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  • div "top" bug IE and everything else. Big problem

    - by Victor
    Hi everyone. I am new in CSS so please help me in this problem. I hope to describe it wright. I am making div named content where my site content is. I made it with z-index:-1; so an image to be over this div. But in Chrome, FF and safari, content became inactive. I cant select text , click on link and write in the forms. So I tried with positive states in the z-index but IE don't know what this means. Damn. So I decided to make conditional div. Here is the code: .content { background:#FFF; width:990px; position:relative; float:left; top:50px; } .content_IE { background:#FFF; width:990px; position:relative; float:left; top: 50px; z-index:-1; } and here is the HTML: <!--[if IE 7]> <div class="content_IE" style="height:750px;"> <![endif]--> <div class="content" style="height:550px;"> Everything is fine with the z-index but the problem is that if there is no top in .content class everything looks fine in IE but there is no space in the other browsers. If i put back the top:50px; there onother 50px like padding in the .content_IE class. I mean that the page looks like I've put top:50px; and padding-top=50px;. I've try everything like margin-top:-50px; padding-top:-50px; and stuff like this but I am still in the circle. It look fine only if there is no top option in .content class. Please help.

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  • Debugging a basic OpenGL texture fail? (iphone)

    - by Ben
    Hey all, I have a very basic texture map problem in GL on iPhone, and I'm wondering what strategies there are for debugging this kind of thing. (Frankly, just staring at state machine calls and wondering if any of them is wrong or misordered is no way to live-- are there tools for this?) I have a 512x512 PNG file that I'm loading up from disk (not specially packed), creating a CGBitmapContext, then calling CGContextDrawImage to get bytes out of it. (This code is essentially stolen from an Apple sample.) I'm trying to map the texture to a "quad", with code that looks essentially like this-- all flat 2D stuff, nothing fancy: glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_MODULATE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); GLfloat vertices[8] = { viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.size.height, viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.size.height }; GLfloat texCoords[8] = { 0, 1.0, 0, 0, 1.0, 0, 1.0, 1.0 }; glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, myTextureRef); // This was previously bound to glVertexPointer(2, GL_FLOAT , 0, vertices); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, texCoords); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_FAN, 0, 4); glDisableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); My supposedly textured area comes out just black. I see no debug output from the CG calls to set up the texture. glGetError reports nothing. If I simplify this code block to just draw the verts, but set up a pure color, the quad area lights up exactly as expected. If I clear the whole context immediately beforehand to red, I don't see the red-- which means something is being rendered there, but not the contents of my PNG. What could I be doing wrong? And more importantly, what are the right tools and techniques for debugging this sort of thing, because running into this kind of problem and not being able to "step through it" in a debugger in any meaningful way is a bummer. Thanks!

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  • ASP.Net MVC + Live validation - how come the flagged text are all over the place?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, this is an asp.net mvc project and <% using (Html.BeginForm("ProductAdded", "Home")) { % Register Your Product <%= ViewData["MainHeader"]% <p><%=ViewData["IntroText"]%></p> <div style="display: none;"> <div id="regionThreePane"> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" frame="void" style="width: 100%"> <tr> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox1" id="ProdLBox1" class="ProdLBox1" size="8"></select></td> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox2" id="ProdLBox2" class="ProdLBox2" size="8"></select></td> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox3" id="ProdLBox3" class="ProdLBox3" size="8"></select></td> </tr> </table> </div> i'm using live validation for my client side validation. var v_fname = new LiveValidation('Customer_FirstName', { validMessage: " " }, { onlyOnSubmit: true }); v_fname.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enterfirstname}); var v_lname = new LiveValidation('Customer_LastName', { validMessage: " " }); v_lname.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enterlastname }); var v_email = new LiveValidation('Customer_Email', { validMessage: " " }); v_email.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enteremail, validMessage: " " }); v_email.add(Validate.Email, { failureMessage: entervalidemail}); and what i notice is that after doing some button call: $(".btnAddProduct").click(function() { //Check first to see if there's anything to be added if (parseFloat($(".tboAddProduct").val()) < 1) { //TO DO: to replace with localized text var selectProductError = "Please select a product first"; $("#validationSummary").text(selectProductError); //alert("Please select a product first"); return false; } $(".PanelProductReg").show(); addProductRow($(".tboAddProductId").val(), $("#tboAddProduct").val()); }); what will happen is that the validation tags will start to appear for the whole page for all the input which are tag for the live validation. instead of just appearing when the controls are being higlighted and onblur. i'm using some ajax calls to get data and a lot of jquery to dynamically do the gui stuff. could any of this be causing some sort of an internal conflict? thanks

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  • IPhone Development Profile Expired

    - by theiphoneguy
    I really combed this site and others. I read and re-read the related links here and the Apple docs. I'm sorry, but either I am obviously missing something right under my nose, or this Apple profile/certificate stuff is a bit convoluted. Here it is: I have a product in the App Store. I have updated it several times and users like it. My development profile recently expired just when I was improving the app for its next release. I can run the app in the simulator. I can compile and put the distribution build on my iPhone just fine. I went to the Apple portal and renewed the development profile. I downloaded it and installed it in Xcode. I see it in the Organize window. I see it on my iPhone. I CANNOT put the debug build on my iPhone to debug or run with Instruments. The message is that either there is not a valid signed profile or it is untrusted. I subsequently tried to download and install the certificate to my Mac's keychain. Still no success. I checked the code signing section of Project settings and also for the target and the root. All appears to indicate that it is using the expected development profile for debug. Yes, I had deleted the old profile from my iPhone, from the Organizer. I cleaned the Xcode cache and all targets. I have done all of this several times and in varying sequences to try to cover every possibility. I am ready to do anything to be able to debug with Instruments in order to check for leaks or high memory usage. Even though the distribution compile runs fine on my iPhone and plays well with other running processes, I will not release anything without a leaks/memory test. Any ideas will be appreciated. If I missed something obvious, please forgive me - it was not due to just posting a question without searching for similar postings. Thanks!

