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  • Debugging a basic OpenGL texture fail? (iphone)

    - by Ben
    Hey all, I have a very basic texture map problem in GL on iPhone, and I'm wondering what strategies there are for debugging this kind of thing. (Frankly, just staring at state machine calls and wondering if any of them is wrong or misordered is no way to live-- are there tools for this?) I have a 512x512 PNG file that I'm loading up from disk (not specially packed), creating a CGBitmapContext, then calling CGContextDrawImage to get bytes out of it. (This code is essentially stolen from an Apple sample.) I'm trying to map the texture to a "quad", with code that looks essentially like this-- all flat 2D stuff, nothing fancy: glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_MODULATE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); GLfloat vertices[8] = { viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.size.height, viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.size.height }; GLfloat texCoords[8] = { 0, 1.0, 0, 0, 1.0, 0, 1.0, 1.0 }; glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, myTextureRef); // This was previously bound to glVertexPointer(2, GL_FLOAT , 0, vertices); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, texCoords); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_FAN, 0, 4); glDisableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); My supposedly textured area comes out just black. I see no debug output from the CG calls to set up the texture. glGetError reports nothing. If I simplify this code block to just draw the verts, but set up a pure color, the quad area lights up exactly as expected. If I clear the whole context immediately beforehand to red, I don't see the red-- which means something is being rendered there, but not the contents of my PNG. What could I be doing wrong? And more importantly, what are the right tools and techniques for debugging this sort of thing, because running into this kind of problem and not being able to "step through it" in a debugger in any meaningful way is a bummer. Thanks!

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  • X264 encoding using Opencv

    - by user573193
    I am working with a high resolution camera: 4008x2672. I a writing a simple program which grabs frame from the camera and sends the frame to a avi file. For working with such a high resolution, I found only x264 codec that could do the trick (Suggestions welcome). I am using opencv for most of the image handling stuff. As mentioned in this post http://doom10.org/index.php?topic=1019.0 , I modified the AVCodecContext members as per ffmpeg presets for libx264 (Had to do this to avoid broken ffmpeg defaults settings error). This is output I am getting when I try to run the program [libx264 @ 0x992d040]non-strictly-monotonic PTS 1294846981.526675 1 0 //Timestamp camera_no frame_no 1294846981.621101 1 1 1294846981.715521 1 2 1294846981.809939 1 3 1294846981.904360 1 4 1294846981.998782 1 5 1294846982.093203 1 6 Last message repeated 7 times [avi @ 0x992beb0]st:0 error, non monotone timestamps -614891469123651720 = -614891469123651720 OpenCV Error: Unspecified error (Error while writing video frame) in icv_av_write_frame_FFMPEG, file /home/ajoshi/ext/OpenCV-2.2.0/modules/highgui/src/cap_ffmpeg.cpp, line 1034 terminate called after throwing an instance of 'cv::Exception' what(): /home/ajoshi/ext/OpenCV-2.2.0/modules/highgui/src/cap_ffmpeg.cpp:1034: error: (-2) Error while writing video frame in function icv_av_write_frame_FFMPEG Aborted Modifications to the AVCodecContext are: if(codec_id == CODEC_ID_H264) { //fprintf(stderr, "Trying to parse a preset file for libx264\n"); //Setting Values manually from medium preset c-me_method = 7; c-qcompress=0.6; c-qmin = 10; c-qmax = 51; c-max_qdiff = 4; c-i_quant_factor=0.71; c-max_b_frames=3; c-b_frame_strategy = 1; c-me_range = 16; c-me_subpel_quality=7; c-coder_type = 1; c-scenechange_threshold=40; c-partitions = X264_PART_I8X8 | X264_PART_I4X4 | X264_PART_P8X8 | X264_PART_B8X8; c-flags = CODEC_FLAG_LOOP_FILTER; c-flags2 = CODEC_FLAG2_BPYRAMID | CODEC_FLAG2_MIXED_REFS | CODEC_FLAG2_WPRED | CODEC_FLAG2_8X8DCT | CODEC_FLAG2_FASTPSKIP; c-keyint_min = 25; c-refs = 3; c-trellis=1; c-directpred = 1; c-weighted_p_pred=2; } I am probably not setting the dts and pts values which I believed ffmpeg should be setting it for me. Any sugggestions welcome. Thanks in advance

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  • div "top" bug IE and everything else. Big problem

    - by Victor
    Hi everyone. I am new in CSS so please help me in this problem. I hope to describe it wright. I am making div named content where my site content is. I made it with z-index:-1; so an image to be over this div. But in Chrome, FF and safari, content became inactive. I cant select text , click on link and write in the forms. So I tried with positive states in the z-index but IE don't know what this means. Damn. So I decided to make conditional div. Here is the code: .content { background:#FFF; width:990px; position:relative; float:left; top:50px; } .content_IE { background:#FFF; width:990px; position:relative; float:left; top: 50px; z-index:-1; } and here is the HTML: <!--[if IE 7]> <div class="content_IE" style="height:750px;"> <![endif]--> <div class="content" style="height:550px;"> Everything is fine with the z-index but the problem is that if there is no top in .content class everything looks fine in IE but there is no space in the other browsers. If i put back the top:50px; there onother 50px like padding in the .content_IE class. I mean that the page looks like I've put top:50px; and padding-top=50px;. I've try everything like margin-top:-50px; padding-top:-50px; and stuff like this but I am still in the circle. It look fine only if there is no top option in .content class. Please help.

