Search Results

Search found 12392 results on 496 pages for 'backing field'.

Page 442/496 | < Previous Page | 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449  | Next Page >

  • what's the performance difference between int and varchar for primary keys

    - by user568576
    I need to create a primary key scheme for a system that will need peer to peer replication. So I'm planning to combine a unique system ID and a sequential number in some way to come up with unique ID's. I want to make sure I'll never run out of ID's, so I'm thinking about using a varchar field, since I could always add another character if I start running out. But I've read that integers are better optimized for this. So I have some questions... 1) Are integers really better optimized? And if they are, how much of a performance difference is there between varchars and integers? I'm going to use firebird for now. But I may switch later. Or possibly support multiple db's. So I'm looking for generalizations, if that's possible. 2) If integers are significantly better optimized, why is that? And is it likely that varchars will catch up in the future, so eventually it won't matter anyway? My varchar keys won't have any meaning, except for the unique system ID part. But I may want to obscure that somehow. Also, I plan to efficiently use all the bits of each character. I don't, for example, plan to code the integer 123 as the character string "123". So I don't think varchars will require more space than integers.

    Read the article

  • stripping random number with substr problem

    - by Jim
    Using a random number to be included with another character. Then I want to strip out the random number and just leave the other character. I have this code that generates the random number (8 characters long) consistently. If you hit your refresh button multiple times, the “ID” field disappears even though the “Random Number” plus “ID” are still there. Not sure what is happening to the random number on refresh in the substr function. This is the code: // Begin Create Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// function gRanStr1() { $length1 = 8; $characters = “0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ”; for ($p = 0; $p < $length1; $p++) { $lcrs1 .= $characters[mt_rand(0, strlen($characters)-1)]; } $lcrs9 = str_replace(' ', '', $lcrs9); return $lcrs1; } // End Create Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// // Begin Decode Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// $TrkR99 = "c"; $ResHeadID = gRanStr1() . $TrkR99; $ResHeadID = preg_replace('/[\s]+/',' ',$ResHeadID); echo "”; echo $ResHeadID . ” = echo of Random Number plus ID“; for($i=0; $i if ($ResHeadID == "") { ""; } else { $ResHeadID = preg_replace('/[\s]+/',' ',$ResHeadID); $TrkRa1 = substr($ResHeadID, $Index1 + 8, 1); } $dTrkRes = $TrkRa1; echo $TrkRa1 . " = echo of ID after random number stripped.“; echo “”; // End Decode Random ID Code /////////////////////////////////////////

    Read the article

  • C# expression tree for ordinary code

    - by rwallace
    It's possible to create an expression tree, if you declare it as such. But is it possible to get an expression tree for an ordinary chunk of code such as a method or property getter? What I'm trying to do is, let's say for an order processing system, I have a class for order items: class Item : Entity { [Cascade] public Document document { get; set; } public int line { get; set; } public Product product { get; set; } public string description { get; set; } public decimal qty { get; set; } public decimal price { get; set; } public decimal net { get { return qty * price; } } public VatCode vat_code { get; set; } } where the net value equals qty * price, so I'd like to declare it as such, either with a property or method, and then also have the framework introspect that expression so it can generate appropriate SQL for defining a corresponding calculated column in a corresponding database view. The most obvious way to do this would be to get the expression tree for a property getter or a method, but I can't find any indication how to do this, or that it is possible. (I have found a way to get a method body as a byte stream, but that's not what's desired here.) If that isn't possible, I suppose the recommended solution would be to declare something like a static field that is an expression tree, and compile/run it at run time for internal use, and also introspect as normal for SQL generation?

    Read the article

  • How to increment the string value during run time without using dr.read() and store it in the oledb

    - by sameer
    Here is my code, everything is working fine the only problem is with the ReadData() method in which i want the string value to be increment i.e AM0001,AM0002,AM0003 etc. This is happening but only one time the value is getting increment to AM0001, the second time the same value i.e AM0001 is getting return. Due to this i am getting a error from oledb because of AM0001 is a primary key field. enter code here: class Jewellery : Connectionstr { string lmcode = null; public string LM_code { get { return lmcode;} set { lmcode = ReadData();} } string mname; public string M_Name { get { return mname; } set { mname = value;} } string desc; public string Desc { get { return desc; } set { desc = value; } } public string ReadData() { string jid = string.Empty; string displayString = string.Empty; String query = "select max(LM_code)from Master_Accounts"; Datamanager.RunExecuteReader(Constr,query); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(jid)) { jid = "AM0000";//This string value has to increment at every time, but it is getting increment only one time. } int len = jid.Length; string split = jid.Substring(2, len - 2); int num = Convert.ToInt32(split); num++; displayString = jid.Substring(0, 2) + num.ToString("0000"); return displayString; } public void add() { String query ="insert into Master_Accounts values ('" + LM_code + "','" + M_Name + "','" + Desc + "')"; Datamanager.RunExecuteNonQuery(Constr , query); } Any help will be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Where should my "filtering" logic reside with Linq-2-SQL and ASP.NET-MVC in View or Controller?