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  • zlib gzgets extremely slow?

    - by monkeyking
    I'm doing stuff related to parsing huge globs of textfiles, and was testing what input method to use. There is not much of a difference using c++ std::ifstreams vs c FILE, According to the documentation of zlib, it supports uncompressed files, and will read the file without decompression. I'm seeing a difference from 12 seconds using non zlib to more than 4 minutes using zlib.h This I've tested doing multiple runs, so its not a disk cache issue. Am I using zlib in some wrong way? thanks #include <zlib.h> #include <cstdio> #include <cstdlib> #include <fstream> #define LENS 1000000 size_t fg(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using fgets\n"); FILE *fp =fopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(NULL!=fgets(buffer,LENS,fp)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t is(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using ifstream\n"); std::ifstream is(fname,std::ios::in); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(is. getline(buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t iz(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using zlib\n"); gzFile fp =gzopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(0!=gzgets(fp,buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } int main(int argc,char**argv){ if(atoi(argv[2])==0) fg(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==1) is(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==2) iz(argv[1]); }

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  • Can't destroy record in many-to-many relationship

    - by Dmart
    I'm new to Rails, so I'm sure I've made a simple mistake. I've set up a many-to-many relationship between two models: User and Group. They're connected through the junction model GroupMember. Here are my models (removed irrelevant stuff): class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :group_members has_many :groups, :through => :group_members end class GroupMember < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :group belongs_to :user end class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :group_members has_many :users, :through => :group_members end The table for GroupMembers contains additional information about the relationship, so I didn't use has_and_belongs_to_many (as per the Rails "Active Record Associations" guide). The problem I'm having is that I can't destroy a GroupMember. Here's the output from rails console: irb(main):006:0> m = GroupMember.new => #<GroupMember group_id: nil, user_id: nil, active: nil, created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> irb(main):007:0> m.group_id =1 => 1 irb(main):008:0> m.user_id = 16 => 16 irb(main):009:0> m.save => true irb(main):010:0> m.destroy NoMethodError: undefined method `eq' for nil:NilClass from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-3.0.4/lib/active_support/whiny_nil.rb:48:in `method_missing' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.4/lib/active_record/persistence.rb:79:in `destroy' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.4/lib/active_record/locking/optimistic.rb:110:in `destroy' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.4/lib/active_record/callbacks.rb:260:in `destroy' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-3.0.4/lib/active_support/callbacks.rb:413:in `_run_destroy_callbacks' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.4/lib/active_record/callbacks.rb:260:in `destroy' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:235:in `destroy' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:292:in `with_transaction_returning_status' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.4/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract/database_statements.rb:139:in `transaction' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:207:in `transaction' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:290:in `with_transaction_returning_status' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:235:in `destroy' from (irb):10 This is driving me crazy, so any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Wordpress installed in root folder, subdomain now not working, GoDaddy host

    - by Kristin
    Hi, please forgive me for being a complete beginner at this, I'd rather not have to try to deal with this myself but as GoDaddy support have not replied after 2 days I'm going to have to. I think my problem is the same as the one above, but I'm not 100% sure, so I'm reposting it, I'm not really confident enough to attempt to try the fixes I've seen here so I need someone to give me baby instructions? Our original website (www.mwpics.com.au) was built in Dreamweaver etc, recently we created a new website in Wordpress, in a subdomain, then migrated it over to the root folder where it is now operating fine. I also moved the files for the old website into another directory which I called 'old', so they're all still there. The problem is that I have a subdomain set up - which is still showing as set up in the control panel on godaddy the url is www.mwpics.com.au/clients and it is at www.clients.mwpics.com.au. This directory contains loads of other directories, each of which is password protected by .htaccess files and which our clients access directly (not through the site) to download their finished work. The test one and the one for random clients is www.mwpics.com.au/clients/temp - username and password both temp (the usernames are all the same as the directory names). Since the WP install to the root directory the /clients extension no longer works (it should bring up an information page which is an .html index page in the directory) and the /clients/name extensions no longer works - it goes back to the wp site with a 'not found' error message. Strangely it does bring up the box for the username and password, but when you enter it it just goes back to the 'not found' message. Someone told me it was the .htaccess file - so as an experiment, I renamed the .htaccess file in the root directory and then copied the .htaccess file from the old root files into the root directory, eureka! It worked - and also the WP site opened to the home page... but bummer - the /pages in the WP site now no longer worked! But at least I know the source of the problem. So I switched it back and this is the status quo - I have no idea how to fix this, and with everyone back at work tomorrow, clients are going to want to start downloading their stuff... Can anyone help me? I'm starting to panic a bit

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  • App losing db connection