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  • AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

    - by Joern
    Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

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  • Delphi Unit local variables - how to make each instance unique?

    - by Justin
    Ok, this, I'm sure is something simple that is easy to do. The problem : I've inherited scary spaghetti code and am slowly trying to better it when new features need adding - generally when a refactor makes adding the new feature neater. I've got a bunch of code I'm packing into a single unit which, in different places in the application, controls the same physical thing in the outside world. The control appears in several places in the application and operates slightly differently in each instance. What I've done is to create a unit with all of the features I need which I can simply drop, as a frame, into each form that requires it. Each form then uses the unit's interface methods to customise the behaviour for each instance. The problem within the problem : In the unit in question (the frame) I have a variable declared in the IMPLEMENTATION section - local to the unit. I also have a procedure, declared in the TYPE section which takes an argument and assigns that argument to the local variable in question - each form passes a unique variable to each instance of the frame/unit. What I want it to do is for each instance of the frame to keep its own version of that variable, different from the others, and use that to define how it operates. What seems to be happening, however, is that all instances are using the same value, even if I explicitly pass each instance a different variable. ie: Unit FlexibleUnit; interface uses //the uses stuff type TFlexibleUnit=class(TFrame) //declarations including procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); private // public // end; implementation uses //the uses var myLocalVar; procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); begin myLocalVar:=passMeTheVar; end; //other procedures using myLocalVar //etc to the end; Now somewhere in another Form I've dropped this Frame onto the Design pane, sometimes two of these frames on one Form, and have it declared in the proper places, etc. Each is unique in that : ThisFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; ThatFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; and when I do a: ThisFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var1); //want to behave in way "var1" ThatFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var2); //want to behave in way "var2" it seems that they both share the same variable "myLocalVar". Am I doing this wrong, in principle? If this is the correct method then it's a matter of debugging what I have (which is too huge to post) but if this is not correct in principle then is there a way to do what I am suggesting? Thanks in advance, Stack Overflow - you guys (and gals!) are legendary.

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  • zlib gzgets extremely slow?

    - by monkeyking
    I'm doing stuff related to parsing huge globs of textfiles, and was testing what input method to use. There is not much of a difference using c++ std::ifstreams vs c FILE, According to the documentation of zlib, it supports uncompressed files, and will read the file without decompression. I'm seeing a difference from 12 seconds using non zlib to more than 4 minutes using zlib.h This I've tested doing multiple runs, so its not a disk cache issue. Am I using zlib in some wrong way? thanks #include <zlib.h> #include <cstdio> #include <cstdlib> #include <fstream> #define LENS 1000000 size_t fg(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using fgets\n"); FILE *fp =fopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(NULL!=fgets(buffer,LENS,fp)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t is(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using ifstream\n"); std::ifstream is(fname,std::ios::in); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(is. getline(buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t iz(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using zlib\n"); gzFile fp =gzopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(0!=gzgets(fp,buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } int main(int argc,char**argv){ if(atoi(argv[2])==0) fg(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==1) is(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==2) iz(argv[1]); }

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  • jQuery UI dialog + WebKit + HTML response with script

    - by Anthony Koval'
    Once again I am faced with a great problem! :) So, here is the stuff: on the client side, I have a link. By clicking on it, jQuery makes a request to the server, gets response as HTML content, then popups UI dialog with that content. Here is the code of the request-function: function preview(){ $.ajax({ url: "/api/builder/", type: "post", //dataType: "html", data: {"script_tpl": $("#widget_code").text(), "widgets": $.toJSON(mwidgets), "widx": "0"}, success: function(data){ //console.log(data) $("#previewArea").dialog({ bgiframe: true, autoOpen: false, height: 600, width: 600, modal: true, buttons: { "Cancel": function() { $(this).dialog('destroy'); } } }); //console.log(data.toString()); $('#previewArea').attr("innerHTML", data.toString()); $("#previewArea").dialog("open"); }, error: function(){ console.log("shit happens"); } }) } The response (data) is: <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <script type="text/javascript">var smakly_widget_sid = 0 ,widgets = [{"cols": "2","rows": "2","div_id": "smakly_widget","wid": "0","smakly_style": "small_image",}, ] </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/media/js/smak/smakme.js"></script> </head> <body> preview <div id="smakly_widget" style="width:560px;height:550px"> </div> </body> </html> As you see, there is a script to load: smakme.js, somehow it doesn't execute in WebKit-based browsers (I tried in Safari and Chrome), but in Firefox, Internet Explorer and Opera it works as expected! Here is that script: String.prototype.format = function(){ var pattern = /\{\d+\}/g; var args = arguments; return this.replace(pattern, function(capture){ return args[capture.match(/\d+/)]; }); } var turl = "/widget" var widgetCtrl = new(function(){ this.render_widget = function (w, content){ $("#" + w.div_id).append(content); } this.build_widgets = function(){ for (var widx in widgets){ var w = widgets[widx], iurl = '{0}?sid={1}&wid={2}&w={3}&h={4}&referer=http://ya.ru&thrash={5}'.format( turl, smakly_widget_sid, w.wid, w.cols, w.rows, Math.floor(Math.random()*1000).toString()), content = $('<iframe src="{0}" width="100%" height="100%"></iframe>'.format(iurl)); this.render_widget(w, content); } } }) $(document).ready(function(){ widgetCtrl.build_widgets(); }) Is that some security issue, or anything else?