    - by Nate Bross
    I have a main Table, with several "child" tables. TableA and TableAChild1 and TableAChild2. I have a view which shows the information in TableA, and then has two columns of all items in TableAChild1 and TableAChild2 respectivly, they are rendered with Partial views. Both child tables have a bit field for VisibleToAll, and depending on user role, I'd like to either display all related rows, or related rows where VisibleToAll = true. This code, feels like it should be in the controller, but I'm not sure how it would look, because as it stands, the controller (limmited version) looks like this: return View("TableADetailView", repos.GetTableA(id)); Would something like this be even work, and would it be bad what if my DataContext gets submitted, would that delete all the rows that have VisibleToAll == false? var tblA = repos.GetTableA(id); tblA.TableAChild1 = tblA.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); tblA.TableAChild2 = tblA.TableAChild2.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); return View("TableADetailView", tblA); It would also be simple to add that logic to the RendarPartial call from the main view: <% Html.RenderPartial("TableAChild1", Model.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); %>

    Read the article

  • ANDROID IF/ELSE FAILS CONTINUES TO EXECUTE JSON

    - by Keith Cesar Haizlett
    I am trying to create a Registration app with JSON to connect and post to MYSQL database. I created the following IF/ELSE statements to check for vacant input boxes, password match, and correct email characters before allowing it to be entered into the DATABASE. The code continues to execute the JSON posting even after the passwords don't match , invalid email characters are entered , and vacant text boxes are submitted. Why is it not returning and continuing to execute the JSON code? try { if (!inputEmail.getText().toString().matches("[a-zA-Z0-9._-]+@[a-z]+.[a-z]+") && email.length() > 0) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Enter Valid Email Address", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); return; } else if(name.equals("") || email.equals("")|| password.equals("")||check.equals("")) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Field Vaccant", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); return; } // check if both password matches else if(!password.equals(checkpass)) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Password does not match", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); return; } if (json.getString(KEY_SUCCESS) != null) { registerErrorMsg.setText(""); String res = json.getString(KEY_SUCCESS); if(Integer.parseInt(res) == 1){ // user successfully registred // Store user details in SQLite Database DatabaseHandler db = new DatabaseHandler(getApplicationContext()); JSONObject json_user = json.getJSONObject("user"); // Clear all previous data in database userFunction.logoutUser(getApplicationContext()); db.addUser(json_user.getString(KEY_NAME), json_user.getString(KEY_EMAIL), json.getString(KEY_UID), json_user.getString(KEY_CREATED_AT)); // Launch Dashboard Screen Intent dashboard = new Intent(getApplicationContext(), DashboardActivity.class); // Close all views before launching Dashboard dashboard.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_CLEAR_TOP); startActivity(dashboard); // Close Registration Screen finish(); }else{ // Error in registration registerErrorMsg.setText("User already Registered"); } } } catch (JSONException e) { } } });

    Read the article

  • Is it bad practise to initialise fields outside of an explicit constructor

    - by MrTortoise
    So its monday and we are arguing about coding practises. The examples here are a litttle too simple, but the real deal has several constructors. In order to initialise the simple values (eg dates to their min value) I have moved the code out of the constructors and into the field definitions. public class ConstructorExample { string _string = "John"; } public class ConstructorExample2 { string _string; public ConstructorExample2() { _string = "John"; } } How should it be done by the book. I tend to be very case by case and so am maybe a little lax abotu this kind of thing. However i feel that accams razor tells me to move the initialisation out of multiple constructors. Of course I could always move this shared initialisation into a private method. The question is essentially ... is initialising fields where they are defined as opposed to the constructor bad in any way? The argument I am facing is one of error handling, but i do not feel it is relevant as there are no possible exceptions that won't be picked up at compile time.