    - by DaveKub
    I'm having a weird issue with an old Delphi app losing it's database connection. Actually, I think it's losing something else that then makes the connection either drop or be unusable. The app is written in Delphi 6 and uses the Direct Oracle Access component (v4.0.7.1) to connect to an Oracle 9i database. The app runs as a service and periodically queries the db using a TOracleQuery object (qryAlarmList). The method that is called to do this looks like this: procedure TdmMain.RefreshAlarmList; begin try qryAlarmList.Execute; except on E: Exception do begin FStatus := ssError; EventLog.LogError(-1, 'TdmMain.RefreshAlarmList', 'Message: ' + E.Message); end; end; end; It had been running fine for years, until a couple of Perl scripts were added to this machine. These scripts run every 15 minutes and look for datafiles to import into the db, and then they do a some calculations and a bunch of reads/writes to/from the db. For some reason, when they are processing large amounts of data, and then the Delphi app tries to query the db, the Delphi app throws an exception at the "qryAlarmList.Execute" line in the above code listing. The exception is always: Access violation at address 00000000. read of address 00000000 HOW can something that the Perl scripts are doing cause this?? There are other Perl scripts on this machine that load data using the same modules and method calls and we didn't have problems. To make it even weirder, there are two other apps that will also suddenly lose their ability to talk to the database at the same time as the Perl stuff is running. Neither of those apps run on this machine, but both are Delphi 6 apps that use the same DOA component to connect to the same database. We have other apps that connect to the same db, written in Java or C# and they don't seem to have any problems. I've tried adding code before the '.Execute' method is called to: check the session's connection (session.CheckConnection(true); always comes back as 'ccOK'). see whether I can access a field of the qryAlarmList object to see if maybe it's become null; can access it fine. check the state of the qryAlarmList; always says it's qsIdle. Does anyone have any suggestions of something to try? This is driving me nuts! Dave

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  • C#/.NET Project - Am I setting things up correctly?

    - by JustLooking
    1st solution located: \Common\Controls\Controls.sln and its project: \Common\Controls\Common.Controls\Common.Controls.csproj Description: This is a library that contains this class: public abstract class OurUserControl : UserControl { // Variables and other getters/setters common to our UserControls } 2nd solution located: \AControl\AControl.sln and its project: \AControl\AControl\AControl.csproj Description: Of the many forms/classes, it will contain this class: using Common.Controls; namespace AControl { public partial class AControl : OurUserControl { // The implementation } } A note about adding references (not sure if this is relevant): When I add references (for projects I create), using the names above: 1. I add Common.Controls.csproj to AControl.sln 2. In AControl.sln I turn off the build of Common.Controls.csproj 3. I add the reference to Common.Controls (by project) to AControl.csproj. This is the (easiest) way I know how to get Debug versions to match Debug References, and Release versions to match Release References. Now, here is where the issue lies (the 3rd solution/project that actually utilizes the UserControl): 3rd solution located: \MainProj\MainProj.sln and its project: \MainProj\MainProj\MainProj.csproj Description: Here's a sample function in one of the classes: private void TestMethod<T>() where T : Common.Controls.OurUserControl, new() { T TheObject = new T(); TheObject.OneOfTheSetters = something; TheObject.AnotherOfTheSetters = something_else; // Do stuff with the object } We might call this function like so: private void AnotherMethod() { TestMethod<AControl.AControl>(); } This builds, runs, and works. No problem. The odd thing is after I close the project/solution and re-open it, I have red squigglies everywhere. I bring up my error list and I see tons of errors (anything that deals with AControl will be noted as an error). I'll see errors such as: The type 'AControl.AControl' cannot be used as type parameter 'T' in the generic type or method 'MainProj.MainClass.TestMethod()'. There is no implicit reference conversion from 'AControl.AControl' to 'Common.Controls.OurUserControl'. or inside the actual method (the properties located in the abstract class): 'AControl.AControl' does not contain a definition for 'OneOfTheSetters' and no extension method 'OneOfTheSetters' accepting a first argument of type 'AControl.AControl' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Meanwhile, I can still build and run the project (then the red squigglies go away until I re-open the project, or close/re-open the file). It seems to me that I might be setting up the projects incorrectly. Thoughts?

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  • ZF-Autoloader not working in UnitTests on Ubuntu

    - by Sam
    i got a problem regarding Unit-testing a Zend-Framework application under Ubuntu 12.04. The project-structure is a default zend application whereas the models are defined as the following ./application ./models ./DbTable ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_DbTable_ProjectStatus) ./Mappers ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus) ./ProjectStatus.php (Application_Model_ProjectStatus) The Problem here is with the Zend-specific autoloading. The naming convention here appears that the folder Mappers loads all classes with _Mapper but not _Mappers. This is some internal Zend behavior which is fine so far. On my windows machine the phpunit runs without any Problems, trying to initiate all those classes. On my Ubuntu machine however with jenkins running on it, phpunit fails to find the appropriate classes giving me the following error Fatal error: Class 'Application_Model_Mapper_ProjectStatus' not found in /var/lib/jenkins/jobs/PAM/workspace/tests/application/models/Mapper/ProjectStatusTest.php on line 39 The error appears to really be that the Zend-Autoloader doesn't load from the ubuntu machine, but i can't figure out how or why this works. The question remains of why this is. I think i've double checked every point of contact with the zend autoloading stuff, but i just can't figure this out. I'll paste the - from my point of view relevant snippets - and hope someone of you has any insight to this. Jenkins Snippet for PHPUnit <target name="phpunit" description="Run unit tests with PHPUnit"> <exec executable="phpunit" failonerror="true"> <arg line="--configuration '${basedir}/tests/phpunit.xml' --coverage-clover '${basedir}/build/logs/clover.xml' --coverage-html '${basedir}/build/coverage/.' --log-junit '${basedir}/build/logs/junit.xml'" /> </exec> </target> ./tests/phpunit.xml <phpunit bootstrap="./bootstrap.php"> ... this shouldn't be of relevance ... </phpunit> ./tests/bootstrap.php <?php // Define path to application directory defined('APPLICATION_PATH') || define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); // Define application environment defined('APPLICATION_ENV') || define('APPLICATION_ENV', (getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') ? getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') : 'testing')); // Ensure library/ is on include_path set_include_path(implode(PATH_SEPARATOR, array( realpath(APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library'), get_include_path(), ))); require_once 'Zend/Loader/Autoloader.php'; Zend_Loader_Autoloader::getInstance(); Any help will be appreciated.