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  • How can I progrommatically change the target framework from 4.0 to 3.5 of a project/solution?

    - by scott
    Edit 3: After more googling it looks like you can't have the TargetFrameworkMoniker property in a .NET 3.5 application. So I guess I should be asking a different question. How do I change the Target framework from 4.0 to 3.5? Unfortunately, I can only find stuff on how to go the other way. or better yet how do i progrommatically set the target framework version of a project to something other than 4.0? Original question: I just switched to vs2010. I have an application that uses .net 3.5. It loads plugins which are generated by a different app. The plugins are using .net 4 and there for cannot be loaded. I'm using EnvDTE.Project to create a project and set the settings. I can't find what setting needs to be set for this. Edit 1: I'm generating code for about 50 solutions. When I made the switch from vs2005 to vs2010 the projects in those solutions are defaulting to .NET Framework 4.0. So I need to set the .NET Framework to 3.5 when I am generating the code for these solutions. Edit 2: After a lot of googling I found this. so then I tried this: loProp = vsGetProperty("TargetFrameworkMoniker"); vsSetValue(loProp, ".NETFramework,Version=v3.5"); the definitions for those two methods are below. as far as I can tell they do the same this as project.Properties.Item("TargetFrameworkMoniker").Value = ".NETFramework,Version=v4.0,Profile=Client"; I start getting an Property Unavailable Exception later in the code. When I remove the new lines everything works except the projects target framework is still 4.0. The code generators target framework is 3.5 so I can't use the FrameworkName class like shown in the second example in that link. here is vsGetProperty protected Property vsGetProperty(string aProperty) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; Property loProp; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { loProp = pProject.Properties.Item(aProperty); lbDone = true; return loProp; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } return null; } and vsSetValue protected void vsSetValue(Property aProperty, string aValue) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { aProperty.Value = aValue; lbDone = true; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } }

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  • How do you unit test the real world?

    - by Kim Sun-wu
    I'm primarily a C++ coder, and thus far, have managed without really writing tests for all of my code. I've decided this is a Bad Idea(tm), after adding new features that subtly broke old features, or, depending on how you wish to look at it, introduced some new "features" of their own. But, unit testing seems to be an extremely brittle mechanism. You can test for something in "perfect" conditions, but you don't get to see how your code performs when stuff breaks. A for instance is a crawler, let's say it crawls a few specific sites, for data X. Do you simply save sample pages, test against those, and hope that the sites never change? This would work fine as regression tests, but, what sort of tests would you write to constantly check those sites live and let you know when the application isn't doing it's job because the site changed something, that now causes your application to crash? Wouldn't you want your test suite to monitor the intent of the code? The above example is a bit contrived, and something I haven't run into (in case you haven't guessed). Let me pick something I have, though. How do you test an application will do its job in the face of a degraded network stack? That is, say you have a moderate amount of packet loss, for one reason or the other, and you have a function DoSomethingOverTheNetwork() which is supposed to degrade gracefully when the stack isn't performing as it's supposed to; but does it? The developer tests it personally by purposely setting up a gateway that drops packets to simulate a bad network when he first writes it. A few months later, someone checks in some code that modifies something subtly, so the degradation isn't detected in time, or, the application doesn't even recognize the degradation, this is never caught, because you can't run real world tests like this using unit tests, can you? Further, how about file corruption? Let's say you're storing a list of servers in a file, and the checksum looks okay, but the data isn't really. You want the code to handle that, you write some code that you think does that. How do you test that it does exactly that for the life of the application? Can you? Hence, brittleness. Unit tests seem to test the code only in perfect conditions(and this is promoted, with mock objects and such), not what they'll face in the wild. Don't get me wrong, I think unit tests are great, but a test suite composed only of them seems to be a smart way to introduce subtle bugs in your code while feeling overconfident about it's reliability. How do I address the above situations? If unit tests aren't the answer, what is? Thanks!

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  • git: setting a single tracking remote from a public repo.