    Read the article

  • using respond_to format.js to replace the content of a textarea on rails

    - by Stacia
    I have some saved text in my create controller. If it's not stressful, I'd like it to populate a textarea on the page with the saved text along with displaying the error message fields (which is what's already happening). I've used things like replace_html before, but I don't know if there's an easy way to get to textarea or text field IDs and just replace the value of the text. For now I'm just going to do some javascript but it would be nice to know the rails shortcut. edit: I wasn't in the right mindset because this app uses extjs and was trying to figure out how to do it this way. The text box is actually an ext status bar (same as here : http://www.extjs.com/deploy/dev/examples/statusbar/statusbar-demo.html ) which doesn't get created until the page is finished loading. When I try to enter commnands like the first poster suggested, I get "setvalue is not a function". Playing with firebug on the page I can get it to set the value after loading by using (whatever method to get it through ext or scriptaculous).value = "lol" but none of the page update things work with this.

    Read the article

  • How to order search results by multiple fields?

    - by JustinRoR
    I am using Sunspot and Will_paginate for search in my application and don't how to have my search results start out with certain ordering conditions. The model I am searching is the UserPrice model and want my :price and :purchase_date in descending order or lowest price to highest and present date to past: class UserPrice < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :price, :product_name, :purchase_date belongs_to :product # Sunspot configuration searchable do text :product_name do product.name end end end class SearchController < ApplicationController def index @search = UserPrice.search do fulltext params[:search] paginate(:per_page => 5, :page => params[:page]) end @user_prices = @search.results end end Even though I don't know how, I'm not sure if I would use Sunspot or Will_paginate to sort by order of price and purchase date. How would I achieve this though? Thank you. UPDATE I try to use the order_by method but not sure how the model would look now. class SearchController < ApplicationController def index @search = UserPrice.search do fulltext params[:search] paginate(:per_page => 5, :page => params[:page]) facet(:business_retail_store_id) facet(:business_online_store_id) order_by :price, :desc order_by :purchase_date, :desc end @user_prices = @search.results end end Not sure why having the following in my controller: order_by :price, :desc order_by :purchase_date, :desc I get the error: Sunspot::UnrecognizedFieldError in SearchController#index No field configured for UserPrice with name 'price' This doesn't make sense to me since I do have these fields inside of my UserPrice model and in my database. How do I fix this?

    Read the article

  • AWK: compare apache dates without using regular expression

    - by smallmeans
    I'm writing a loganalysis application and wanted to grab apache log records between two certain dates. Assume that a date is formated as such: 22/Dec/2009:00:19 (day/month/year:hour:minute) Currently, I'm using a regular expression to replace the month name with its numeric value, remove the separators, so the above date is converted to: 221220090019 making a date comparison trivial.. but.. Running a regex on each record for large files, say, one containing a quarter million records, is extremely costly.. is there any other method not involving regex substitution? Thanks in advance Edit: here's the function doing the convertion/comparison function dateInRange(t, from, to) { sub(/[[]/, "", t); split(t, a, "[/:]"); match("JanFebMarAprMayJunJulAugSepOctNovDec", a[2]); a[2] = sprintf("%02d", (RSTART + 2) / 3); s = a[3] a[2] a[1] a[4] a[5]; return s >= from && s <= to; } "from" and "to" are the intervals in the aforementioned format, and "t" is the raw apache log date/time field (e.g [22/Dec/2009:00:19:36)

    Read the article

  • Accessing a struct collection property from within another collection

    - by paddyb
    I have a struct that I need to store in a collection. The struct has a property that returns a Dictionary. public struct Item { private IDictionary<string, string> values; public IDictionary<string, string> Values { get { return this.values ?? (this.values = new Dictionary<string, string>()); } } } public class ItemCollection : Collection<Item> {} When testing I've found that if I add the item to the collection and then try to access the dictionary the structs values property is never updated. var collection = new ItemCollection { new Item() }; // pre-loaded with an item collection[0].Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // KeyNotFoundException here However if I load up the item first and then add it to a collection the values field is maintained. var collection = new ItemCollection(); var item = new Item(); item.Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); collection.Add(item); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // ok I've already decided that a struct is the wrong option for this type, and when using a class the issue doesn't occur, but I'm curious what's different between the two methods. Can anybody explain what's happening?

