to be useful and [3] requires both an id and a name (assuming you will be posting the data to a server side language). Ideally, it would be best to have only an id attribute or a name attribute (having both is somewhat redundant, especially if the id isn't necessary for any css, and increases the likelihood of typos, etc). [2] seems to be the most intuitive and it seems to be widely used, but I haven't seen it referenced in the Gecko documentation and I'm worried about both forwards compatibility and cross browser compatiblity (and of course I want to be as standards compliant as possible). So what's best practice here? Can anyone point to something in the DOM documentation or W3C specification that could resolve this? Note I am specifically interested in a non-library solution (jQuery/Prototype).

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Would an immutable keyword in Java be a good idea?

- by berry120

Generally speaking, the more I use immutable objects in Java the more I'm thinking they're a great idea. They've got lots of advantages from automatically being thread-safe to not needing to worry about cloning or copy constructors. This has got me thinking, would an "immutable" keyword go amiss? Obviously there's the disadvantages with adding another reserved word to the language, and I doubt it will actually happen primarily for the above reason - but ignoring that I can't really see many disadvantages. At present great care has to be taken to make sure objects are immutable, and even then a dodgy javadoc comment claiming a component object is immutable when it's in fact not can wreck the whole thing. There's also the argument that even basic objects like string aren't truly immutable because they're easily vunerable to reflection attacks. If we had an immutable keyword the compiler could surely recursively check and give an iron clad guarantee that all instances of a class were immutable, something that can't presently be done. Especially with concurrency becoming more and more used, I personally think it'd be good to add a keyword to this effect. But are there any disadvantages or implementation details I'm missing that makes this a bad idea?

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Class initialization and synchronized class method

- by nybon

Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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Same session and session ID for different subdomains in Grails project - How can I do that?

- by fluxon

I am currently working on a project that supports multiple languages. In order to be seo friendly, I am trying to redirect users subdomains corresponding to their locale (or their preferred language). I.e., my projects's url is mydomain.com and I work with the subdomains en.mydomain.com, es.mydomain.com, de.mydomain.com, fr.mydomain.com ... you get the idea. All subdomains are served by the same grails app for now. What happens is that my grails project maintains different sessions (as seen by the session ids) for every single subdomain, hence information is lost, when a user switches between languages. I had not forseen that. :( How can I explicitly set the session identifier? I would like it to be based on just mydomain.com. I got the hint that Apache Tomcat offers something like <Context sessionCookiePath="/" sessionCookieDomain=".mydomain.com"> , but that does not help for the devel environment etc. Any hints? Have you tried storing session information in the DB? This is sometimes used for load-balancing purposes and might help here as well?! Help is highly appreciated (as always)! Cheers!

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Problem with circular definition in Scheme

- by user8472

I am currently working through SICP using Guile as my primary language for the exercises. I have found a strange behavior while implementing the exercises in chapter 3.5. I have reproduced this behavior using Guile 1.4, Guile 1.8.6 and Guile 1.8.7 on a variety of platforms and am certain it is not specific to my setup. This code works fine (and computes e): (define y (integral (delay dy) 1 0.001)) (define dy (stream-map (lambda (x) x) y)) (stream-ref y 1000) The following code should give an identical result: (define (solve f y0 dt) (define y (integral (delay dy) y0 dt)) (define dy (stream-map f y)) y) (solve (lambda (x) x) 1 0.001) But it yields the error message: standard input:7:14: While evaluating arguments to stream-map in expression (stream-map f y): standard input:7:14: Unbound variable: y ABORT: (unbound-variable) So when embedded in a procedure definition, the (define y ...) does not work, whereas outside the procedure in the global environment at the REPL it works fine. What am I doing wrong here? I can post the auxiliary code (i.e., the definitions of integral, stream-map etc.) if necessary, too. With the exception of the system-dependent code for cons-stream, they are all in the book. My own implementation of cons-stream for Guile is as follows: (define-macro (cons-stream a b) `(cons ,a (delay ,b)))

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