    - by Gauthier
    I am confused with remote branches. My local repo: (local) ---A---B---C-master My remote repo (called int): (int) ---A---B---C---D---E-master What I want to do is to setup the local repo's master branch to follow that of int. Local repo: (local) ---A---B---C---D---E-master-remotes/int/master So that when int changes to: (int) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master I can run git pull from the local repo's master and get (local) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master-remotes/int/master Here's what I have tried: git fetch int gets me all the branches of int into remote branches. This can get messy since int might have hundreds of branches. git fetch int master gets me the commits, but no ref to it, only FETCH_HEAD. No remote branch either. git fetch int master:new_master works but I don't want a new name every time I update, and no remote branch is setup. git pull int master does what I want, but there is still no remote branch setup. I feel that it is ok to do so (that's the best I have now), but I read here and there that with the remote setup it is enough with git pull. git branch --track new_master int/master, as per http://www.gitready.com/beginner/2009/03/09/remote-tracking-branches.html . I get "not a valid object name: int/master". git remote -v does show me that int is defined and points at the correct location (1. worked). What I miss is the int/master branch, which is precisely what I want to get. git fetch in master:int/master. Well, int/master is created, but is no remote. So to summarize, I've tried some stuff with no luck. I would expect 2 to give me the remote branch to master in the repo int. The solution I use now is option 3. I read somewhere that you could change some config file by hand, but isn't that a bit cumbersome? The "cumbersome" way of editting the config file did work: [branch "master"] remote = int merge = master It can be done from command line: $ git config branch.master.remote int $ git config branch.master.merge master Any reason why option 2 above wouldn't do that automatically? Even in that case, git pull fetches all branches from the remote.

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  • Wordpress installed in root folder, subdomain now not working, GoDaddy host

    - by Kristin
    Hi, please forgive me for being a complete beginner at this, I'd rather not have to try to deal with this myself but as GoDaddy support have not replied after 2 days I'm going to have to. I think my problem is the same as the one above, but I'm not 100% sure, so I'm reposting it, I'm not really confident enough to attempt to try the fixes I've seen here so I need someone to give me baby instructions? Our original website (www.mwpics.com.au) was built in Dreamweaver etc, recently we created a new website in Wordpress, in a subdomain, then migrated it over to the root folder where it is now operating fine. I also moved the files for the old website into another directory which I called 'old', so they're all still there. The problem is that I have a subdomain set up - which is still showing as set up in the control panel on godaddy the url is www.mwpics.com.au/clients and it is at www.clients.mwpics.com.au. This directory contains loads of other directories, each of which is password protected by .htaccess files and which our clients access directly (not through the site) to download their finished work. The test one and the one for random clients is www.mwpics.com.au/clients/temp - username and password both temp (the usernames are all the same as the directory names). Since the WP install to the root directory the /clients extension no longer works (it should bring up an information page which is an .html index page in the directory) and the /clients/name extensions no longer works - it goes back to the wp site with a 'not found' error message. Strangely it does bring up the box for the username and password, but when you enter it it just goes back to the 'not found' message. Someone told me it was the .htaccess file - so as an experiment, I renamed the .htaccess file in the root directory and then copied the .htaccess file from the old root files into the root directory, eureka! It worked - and also the WP site opened to the home page... but bummer - the /pages in the WP site now no longer worked! But at least I know the source of the problem. So I switched it back and this is the status quo - I have no idea how to fix this, and with everyone back at work tomorrow, clients are going to want to start downloading their stuff... Can anyone help me? I'm starting to panic a bit

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  • Primary language - C++/Qt, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • devise register confirmation

    - by mattherick
    hello! i have a user and an admin role in my project. i created my authentification with devise, really nice and goot tool for handling the authentification. in my admin role i don´t have any confirmation or something like that. it is really simple and doesn´t make problems. but in my user model i have following things: model: devise :database_authenticatable, :confirmable, :recoverable, :rememberable, :trackable, :validatable, :timeoutable, :registerable # Setup accessible (or protected) attributes for your model attr_accessible :email, :username, :prename, :surname, :phone, :street, :number, :location, :password, :password_confirmation and few validations, but they aren´t relevant this time. my migration looks like following one: class DeviseCreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table(:users) do |t| t.database_authenticatable :null = false t.confirmable t.recoverable t.rememberable t.trackable t.timeoutable t.validateable t.string :username t.string :prename t.string :surname t.string :phone t.string :street t.integer :number t.string :location t.timestamps end add_index :users, :email, :unique => true add_index :users, :confirmation_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :reset_password_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :username, :unique => true add_index :users, :prename, :unique => false add_index :users, :surname, :unique => false add_index :users, :phone, :unique => false add_index :users, :street, :unique => false add_index :users, :number, :unique => false add_index :users, :location, :unique => false end def self.down drop_table :users end end into my route.rb I added following statements: map.devise_for :admins map.devise_for :users, :path_names = { :sign_up = "register", :sign_in = "login" } map.root :controller = "main" and now my problem.. if I register a new user, I fill in all my data in the register form and submit it. After that I get redirected to the controller main with the flash-notice "You have signed up successfully." And I am logged in. But I don´t want to be logged in, because I don´t have confirmed my new user account yet. If I open the console I see the last things in the logs and there I see the confirmation-mail and the text and all stuff, but I am already logged in... I can´t explain why, ... does somebody of you have an idea? If I copy out the confirmation-token from the logs and confirm my account, I can log in, but if I don´t confirm, I also can log in..