    Read the article

  • VB.NET Update Access Database with DataTable

    - by sinDizzy
    I've been perusing some hep forums and some help books but cant seem to get my head wrapped around this. My task is to read data from two text files and then load that data into an existing MS Access 2007 database. So here is what i'm trying to do: Read data from first text file and for every line of data add data to a DataTable using CarID as my unique field. Read data from second text file and look for existing CarID in DataTable if exists update that row. If it doesnt exist add a new row. once im done push the contents of the DataTable to the database. What i have so far: Dim sSQL As String = "SELECT * FROM tblCars" Dim da As New OleDb.OleDbDataAdapter(sSQL, conn) Dim ds As New DataSet da.Fill(ds, "CarData") Dim cb As New OleDb.OleDbCommandBuilder(da) 'loop read a line of text and parse it out. gets dd, dc, and carId 'create a new empty row Dim dsNewRow As DataRow = ds.Tables("CarData").NewRow() 'update the new row with fresh data dsNewRow.Item("DriveDate") = dd dsNewRow.Item("DCode") = dc dsNewRow.Item("CarNum") = carID 'about 15 more fields 'add the filled row to the DataSet table ds.Tables("CarData").Rows.Add(dsNewRow) 'end loop 'update the database with the new rows da.Update(ds, "CarData") Questions: In constructing my table i use "SELECT * FROM tblCars" but what if that table has millions of records already. Is that not a waste of resources? Should i be trying something different if i want to update with new records? Once Im done with the first text file i then go to my next text file. Whats the best approach here: To First look for an existing record based on CarNum or to create a second table and then merge the two at the end? Finally when the DataTable is done being populated and im pushing it to the database i want to make sure that if records already exist with three primary fields (DriveDate, DCode, and CarNum) that they get updated with new fields and if it doesn't exist then those records get appended. Is that possible with my process? tia AGP

    Read the article

  • jQuery code works for console but not in-page.

    - by justSteve
    I have a form element defined as: <div class="field"> <div class="name"> <label for="User_LastName"> Last name: <span class="asterisk">*</span></label> </div> <div class="value"> <%= Html.TextBox("User.LastName", Model.LastName)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("User.LastName")%> </div> </div> and a jQuery selector that is supposed to detect when the input gets focus and highlight the parent: $("input").focus(function() { //watching for an event where an input form comes into focus $(this) .parent() .addClass("curFocus") .children("div") .toggle(); }); If i paste this code into firebug's console - things work as planned. However, i'm running this from a 'RenderPartial' .net mvc page. Other jQuery code sitting within the same $(document).ready(function() { block work correctly. The form uses html helpers to generate the inputs which might complicate the process somewhat - but even so... i'm seeing correct behavior when that code's in console but not in a 'real-time' page. How do i troubleshoot this?

    Read the article

  • Inline form fields with labels placed on top

    - by rcourtna
    I can't believe I'm having to ask this, but I'm at my wit's end. I'm trying to display 2 form fields inline, but with the label for each field on the top. In ascii art: Label 1 Label 2 --------- --------- | | | | --------- --------- Should be pretty simple. <label for=foo>Label 1</label> <input type=text name=foo id=foo /> <label for=bar>Label 2</label> <input type=text name=bar id=bar /> This will get me: --------- --------- Label 1 | | Label 2 | | --------- --------- To get the labels on top of the boxes, I add display=block: <label for=foo style="display:block">Label 1</label> <input type=text name=foo id=foo /> <label for=bar style="display:block">Label 2</label> <input type=text name=bar id=bar /> After I do this, the labels are where I want them, but the form fields are no longer inline: Label 1 --------- | | --------- Label 2 --------- | | --------- I've been unable to find a way to wrap my html so the fields display inline. Can anyone help?

    Read the article

  • MySQL: Combining multiple where conditions

    - by Karl
    I'm working on a menu system that takes a url and then queries the db to build the menu. My menu table is: +---------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +---------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | node_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | parent | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | weight | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | title | varchar(250) | YES | | NULL | | | alias | varchar(250) | YES | | NULL | | | exclude | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | +---------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ The relevant columns for my question are alias, parent and node_id. So for a url like: http://example.com/folder1/folder2/filename Alias would potentially = "filename", "folder1", "folder2" Parent = the node_id of the parent folder. What I know is how to split the url up into an array and check the alias for a match to each part. What I don't know is how to have it then filter by parent whose alias matches "folder2" and whose parent alias matches "folder1". I'm imagining a query like so: select * from menu where alias='filename' and where parent = node_id where alias='folder2' and parent = node_id where alias='folder1' Except I know that the above is wrong. I'm hoping this can be done in a single query. Thanks for any help in advance!