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  • Java loading user-specified classes at runtime

    - by user349043
    I'm working on robot simulation in Java (a Swing application). I have an abstract class "Robot" from which different types of Robots are derived, e.g. public class StupidRobot extends Robot { int m_stupidness; int m_insanityLevel; ... } public class AngryRobot extends Robot { float m_aggression; ... } As you can see, each Robot subclass has a different set of parameters. What I would like to do is control the simulation setup in the initial UI. Choose the number and type of Robots, give it a name, fill in the parameters etc. This is one of those times where being such a dinosaur programmer, and new to Java, I wonder if there is some higher level stuff/thinking that could help me here. So here is what I've got: (1) User Interface Scrolling list of Robot types on the left. "Add " and "<< Remove" buttons in the middle. Default-named scrolling list of Robots on the right. "Set Parameters" button underneath. (So if you wanted an AngryRobot, you'd select AngryRobot on the left list, click "Add" and "AngryRobot1" would show up on the right.) When selecting a Robot on the right, click "Set Parameters..." button which would call yet another model dialog where you'd fill in the parameters. Different dialog called for each Robot type. (2) Data structures an implementation As an end-product I think a HashMap would be most convenient. The keys would be Robot types and the accompanying object would be all of the parameters. The initializer could just retrieve each item one and a time and instantiate. Here's what the data structures would look like: enum ROBOT_TYPE {STUPID, ANGRY, etc} public class RobotInitializer { public ROBOT_TYPE m_type; public string m_name; public int[] m_int_params; public float[] m_float_params; etc. The initializer's constructor would create the appropriate length parameter arrays based on the type: public RobotInitializer(ROBOT_TYPE type, int[] int_array, float[] float_array, etc){ switch (type){ case STUPID: m_int_params = new int[STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH]; System.arraycopy(int_array,0,m_int_params,0,STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH); etc. Once all the RobotInitializers are instantiated, they are added to the HashMap. Iterating through the HashMap, the simulation initializer takes items from the Hashmap and instantiates the appropriate Robots. Is this reasonable? If not, how can it be improved? Thanks

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  • git: setting a single tracking remote from a public repo.

    - by Gauthier
    I am confused with remote branches. My local repo: (local) ---A---B---C-master My remote repo (called int): (int) ---A---B---C---D---E-master What I want to do is to setup the local repo's master branch to follow that of int. Local repo: (local) ---A---B---C---D---E-master-remotes/int/master So that when int changes to: (int) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master I can run git pull from the local repo's master and get (local) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master-remotes/int/master Here's what I have tried: git fetch int gets me all the branches of int into remote branches. This can get messy since int might have hundreds of branches. git fetch int master gets me the commits, but no ref to it, only FETCH_HEAD. No remote branch either. git fetch int master:new_master works but I don't want a new name every time I update, and no remote branch is setup. git pull int master does what I want, but there is still no remote branch setup. I feel that it is ok to do so (that's the best I have now), but I read here and there that with the remote setup it is enough with git pull. git branch --track new_master int/master, as per http://www.gitready.com/beginner/2009/03/09/remote-tracking-branches.html . I get "not a valid object name: int/master". git remote -v does show me that int is defined and points at the correct location (1. worked). What I miss is the int/master branch, which is precisely what I want to get. git fetch in master:int/master. Well, int/master is created, but is no remote. So to summarize, I've tried some stuff with no luck. I would expect 2 to give me the remote branch to master in the repo int. The solution I use now is option 3. I read somewhere that you could change some config file by hand, but isn't that a bit cumbersome? The "cumbersome" way of editting the config file did work: [branch "master"] remote = int merge = master It can be done from command line: $ git config branch.master.remote int $ git config branch.master.merge master Any reason why option 2 above wouldn't do that automatically? Even in that case, git pull fetches all branches from the remote.

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  • devise register confirmation

    - by mattherick
    hello! i have a user and an admin role in my project. i created my authentification with devise, really nice and goot tool for handling the authentification. in my admin role i don´t have any confirmation or something like that. it is really simple and doesn´t make problems. but in my user model i have following things: model: devise :database_authenticatable, :confirmable, :recoverable, :rememberable, :trackable, :validatable, :timeoutable, :registerable # Setup accessible (or protected) attributes for your model attr_accessible :email, :username, :prename, :surname, :phone, :street, :number, :location, :password, :password_confirmation and few validations, but they aren´t relevant this time. my migration looks like following one: class DeviseCreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table(:users) do |t| t.database_authenticatable :null = false t.confirmable t.recoverable t.rememberable t.trackable t.timeoutable t.validateable t.string :username t.string :prename t.string :surname t.string :phone t.string :street t.integer :number t.string :location t.timestamps end add_index :users, :email, :unique => true add_index :users, :confirmation_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :reset_password_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :username, :unique => true add_index :users, :prename, :unique => false add_index :users, :surname, :unique => false add_index :users, :phone, :unique => false add_index :users, :street, :unique => false add_index :users, :number, :unique => false add_index :users, :location, :unique => false end def self.down drop_table :users end end into my route.rb I added following statements: map.devise_for :admins map.devise_for :users, :path_names = { :sign_up = "register", :sign_in = "login" } map.root :controller = "main" and now my problem.. if I register a new user, I fill in all my data in the register form and submit it. After that I get redirected to the controller main with the flash-notice "You have signed up successfully." And I am logged in. But I don´t want to be logged in, because I don´t have confirmed my new user account yet. If I open the console I see the last things in the logs and there I see the confirmation-mail and the text and all stuff, but I am already logged in... I can´t explain why, ... does somebody of you have an idea? If I copy out the confirmation-token from the logs and confirm my account, I can log in, but if I don´t confirm, I also can log in..