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  • ASP.Net MVC + Live validation - how come the flagged text are all over the place?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, this is an asp.net mvc project and <% using (Html.BeginForm("ProductAdded", "Home")) { % Register Your Product <%= ViewData["MainHeader"]% <p><%=ViewData["IntroText"]%></p> <div style="display: none;"> <div id="regionThreePane"> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" frame="void" style="width: 100%"> <tr> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox1" id="ProdLBox1" class="ProdLBox1" size="8"></select></td> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox2" id="ProdLBox2" class="ProdLBox2" size="8"></select></td> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox3" id="ProdLBox3" class="ProdLBox3" size="8"></select></td> </tr> </table> </div> i'm using live validation for my client side validation. var v_fname = new LiveValidation('Customer_FirstName', { validMessage: " " }, { onlyOnSubmit: true }); v_fname.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enterfirstname}); var v_lname = new LiveValidation('Customer_LastName', { validMessage: " " }); v_lname.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enterlastname }); var v_email = new LiveValidation('Customer_Email', { validMessage: " " }); v_email.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enteremail, validMessage: " " }); v_email.add(Validate.Email, { failureMessage: entervalidemail}); and what i notice is that after doing some button call: $(".btnAddProduct").click(function() { //Check first to see if there's anything to be added if (parseFloat($(".tboAddProduct").val()) < 1) { //TO DO: to replace with localized text var selectProductError = "Please select a product first"; $("#validationSummary").text(selectProductError); //alert("Please select a product first"); return false; } $(".PanelProductReg").show(); addProductRow($(".tboAddProductId").val(), $("#tboAddProduct").val()); }); what will happen is that the validation tags will start to appear for the whole page for all the input which are tag for the live validation. instead of just appearing when the controls are being higlighted and onblur. i'm using some ajax calls to get data and a lot of jquery to dynamically do the gui stuff. could any of this be causing some sort of an internal conflict? thanks

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  • Issues querying Access '07 database in C#

    - by Kye
    I'm doing a .NET unit as part of my studies. I've only just started, with a lecturer that as kinda failed to give me the most solid foundation with .NET, so excuse the noobishness. I'm making a pretty simple and generic database-driven application. I'm using C# and I'm accessing a Microsoft Access 2007 database. I've put the database-ish stuff in its own class with the methods just spitting out OleDbDataAdapters that I use for committing. I feed any methods which preform a query a DataSet object from the main program, which is where I'm keeping the data (multiple tables in the db). I've made a very generic private method that I use to perform SQL SELECT queries and have some public methods wrapping that method to get products, orders.etc (it's a generic retail database). The generic method uses a separate Connect method to actually make the connection, and it is as follows: private static OleDbConnection Connect() { OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0; Data Source=C:\Temp\db.accdb"); return conn; } The generic method is as follows: private static OleDbDataAdapter GenericSelectQuery( DataSet ds, string namedTable, String selectString) { OleDbCommand oleCommand = new OleDbCommand(); OleDbConnection conn = Connect(); oleCommand.CommandText = selectString; oleCommand.Connection = conn; oleCommand.CommandType = CommandType.Text; OleDbDataAdapter adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = oleCommand; adapter.MissingSchemaAction = MissingSchemaAction.AddWithKey; adapter.Fill(ds, namedTable); return adapter; } The wrapper methods just pass along the DataSet that they received from the main program, the namedtable string is the name of the table in the dataset, and you pass in the query you wish to make. It doesn't matter which query I give it (even something simple like SELECT * FROM TableName) I still get thrown an OleDbException, stating that there was en error with the FROM clause of the query. I've just resorted to building the queries with Access, but there's still no use. Obviously there's something wrong with my code, which wouldn't actually surprise me. Here are some wrapper methods I'm using. public static OleDbDataAdapter GetOrderLines(DataSet ds) { OleDbDataAdapter adapter = GenericSelectQuery( ds, "orderlines", "SELECT OrderLine.* FROM OrderLine;"); return adapter; } They all look the same, it's just the SQL that changes.

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  • Java loading user-specified classes at runtime

    - by user349043
    I'm working on robot simulation in Java (a Swing application). I have an abstract class "Robot" from which different types of Robots are derived, e.g. public class StupidRobot extends Robot { int m_stupidness; int m_insanityLevel; ... } public class AngryRobot extends Robot { float m_aggression; ... } As you can see, each Robot subclass has a different set of parameters. What I would like to do is control the simulation setup in the initial UI. Choose the number and type of Robots, give it a name, fill in the parameters etc. This is one of those times where being such a dinosaur programmer, and new to Java, I wonder if there is some higher level stuff/thinking that could help me here. So here is what I've got: (1) User Interface Scrolling list of Robot types on the left. "Add " and "<< Remove" buttons in the middle. Default-named scrolling list of Robots on the right. "Set Parameters" button underneath. (So if you wanted an AngryRobot, you'd select AngryRobot on the left list, click "Add" and "AngryRobot1" would show up on the right.) When selecting a Robot on the right, click "Set Parameters..." button which would call yet another model dialog where you'd fill in the parameters. Different dialog called for each Robot type. (2) Data structures an implementation As an end-product I think a HashMap would be most convenient. The keys would be Robot types and the accompanying object would be all of the parameters. The initializer could just retrieve each item one and a time and instantiate. Here's what the data structures would look like: enum ROBOT_TYPE {STUPID, ANGRY, etc} public class RobotInitializer { public ROBOT_TYPE m_type; public string m_name; public int[] m_int_params; public float[] m_float_params; etc. The initializer's constructor would create the appropriate length parameter arrays based on the type: public RobotInitializer(ROBOT_TYPE type, int[] int_array, float[] float_array, etc){ switch (type){ case STUPID: m_int_params = new int[STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH]; System.arraycopy(int_array,0,m_int_params,0,STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH); etc. Once all the RobotInitializers are instantiated, they are added to the HashMap. Iterating through the HashMap, the simulation initializer takes items from the Hashmap and instantiates the appropriate Robots. Is this reasonable? If not, how can it be improved? Thanks