    Read the article

  • StructureMap Configuration Per Thread/Request for the Full Dependency Chain

    - by Phil Sandler
    I've been using Structuremap for a few months now, and it has worked great on some smaller (green field) projects. Most of the configurations I have had to set up involve a single implementation per interface. In the cases where I needed to choose a specific implementation at runtime, I created a factory class that used ObjectFactory.GetNamedInstance<(). In the smaller projects, there were few enough of these cases where I was comfortable with the references to ObjectFactory. My understanding is that you want to limit these references as much as possible, and ideally only reference the ObjectFactory once. I am working to refactor a larger codebase to use IOC/StructureMap, and am finding that I may need many of these factory classes with ObjectFactory references to get what I need. Essentially, I am creating a "root service" with the ObjectFactory, so that everything in the dependency chain is managed by the container. The root service is created by name (i.e. "BuildCar", "BuildTruck"), and the services needed deeper in the dependency chain could also be constructed using the same name--so the "IAttachWheels" service could vary based on whether a car or truck is being built. Since the class that depends on IAttachWheels is the same in both configurations, I don't think I can use ConstructedBy in the registry to choose the implementation. Also, to be clear, the IAttachWheels implementations need to be managed by the container as well, because the dependency chain runs fairly deep. I looked briefly at Profiles as an option, but read (here on StackOverflow) that changing profiles essentially changes implementations for all threads. Is there a feature that is similar to profiles that is thread/request specific? Is the factory class that references ObjectFactory approach the right way to go? Any thoughts would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

    Read the article

  • CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

    - by Philip Rich
    I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

    Read the article

  • working with a csv with odd encapsulation // php

    - by Patrick
    I have a CSV file that im working with, and all the fields are comma separated. But some of the fields themselves, contain commas. In the raw csv file, the fields that contain commas, are encapsulated with quotes, as seen here; "Doctor Such and Such, Medical Center","555 Scruff McGruff, Suite 103, Chicago IL 60652",(555) 555-5555,,,,something else the code im using is below <?PHP $file_handle = fopen("file.csv", "r"); $i=0; while (!feof($file_handle) ) { $line = fgetcsv($file_handle, 1024); $c=0; foreach($line AS $key=>$value){ if($i != 0){ if($c == 0){ echo "[ROW $i][COL $c] - $value"; //First field in row, show row # }else{ echo "[COL $c] - $value"; // Remaining fields in row } } $c++; } echo "<br>"; // Line Break to next line $i++; } fclose($file_handle); ?> The problem is im getting the fields with the comma's split into two fields, which messes up the number of columns im supposed to have. Is there any way i could search for comma's within quotes and convert them, or another way to deal with this?

    Read the article

  • Roles Provider - AccountModel

    - by Jemes
    I'm adding the Roles provider to the built in AccountModel but having some problems adding GetAllRoles in my view using the Register View Model. View Model from AccountModel public class RegisterModel { UserName, Email Etc.... [Required] [DisplayName("AllRoles")] public SelectList AllRoles { get; set; } } Roles Service added to AccountModel public interface IRolesService { SelectList GetAllRoles(); } public class RolesService : IRolesService { public SelectList GetAllRoles() { var AllRoles = new SelectList(Roles.GetAllRoles()); return AllRoles; } } Register View Page Inherits RegisterModel Form... <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(m => m.ConfirmPassword) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.PasswordFor(m => m.ConfirmPassword) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.ConfirmPassword) %> </div> <%= Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.AllRoles)%> I'm not sure how to populate the DropDown list with all the Roles from the View Model. Any help would be really great!!

    Read the article

  • MVC design for archived data view

    - by Hemant Tank
    Implementation of a standard archive process in ASP.Net MVC. Backend SQL Server 2005 We've an existing web app built in MVC. We've an Entity "Claim" and it has some child entities like ClaimDetails, Files, etc... A pretty standard setup in DB. Each entity has its own table and are linked via FK. Now, we need to have an "Archive" feature in web app which will allow admin to archive a Claim and its child entities. An archived Claim shud become readonly when visited again. Here're some points on which I need your valued opinion - To keep it simple and scalable (for a few million records) for now we plan to simply add a bit field "Archived" to the Claim table in db. And change the behavior accordingly in the web app. We've a 'Manage claim' page which renders a bunch of diff views for Claim and its child entities. Now, for a readonly view we can either use the same views or have a separate set of views. What do you suggest? At controller level, we can identify archived claim and select which view to render. At model level, though it'd be great to be able to use the same model used for Manage Claim - but it might not get us the "text" of some lookup fields. For example, Claim.BrandId is rendered as a dropdown in Manage claim (requires only BrandId) but for readonly view we need 'BrandText'. Any existing ref or architecture level example would be great. Here's my prev SO post but its more about db level changes: Design a process to archive data (SQL Server 2005) Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Converting the content of <div> Tag To An Image [closed]