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  • mysql: can't set max_allowed_package to anything grater than 16MB

    - by sas
    I'm not sure if this is the right place to post these kind of questions, if it's not so, please (politely) let me know... :-) I need to save files greater than 16MB on a mysql database from a php site... I've already changed the c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf and set max_allowed_packet to 16 MB, and everything worked fine then I set it to 32 MB but there´s no way I can handle a file bigger than 16 MB I get the following error: 'MySQL server has gone away' (the same error I had when max_allowed_packet was set to 1MB) there must be some other setting that doesn´t allow me to handle files bigger than 16MB maybe the php client, I guess, but I don't know where to edit it this is the code I'm running when file.txt is smaller than 16.776.192 bytes long, it works fine, but if file.txt has 16.777.216 bytes i get the aforementioned error oh, and the field download.content is a longblob... $file = 'file.txt'; $file_handle = fopen( $file, 'r' ); $content = fread( $file_handle, filesize( $file ) ); fclose( $file_handle ); db_execute( 'truncate table download', true ); $sql = "insert into download( code, title, name, description, original_name, mime_type, size, content, user_insert_id, date_insert, user_update_id, date_update ) values ( 'new file', 'new file', 'sas.jpg', 'new file', '$file', 'mime', " . filesize( $file ) . ", '" . addslashes( $content ) . "', 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . ", 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . " )"; db_execute( $sql, true ); (the db_execute funcion just opens the connections and executes the sql stuff) running on windows XP sp2 server version: 5.0.67-community PHP Version 4.4.9 mysql client API version: 3.23.49 using: ApacheFriends XAMPP (Basispaket) version 1.6.8 that comes with + Apache 2.2.9 + MySQL 5.0.67 (Community Server) + PHP 5.2.6 + PHP 4.4.9 + PEAR + phpMyAdmin 2.11.9.2 ... this is part of the content of c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf # The MySQL server [mysqld] port= 3306 socket= "C:/xampp/mysql/mysql.sock" basedir="C:/xampp/mysql" tmpdir="C:/xampp/tmp" datadir="C:/xampp/mysql/data" skip-locking key_buffer = 16M # max_allowed_packet = 1M max_allowed_packet = 32M table_cache = 128 sort_buffer_size = 512K net_buffer_length = 8K read_buffer_size = 256K read_rnd_buffer_size = 512K myisam_sort_buffer_size = 8M

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  • Several client waiting for the same event

    - by ff8mania
    I'm developing a communication API to be used by a lot of generic clients to communicate with a proprietary system. This proprietary system exposes an API, and I use a particular classes to send and wait messages from this system: obviously the system alert me that a message is ready using an event. The event is named OnMessageArrived. My idea is to expose a simple SendSyncMessage(message) method that helps the user/client to simply send a message and the method returns the response. The client: using ( Communicator c = new Communicator() ) { response = c.SendSync(message); } The communicator class is done in this way: public class Communicator : IDisposable { // Proprietary system object ExternalSystem c; String currentRespone; Guid currentGUID; private readonly ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent; private ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent2; String systemName = "system"; String ServerName = "server"; public Communicator() { _manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); //This methods are from the proprietary system API c = SystemInstance.CreateInstance(); c.Connect(systemName , ServerName); } private void ConnectionStarter( object data ) { c.OnMessageArrivedEvent += c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; _manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); c.OnMessageArrivedEvent-= c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; } public String SendSync( String Message ) { Thread _internalThread = new Thread(ConnectionStarter); _internalThread.Start(c); _manualResetEvent2 = new ManualResetEvent(false); String toRet; int messageID; currentGUID = Guid.NewGuid(); c.SendMessage(Message, "Request", currentGUID.ToString()); _manualResetEvent2.WaitOne(); toRet = currentRespone; return toRet; } void c_OnMessageArrivedEvent( int Id, string root, string guid, int TimeOut, out int ReturnCode ) { if ( !guid.Equals(currentGUID.ToString()) ) { _manualResetEvent2.Set(); ReturnCode = 0; return; } object newMessage; c.FetchMessage(Id, 7, out newMessage); currentRespone = newMessage.ToString(); ReturnCode = 0; _manualResetEvent2.Set(); } } I'm really noob in using waithandle, but my idea was to create an instance that sends the message and waits for an event. As soon as the event arrived, checks if the message is the one I expect (checking the unique guid), otherwise continues to wait for the next event. This because could be (and usually is in this way) a lot of clients working concurrently, and I want them to work parallel. As I implemented my stuff, at the moment if I run client 1, client 2 and client 3, client 2 starts sending message as soon as client 1 has finished, and client 3 as client 2 has finished: not what I'm trying to do. Can you help me to fix my code and get my target? Thanks!

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  • How can I combine xsl:attribute and xsl:use-attribute-sets to conditionally use an attribute set?

    - by Peter
    We have an xml node "item" with an attribute "style", which is "Header1". This style can change however. We have an attribute set named Header1 which defines how this should look in a PDF, generated through xsl:fo. This works (the use-attribute-sets is mentioned inline, in the fo:table-cell node): <xsl:template match="item[@type='label']"> <fo:table-row> <fo:table-cell xsl:use-attribute-sets="Header1"> <fo:block> <fo:inline font-size="8pt" > <xsl:value-of select="." /> </fo:inline> </fo:block> </fo:table-cell> </fo:table-row> </xsl:template> But this doesn't (using xsl:attribute, because the attribute @style can also be Header2 for example). It doesn't generate an error, the PDF is created, but the attributes aren't applied. <xsl:template match="item[@type='label']"> <fo:table-row> <fo:table-cell> <xsl:attribute name="xsl:use-attribute-sets"> <xsl:value-of select="@style" /> </xsl:attribute> <fo:block> <fo:inline font-size="8pt" > <xsl:value-of select="." /> </fo:inline> </fo:block> </fo:table-cell> </fo:table-row> </xsl:template> Does anyone know why? And how we could achieve this, preferably without long xsl:if or xsl:when stuff?