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  • Spring MVC, REST, and HATEOAS

    - by SingleShot
    I'm struggling with the correct way to implement Spring MVC 3.x RESTful services with HATEOAS. Consider the following constraints: I don't want my domain entities polluted with web/rest constructs. I don't want my controllers polluted with view constructs. I want to support multiple views. Currently I have a nicely put together MVC app without HATEOAS. Domain entities are pure POJOs without any view or web/rest concepts embedded. For example: class User { public String getName() {...} public String setName(String name) {...} ... } My controllers are also simple. They provide routing and status, and delegate to Spring's view resolution framework. Note my application supports JSON, XML, and HTML, yet no domain entities or controllers have embedded view information: @Controller @RequestMapping("/users") class UserController { @RequestMapping public ModelAndView getAllUsers() { List<User> users = userRepository.findAll(); return new ModelAndView("users/index", "users", users); } @RequestMapping("/{id}") public ModelAndView getUser(@PathVariable Long id) { User user = userRepository.findById(id); return new ModelAndView("users/show", "user", user); } } So, now my issue - I'm not sure of a clean way to support HATEOAS. Here's an example. Let's say when the client asks for a User in JSON format, it comes out like this: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" } Let's also say that when I support HATEOAS, I want the JSON to contain a simple "self" link that the client can then use to refresh the object, delete it, or something else. It might also have a "friends" link indicating how to get the user's list of friends: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith", links: [ { rel: "self", ref: "http://myserver/users/1" }, { rel: "friends", ref: "http://myserver/users/1/friends" } ] } Somehow I want to attach links to my object. I feel the right place to do this is in the controller layer as the controllers all know the correct URLs. Additionally, since I support multiple views, I feel like the right thing to do is somehow decorate my domain entities in the controller before they are converted to JSON/XML/whatever in Spring's view resolution framework. One way to do this might be to wrap the POJO in question with a generic Resource class that contains a list of links. Some view tweaking would be required to crunch it into the format I want, but its doable. Unfortunately nested resources could not be wrapped in this way. Other things that come to mind include adding links to the ModelAndView, and then customizing each of Spring's out-of-the-box view resolvers to stuff links into the generated JSON/XML/etc. What I don't want is to be constantly hand-crafting JSON/XML/etc. to accommodate various links as they come and go during the course of development. Thoughts?

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  • App losing db connection

    - by DaveKub
    I'm having a weird issue with an old Delphi app losing it's database connection. Actually, I think it's losing something else that then makes the connection either drop or be unusable. The app is written in Delphi 6 and uses the Direct Oracle Access component (v4.0.7.1) to connect to an Oracle 9i database. The app runs as a service and periodically queries the db using a TOracleQuery object (qryAlarmList). The method that is called to do this looks like this: procedure TdmMain.RefreshAlarmList; begin try qryAlarmList.Execute; except on E: Exception do begin FStatus := ssError; EventLog.LogError(-1, 'TdmMain.RefreshAlarmList', 'Message: ' + E.Message); end; end; end; It had been running fine for years, until a couple of Perl scripts were added to this machine. These scripts run every 15 minutes and look for datafiles to import into the db, and then they do a some calculations and a bunch of reads/writes to/from the db. For some reason, when they are processing large amounts of data, and then the Delphi app tries to query the db, the Delphi app throws an exception at the "qryAlarmList.Execute" line in the above code listing. The exception is always: Access violation at address 00000000. read of address 00000000 HOW can something that the Perl scripts are doing cause this?? There are other Perl scripts on this machine that load data using the same modules and method calls and we didn't have problems. To make it even weirder, there are two other apps that will also suddenly lose their ability to talk to the database at the same time as the Perl stuff is running. Neither of those apps run on this machine, but both are Delphi 6 apps that use the same DOA component to connect to the same database. We have other apps that connect to the same db, written in Java or C# and they don't seem to have any problems. I've tried adding code before the '.Execute' method is called to: check the session's connection (session.CheckConnection(true); always comes back as 'ccOK'). see whether I can access a field of the qryAlarmList object to see if maybe it's become null; can access it fine. check the state of the qryAlarmList; always says it's qsIdle. Does anyone have any suggestions of something to try? This is driving me nuts! Dave

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  • Mac Safari randomly recreating cookie when I refresh my login screen. Very bizarre