    - by ruhit
    how to convert the content of tag into image fomat in php, please someone help me,I realy need it....... i have made this application... <?php if(!isset($_GET['text'])) { die("No text provided"); } header ("Content-type: image/png"); $text = $_GET['text'] ; $path="C:\wamp\www\image"; $bg = imagecreatetruecolor(350, 75); //This will make it transparent imagesavealpha($bg, true); $trans_colour = imagecolorallocatealpha($bg, 0, 0, 0, 127); imagefill($bg, 0, 0, $trans_colour); $white = imagecolorallocate($bg, 255, 255, 255); $grey = imagecolorallocate($bg, 128, 128, 128); $black = imagecolorallocate($bg, 0,0,0); $background_color = imagecolorallocate ($bg, 25, 25, 25); $font = 'arial.ttf'; $fontsize = 20; imagettftext($bg, $fontsize, 0, 20, 20, $grey, $font, $text); //Create image imagepng($bg); imagepng($bg,"$path/img.png"); //destroy image ImageDestroy($bg); ?> and the image source is <img src="img.php?text=helloworld"> now I want the text input from a tag field, so how to do this?Please help me..

    Read the article

  • how can you have the same form handle by javascript multiple times on the same page?

    - by DeChamp
    I have a thumb gallery where I am using ajax/javascript to submit a form per image to report the image as broken seamlessly along with php. The form and script is templated so the script is in the header and then the form is printed multiple times on the same page with a hidden field with a different id for the value per thumb. So basically this is what i have. javascript in header just a quick idea of the forms i have. Just a quick idea not what I actually have. image1 followed by the form image2 followed by the form So when you hit the button it basically submits all of the forms at the same time. I am sure it can be fixed with a (this) or something like that so it only submits a single form at a time. Let me know please. $(function() { $(".submit").click(function() { var imgId = $("#imgId").val(); var dataString = 'imgId='+ imgId; if(imgId==''){ $('.success').fadeOut(200).hide(); $('.error').fadeIn(200).show(); $('.error').fadeOut(200).hide(); }else{ $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "inc/brokenImgReport.php", data: dataString, success: function(){ }); $('.error').fadeOut(200).hide(); $('.success').fadeIn(200).show(); setTimeout(function() { $('.success').fadeOut(200); }, 2000); } return false; }); });

    Read the article

  • Client validate in MVC 2

    - by khoailang
    Hello, I'm very new in MVC 2, Let say, I have a page with 1 text box and 2 input typed submit, "back" and "next". I'm using client validation like this: "" type="text/javascript"/" " type="text/javascript"/ " type="text/javascript"/ . . . <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); % . . . . . . and validation rule used for that text box is [StringLength(100, ErrorMessage="This field should be no longer than 100")] My wish is that validation rules will be applied only when I click on Next button. And when I click on Back button, no validation error message will be displayed and form will be posted to server. Is it possible to do that? could you please tell me how? My problem now is that when I click Back, validation rules are applied and prevent me from posting back to server.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC4: How do I keep from having multiple identical results in my lookup tables

    - by sehummel
    I'm new to ASP.NET so this may be an easy question. I'm seeding my database with several rows of dummy data. Here is one of my rows: new Software { Title = "Microsoft Office", Version = "2012", SerialNumber = "12346231434543", Platform = "PC", Notes = "Macs really rock!", PurchaseDate = "2011-12-04", Suite = true, SubscriptionEndDate = null, SeatCount = 0, SoftwareTypes = new List<SoftwareType> { new SoftwareType { Type="Suite" }}, Locations = new List<Location> { new Location { LocationName = "Paradise" }}, Publishers = new List<SoftwarePublisher> { new SoftwarePublisher { Publisher = "Microsoft" }}} But when I do this, a new row is created for each location, with the LocationName being set in each row like this. We only have two locations. How do I get it to create a LocationID property for the Software class and in my Locations class. Here is my Location class: public class Location { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(20)] public string LocationName { get; set; } public virtual Software Software { get; set; } } I have this line in my Software class to reference this table: public virtual List<Location> Locations { get; set; } Again, what I want when I am done is a Locations table with two entries, and a LocationID field in my Software table. How do I do this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449  | Next Page >