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  • Python and displaying HTML

    - by Tyler Seymour
    I've gotten pretty comfortable with Python and now I'm looking to make a rudimentary web application. I was somewhat scared of Django and the other Python frameworks so I went caveman on it and decided to generate the HTML myself using another Python script. Maybe this is how you do it anyways - but I'm just figuring this stuff out. I'm really looking for a tip-off on, well, what to do next. My Python script PRINTS the HTML (is this even correct? I need it to be on a webpage!), but now what? Thanks for your continued support during my learning process. One day I will post answers! -Tyler Here's my code: from SearchPhone import SearchPhone phones = ["Iphone 3", "Iphone 4", "Iphone 5","Galaxy s3", "Galaxy s2", "LG Lucid", "LG Esteem", "HTC One S", "Droid 4", "Droid RAZR MAXX", "HTC EVO", "Galaxy Nexus", "LG Optimus 2", "LG Ignite", "Galaxy Note", "HTC Amaze", "HTC Rezound", "HTC Vivid", "HTC Rhyme", "Motorola Photon", "Motorola Milestone", "myTouch slide", "HTC Status", "Droid 3", "HTC Evo 3d", "HTC Wildfire", "LG Optimus 3d", "HTC ThunderBolt", "Incredible 2", "Kyocera Echo", "Galaxy S 4g", "HTC Inspire", "LG Optimus 2x", "Samsung Gem", "HTC Evo Shift", "Nexus S", "LG Axis", "Droid 2", "G2", "Droid x", "Droid Incredible" ] print """<!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>table of phones</title> </head> <body> </body> </html> """ #table print '<table width="100%" border="1">' for x in phones: y = SearchPhone(x) print "\t<tr>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[0]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[1]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[2]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[3]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[4]) + "</td>" print "\t</tr>" print "</table>

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  • Recommended ASP.NET Shared Hosting

    - by coffeeaddict
    Ok, I have to admit I'm getting fed up with www.discountasp.net's pricing model and this annoyance has built up over the past 8 years or so. I've been with them for years and absolutely love them on the technical side, however it's getting ridiculously expensive for so little that you get. I mean here's my scenario: 1) I am running 2 SQL Server databases which costs me $10/ea per month so that's $20/month for 2 and I only get 500 mb disk space which is horrible 2) I am paying $10/mo just for the hosting itself which I only get 1 gig of disk space! I mean common! 3) I am simply running 2 small apps (Screwturn Wiki & Subtext Blog)...so I don't really care if it's up 99% or not, it's not worth paying a total of $300 just to keep these 2 apps running over discountasp.net Anyone else feel the same? Yes, I know they have great support, probably have great servers running behind this but in the end I really don't care as long as my site is up 95% or better. Yes, the hosting toolset rocks. But you know I bet you I can find a similar set somewhere else. I like how I can totally control IIS 7 at discountasp and I can control my own app pool etc. That's very powerful and essential. But anyone have any good alternatives to discountasp that gives me close to the same at a much more reasonable cost point? I mean http://www.m6.net/prices.aspx gives you 10 SQL Databases for $7 and 200 gigs disk space! I don't know about their tools or support but just looking at those numbers and some other hosts I've seen, I feel that discountasp.net is way out of line. They don't even offer any purchasing discounts such as it would be nice if my 2nd SQL Server is only $5/month not $10...stuff like this, to make it much more realistic and fair. Opinions (people who do have discountasp.net, people who have left them, or people who have another host they like)??? But geez $300 just to host a couple DBs and lightweight open source apps? Not worth the price they are charging. I'm almost at a price point that enables me to get a decent dedicated server! I really don't care about beta support. Not a big deal to me.

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  • ajaxSubmit and Other Code. Can someone help me determine what this code is doing?

    - by Matt Dawdy
    I've inherited some code that I need to debug. It isn't working at present. My task is to get it to work. No other requirements have been given to me. No, this isn't homework, this is a maintenance nightmare job. ASP.Net (framework 3.5), C#, jQury 1.4.2. This project makes heavy use of jQuery and AJAX. There is a drop down on a page that, when an item is chosen, is supposed to add that item (it's a user) to an object in the database. To accomplish this, the previous programmer first, on page load, dynamically loads the entire page through AJAX. To do this, he's got 5 div's, and each one is loaded from a jquery call to a different full page in the website. Somehow, the HTML and BODY and all the other stuff is stripped out and the contents of the div are loaded with the content of the aspx page. Which seems incredibly wrong to me since it relies on the browser to magically strip out html, head, body, form tags and merge with the existing html head body form tags. Also, as the "content" page is returned as a string, the previous programmer has this code running on it before it is appended to the div: function CleanupResponseText(responseText, uniqueName) { responseText = responseText.replace("theForm.submit();", "SubmitSubForm(theForm, $(theForm).parent());"); responseText = responseText.replace(new RegExp("theForm", "g"), uniqueName); responseText = responseText.replace(new RegExp("doPostBack", "g"), "doPostBack" + uniqueName); return responseText; } When the dropdown itself fires it's onchange event, here is the code that gets fired: function SubmitSubForm(form, container) { //ShowLoading(container); $(form).ajaxSubmit( { url: $(form).attr("action"), success: function(responseText) { $(container).html(CleanupResponseText(responseText, form.id)); $("form", container).css("margin-top", "0").css("padding-top", "0"); //HideLoading(container); } } ); } This blows up in IE, with the message that "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" -- which, I think, has to be that $(form).ajaxSubmit method doesn't exist. What is this code really trying to do? I am so turned around right now that I think my only option is to scrap everything and start over. But I'd rather not do that unless necessary. Is this code good? Is it working against .Net, and is that why we are having issues?