    - by mcintyre321
    We have found an issue in our app where Safari on the Mac randomly recreates a login cookie from a logged off session. I have a fiddler archive with this behaviour here. Note that some stuff has been removed from this to make it easier to get, but nothing which sets a cookie or anything has been taken out - only repetitions of requests 3-8. I'll talk you through the running order Request 1: user logs out via call to /logout.aspx - Set-Cookie returned setting cookie expiry date to 1999 Requests 2-8: user refreshes login page sending calls to root or /res/en-US/s.js - no cookie is sent to server or received back, and access is denied. I have cut out a lot of requests of this nature from the log as they are boring Request 9: request for /res/en-US/s.js - Hv3 authentication cookie has mysteriously reappeared! Wat. There was NO set-cookie! WTFF! Request 10+ : now the cookie has reappeared, the site logs the user in AGAIN The cookie, when examined in Safari looks like <dict> <key>Created</key> <real>259603523.26834899</real> <key>Domain</key> <string>.mysite.dev</string> <key>Expires</key> <date>2010-03-24T16:05:22Z</date> <key>HttpOnly</key> <string>TRUE</string> <key>Name</key> <string>.Hv3</string> <key>Path</key> <string>/</string> </dict> One thing to note is that in Safari, the cookie domain is .mysite.dev not mysite.dev (which is the cookie domain specified in web.config) - however, given that access is denied in requests 2-8, it looks like the cookie has expired OK. If you look in the list of cookies in the browser during 2-8, the .Hv3 cookie is not there. Is this our bug or Safari's? What can I do to stop it happening?

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  • IPhone Development Profile Expired

    - by theiphoneguy
    I really combed this site and others. I read and re-read the related links here and the Apple docs. I'm sorry, but either I am obviously missing something right under my nose, or this Apple profile/certificate stuff is a bit convoluted. Here it is: I have a product in the App Store. I have updated it several times and users like it. My development profile recently expired just when I was improving the app for its next release. I can run the app in the simulator. I can compile and put the distribution build on my iPhone just fine. I went to the Apple portal and renewed the development profile. I downloaded it and installed it in Xcode. I see it in the Organize window. I see it on my iPhone. I CANNOT put the debug build on my iPhone to debug or run with Instruments. The message is that either there is not a valid signed profile or it is untrusted. I subsequently tried to download and install the certificate to my Mac's keychain. Still no success. I checked the code signing section of Project settings and also for the target and the root. All appears to indicate that it is using the expected development profile for debug. Yes, I had deleted the old profile from my iPhone, from the Organizer. I cleaned the Xcode cache and all targets. I have done all of this several times and in varying sequences to try to cover every possibility. I am ready to do anything to be able to debug with Instruments in order to check for leaks or high memory usage. Even though the distribution compile runs fine on my iPhone and plays well with other running processes, I will not release anything without a leaks/memory test. Any ideas will be appreciated. If I missed something obvious, please forgive me - it was not due to just posting a question without searching for similar postings. Thanks!

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  • Get data from aspx.cs page to aspx page.

    - by Brad8118
    So I am using a jquery plug in that allows me to change the order of things in a list by dragging and dropping them. So my goal is to be able to grab a list of my objects (AlertInfo) and using it in a javascript function. I was able to use a json webservice call in a test project to pass the data to the page. But we don't have a webservice page now so I tried to grab it from a aspx.cs page and it hasn't worked. ///Aspx page: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "~/Alerts/GetAlerts", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { var data = eval("(" + msg.d + ")"); jQuery.each(data, function (rec) { AlertList[AlertList.length] = new objAlert(this.id, this.title, this.details, JSONDateSerializationFix(this.startdate), JSONDateSerializationFix(this.enddate)); UpdateDisplayList(); }) }, error: function (msg) { alert("BRAD" + msg); } The issue is that the Alerts page in "URL /Alerts/GetAlerts" is Alerts.aspx.cs. I can't figure out if I can use this ajax command to call a method in a aspx.cs page. //Code behind page aspx.cs [WebMethod] //[ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public string GetAlerts() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return new JavaScriptSerializer().Serialize(list); } public List GetAlertsList() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return list; ; } So I was hoping that I could load data into an asp control (dataList) and then grab the data //code behind page protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { dataListAlertList.DataSource = GetAlertsList(); dataListAlertList.DataBind(); } public static List<AlertInfo> GetTestAlerts() { List<AlertInfo> list = new List<AlertInfo>(); list.Add(new AlertInfo("0", "Alert 1 Title", "Alert 1 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); list.Add(new AlertInfo("1", "Alert 2 Title", "Alert 2 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); return list; } //.aspx page $(document).ready(function () { var a1 = $("#dataListAlertList").val(); // do fun stuff now. } But I keep getting undefined....

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  • ajaxSubmit and Other Code. Can someone help me determine what this code is doing?