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  • Get data from aspx.cs page to aspx page.

    - by Brad8118
    So I am using a jquery plug in that allows me to change the order of things in a list by dragging and dropping them. So my goal is to be able to grab a list of my objects (AlertInfo) and using it in a javascript function. I was able to use a json webservice call in a test project to pass the data to the page. But we don't have a webservice page now so I tried to grab it from a aspx.cs page and it hasn't worked. ///Aspx page: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "~/Alerts/GetAlerts", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { var data = eval("(" + msg.d + ")"); jQuery.each(data, function (rec) { AlertList[AlertList.length] = new objAlert(this.id, this.title, this.details, JSONDateSerializationFix(this.startdate), JSONDateSerializationFix(this.enddate)); UpdateDisplayList(); }) }, error: function (msg) { alert("BRAD" + msg); } The issue is that the Alerts page in "URL /Alerts/GetAlerts" is Alerts.aspx.cs. I can't figure out if I can use this ajax command to call a method in a aspx.cs page. //Code behind page aspx.cs [WebMethod] //[ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public string GetAlerts() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return new JavaScriptSerializer().Serialize(list); } public List GetAlertsList() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return list; ; } So I was hoping that I could load data into an asp control (dataList) and then grab the data //code behind page protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { dataListAlertList.DataSource = GetAlertsList(); dataListAlertList.DataBind(); } public static List<AlertInfo> GetTestAlerts() { List<AlertInfo> list = new List<AlertInfo>(); list.Add(new AlertInfo("0", "Alert 1 Title", "Alert 1 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); list.Add(new AlertInfo("1", "Alert 2 Title", "Alert 2 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); return list; } //.aspx page $(document).ready(function () { var a1 = $("#dataListAlertList").val(); // do fun stuff now. } But I keep getting undefined....

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  • Redirecting one file to another using dub2 and strtok

    - by Sergiy Zakharov
    OK, here goes. I have to write a program, in which I need to use strtok and dup2 to redirect one file to another, but I need to also have the user to actually put the command cat < file1 file2, but not from the shell, but instead by using my program. That's why I need strtok. And the reason my program doesn't work is probably because of that, because I don't really understand how strtok works. I found a similar program on the internet, but they just take the ls command and redirect it to the file. That's it. My program is much more complicated. I mean, it would've been easier just to say in shell cat < file1 file2, but for some reason they want us to do it this way. So, anyways, here is what I have so far (here I just combined what I have found on the internet with what I already had from before. We had to do something similar but then the user would just go ls or ls -l. Very simple stuff. This is much harder, for me, at least.) #include <fcntl.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <errno.h> #include <sys/wait.h> #include <string.h> int main() { pid_t pid; char line[256]; char *args[129]; int i; int fd; int status; char *temp; while (1) { printf(">"); if (fgets(line, 256, stdin) == 0) { exit(0); } else { pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { i = 0; temp = strtok("<",line); while (temp != NULL) { args[i++] = temp; temp = strtok(">",line); args[i] = '\0'; } fd = open("hello", O_RDONLY); dup2(fd, STDIN_FILENO); fd = open("world", O_WRONLY|O_CREAT|O_TRUNC, S_IRWXU); dup2(fd, STDOUT_FILENO ); close(fd); execvp(args[0], args); } else { close(fd); wait(&status); } } } } Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Spring MVC, REST, and HATEOAS

    - by SingleShot
    I'm struggling with the correct way to implement Spring MVC 3.x RESTful services with HATEOAS. Consider the following constraints: I don't want my domain entities polluted with web/rest constructs. I don't want my controllers polluted with view constructs. I want to support multiple views. Currently I have a nicely put together MVC app without HATEOAS. Domain entities are pure POJOs without any view or web/rest concepts embedded. For example: class User { public String getName() {...} public String setName(String name) {...} ... } My controllers are also simple. They provide routing and status, and delegate to Spring's view resolution framework. Note my application supports JSON, XML, and HTML, yet no domain entities or controllers have embedded view information: @Controller @RequestMapping("/users") class UserController { @RequestMapping public ModelAndView getAllUsers() { List<User> users = userRepository.findAll(); return new ModelAndView("users/index", "users", users); } @RequestMapping("/{id}") public ModelAndView getUser(@PathVariable Long id) { User user = userRepository.findById(id); return new ModelAndView("users/show", "user", user); } } So, now my issue - I'm not sure of a clean way to support HATEOAS. Here's an example. Let's say when the client asks for a User in JSON format, it comes out like this: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" } Let's also say that when I support HATEOAS, I want the JSON to contain a simple "self" link that the client can then use to refresh the object, delete it, or something else. It might also have a "friends" link indicating how to get the user's list of friends: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith", links: [ { rel: "self", ref: "http://myserver/users/1" }, { rel: "friends", ref: "http://myserver/users/1/friends" } ] } Somehow I want to attach links to my object. I feel the right place to do this is in the controller layer as the controllers all know the correct URLs. Additionally, since I support multiple views, I feel like the right thing to do is somehow decorate my domain entities in the controller before they are converted to JSON/XML/whatever in Spring's view resolution framework. One way to do this might be to wrap the POJO in question with a generic Resource class that contains a list of links. Some view tweaking would be required to crunch it into the format I want, but its doable. Unfortunately nested resources could not be wrapped in this way. Other things that come to mind include adding links to the ModelAndView, and then customizing each of Spring's out-of-the-box view resolvers to stuff links into the generated JSON/XML/etc. What I don't want is to be constantly hand-crafting JSON/XML/etc. to accommodate various links as they come and go during the course of development. Thoughts?

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  • How do you unit test the real world?

    - by Kim Sun-wu
    I'm primarily a C++ coder, and thus far, have managed without really writing tests for all of my code. I've decided this is a Bad Idea(tm), after adding new features that subtly broke old features, or, depending on how you wish to look at it, introduced some new "features" of their own. But, unit testing seems to be an extremely brittle mechanism. You can test for something in "perfect" conditions, but you don't get to see how your code performs when stuff breaks. A for instance is a crawler, let's say it crawls a few specific sites, for data X. Do you simply save sample pages, test against those, and hope that the sites never change? This would work fine as regression tests, but, what sort of tests would you write to constantly check those sites live and let you know when the application isn't doing it's job because the site changed something, that now causes your application to crash? Wouldn't you want your test suite to monitor the intent of the code? The above example is a bit contrived, and something I haven't run into (in case you haven't guessed). Let me pick something I have, though. How do you test an application will do its job in the face of a degraded network stack? That is, say you have a moderate amount of packet loss, for one reason or the other, and you have a function DoSomethingOverTheNetwork() which is supposed to degrade gracefully when the stack isn't performing as it's supposed to; but does it? The developer tests it personally by purposely setting up a gateway that drops packets to simulate a bad network when he first writes it. A few months later, someone checks in some code that modifies something subtly, so the degradation isn't detected in time, or, the application doesn't even recognize the degradation, this is never caught, because you can't run real world tests like this using unit tests, can you? Further, how about file corruption? Let's say you're storing a list of servers in a file, and the checksum looks okay, but the data isn't really. You want the code to handle that, you write some code that you think does that. How do you test that it does exactly that for the life of the application? Can you? Hence, brittleness. Unit tests seem to test the code only in perfect conditions(and this is promoted, with mock objects and such), not what they'll face in the wild. Don't get me wrong, I think unit tests are great, but a test suite composed only of them seems to be a smart way to introduce subtle bugs in your code while feeling overconfident about it's reliability. How do I address the above situations? If unit tests aren't the answer, what is? Thanks!

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  • X264 encoding using Opencv

    - by user573193
    I am working with a high resolution camera: 4008x2672. I a writing a simple program which grabs frame from the camera and sends the frame to a avi file. For working with such a high resolution, I found only x264 codec that could do the trick (Suggestions welcome). I am using opencv for most of the image handling stuff. As mentioned in this post http://doom10.org/index.php?topic=1019.0 , I modified the AVCodecContext members as per ffmpeg presets for libx264 (Had to do this to avoid broken ffmpeg defaults settings error). This is output I am getting when I try to run the program [libx264 @ 0x992d040]non-strictly-monotonic PTS 1294846981.526675 1 0 //Timestamp camera_no frame_no 1294846981.621101 1 1 1294846981.715521 1 2 1294846981.809939 1 3 1294846981.904360 1 4 1294846981.998782 1 5 1294846982.093203 1 6 Last message repeated 7 times [avi @ 0x992beb0]st:0 error, non monotone timestamps -614891469123651720 = -614891469123651720 OpenCV Error: Unspecified error (Error while writing video frame) in icv_av_write_frame_FFMPEG, file /home/ajoshi/ext/OpenCV-2.2.0/modules/highgui/src/cap_ffmpeg.cpp, line 1034 terminate called after throwing an instance of 'cv::Exception' what(): /home/ajoshi/ext/OpenCV-2.2.0/modules/highgui/src/cap_ffmpeg.cpp:1034: error: (-2) Error while writing video frame in function icv_av_write_frame_FFMPEG Aborted Modifications to the AVCodecContext are: if(codec_id == CODEC_ID_H264) { //fprintf(stderr, "Trying to parse a preset file for libx264\n"); //Setting Values manually from medium preset c-me_method = 7; c-qcompress=0.6; c-qmin = 10; c-qmax = 51; c-max_qdiff = 4; c-i_quant_factor=0.71; c-max_b_frames=3; c-b_frame_strategy = 1; c-me_range = 16; c-me_subpel_quality=7; c-coder_type = 1; c-scenechange_threshold=40; c-partitions = X264_PART_I8X8 | X264_PART_I4X4 | X264_PART_P8X8 | X264_PART_B8X8; c-flags = CODEC_FLAG_LOOP_FILTER; c-flags2 = CODEC_FLAG2_BPYRAMID | CODEC_FLAG2_MIXED_REFS | CODEC_FLAG2_WPRED | CODEC_FLAG2_8X8DCT | CODEC_FLAG2_FASTPSKIP; c-keyint_min = 25; c-refs = 3; c-trellis=1; c-directpred = 1; c-weighted_p_pred=2; } I am probably not setting the dts and pts values which I believed ffmpeg should be setting it for me. Any sugggestions welcome. Thanks in advance

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  • How can I embed a conditional comment for IE with innerHTML?

    - by Samuel Charpentier
    Ok so I want to conditionally add this line of code; <!--[if ! IE]> <embed src="logo.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> <![endif]--> Using: document.getElementById("logo") .innerHTML='...'; In a if()/else() statement and it don't write it! If i get rid of the selective comment ( <!--[if ! IE]><![endif]-->) and only put the SVG ( <embed src="logo.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> ) it work! what should I do? I found a way around but i think in the Android browser the thing will pop up twice. here's what I've done ( and its Validated stuff!); <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <META CHARSET="UTF-8"> <title>SVG Test</title> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ onload=function() { var ua = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); var isAndroid = ua.indexOf("android") > -1; //&& ua.indexOf("mobile"); if(isAndroid) { document.getElementById("logo").innerHTML='<img src="fin_palais.png"/>'; } } //]]> </script> </head> <body> <div id="logo"> <!--[if lt IE 9]> <img src="fin_palais.png"/> <![endif]--> <!--[if gte IE 9]><!--> <embed src="fin_palais.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> <!--<![endif]--> </div> </body>

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