    - by Matt Dawdy
    I've inherited some code that I need to debug. It isn't working at present. My task is to get it to work. No other requirements have been given to me. No, this isn't homework, this is a maintenance nightmare job. ASP.Net (framework 3.5), C#, jQury 1.4.2. This project makes heavy use of jQuery and AJAX. There is a drop down on a page that, when an item is chosen, is supposed to add that item (it's a user) to an object in the database. To accomplish this, the previous programmer first, on page load, dynamically loads the entire page through AJAX. To do this, he's got 5 div's, and each one is loaded from a jquery call to a different full page in the website. Somehow, the HTML and BODY and all the other stuff is stripped out and the contents of the div are loaded with the content of the aspx page. Which seems incredibly wrong to me since it relies on the browser to magically strip out html, head, body, form tags and merge with the existing html head body form tags. Also, as the "content" page is returned as a string, the previous programmer has this code running on it before it is appended to the div: function CleanupResponseText(responseText, uniqueName) { responseText = responseText.replace("theForm.submit();", "SubmitSubForm(theForm, $(theForm).parent());"); responseText = responseText.replace(new RegExp("theForm", "g"), uniqueName); responseText = responseText.replace(new RegExp("doPostBack", "g"), "doPostBack" + uniqueName); return responseText; } When the dropdown itself fires it's onchange event, here is the code that gets fired: function SubmitSubForm(form, container) { //ShowLoading(container); $(form).ajaxSubmit( { url: $(form).attr("action"), success: function(responseText) { $(container).html(CleanupResponseText(responseText, form.id)); $("form", container).css("margin-top", "0").css("padding-top", "0"); //HideLoading(container); } } ); } This blows up in IE, with the message that "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" -- which, I think, has to be that $(form).ajaxSubmit method doesn't exist. What is this code really trying to do? I am so turned around right now that I think my only option is to scrap everything and start over. But I'd rather not do that unless necessary. Is this code good? Is it working against .Net, and is that why we are having issues?

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  • C#/.NET Project - Am I setting things up correctly?

    - by JustLooking
    1st solution located: \Common\Controls\Controls.sln and its project: \Common\Controls\Common.Controls\Common.Controls.csproj Description: This is a library that contains this class: public abstract class OurUserControl : UserControl { // Variables and other getters/setters common to our UserControls } 2nd solution located: \AControl\AControl.sln and its project: \AControl\AControl\AControl.csproj Description: Of the many forms/classes, it will contain this class: using Common.Controls; namespace AControl { public partial class AControl : OurUserControl { // The implementation } } A note about adding references (not sure if this is relevant): When I add references (for projects I create), using the names above: 1. I add Common.Controls.csproj to AControl.sln 2. In AControl.sln I turn off the build of Common.Controls.csproj 3. I add the reference to Common.Controls (by project) to AControl.csproj. This is the (easiest) way I know how to get Debug versions to match Debug References, and Release versions to match Release References. Now, here is where the issue lies (the 3rd solution/project that actually utilizes the UserControl): 3rd solution located: \MainProj\MainProj.sln and its project: \MainProj\MainProj\MainProj.csproj Description: Here's a sample function in one of the classes: private void TestMethod<T>() where T : Common.Controls.OurUserControl, new() { T TheObject = new T(); TheObject.OneOfTheSetters = something; TheObject.AnotherOfTheSetters = something_else; // Do stuff with the object } We might call this function like so: private void AnotherMethod() { TestMethod<AControl.AControl>(); } This builds, runs, and works. No problem. The odd thing is after I close the project/solution and re-open it, I have red squigglies everywhere. I bring up my error list and I see tons of errors (anything that deals with AControl will be noted as an error). I'll see errors such as: The type 'AControl.AControl' cannot be used as type parameter 'T' in the generic type or method 'MainProj.MainClass.TestMethod()'. There is no implicit reference conversion from 'AControl.AControl' to 'Common.Controls.OurUserControl'. or inside the actual method (the properties located in the abstract class): 'AControl.AControl' does not contain a definition for 'OneOfTheSetters' and no extension method 'OneOfTheSetters' accepting a first argument of type 'AControl.AControl' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Meanwhile, I can still build and run the project (then the red squigglies go away until I re-open the project, or close/re-open the file). It seems to me that I might be setting up the projects incorrectly. Thoughts?

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  • Project Euler #18 - how to brute force all possible paths in tree-like structure using Python?

    - by euler user
    Am trying to learn Python the Atlantic way and am stuck on Project Euler #18. All of the stuff I can find on the web (and there's a LOT more googling that happened beyond that) is some variation on 'well you COULD brute force it, but here's a more elegant solution'... I get it, I totally do. There are really neat solutions out there, and I look forward to the day where the phrase 'acyclic graph' conjures up something more than a hazy, 1 megapixel resolution in my head. But I need to walk before I run here, see the state, and toy around with the brute force answer. So, question: how do I generate (enumerate?) all valid paths for the triangle in Project Euler #18 and store them in an appropriate python data structure? (A list of lists is my initial inclination?). I don't want the answer - I want to know how to brute force all the paths and store them into a data structure. Here's what I've got. I'm definitely looping over the data set wrong. The desired behavior would be to go 'depth first(?)' rather than just looping over each row ineffectually.. I read ch. 3 of Norvig's book but couldn't translate the psuedo-code. Tried reading over the AIMA python library for ch. 3 but it makes too many leaps. triangle = [ [75], [95, 64], [17, 47, 82], [18, 35, 87, 10], [20, 4, 82, 47, 65], [19, 1, 23, 75, 3, 34], [88, 2, 77, 73, 7, 63, 67], [99, 65, 4, 28, 6, 16, 70, 92], [41, 41, 26, 56, 83, 40, 80, 70, 33], [41, 48, 72, 33, 47, 32, 37, 16, 94, 29], [53, 71, 44, 65, 25, 43, 91, 52, 97, 51, 14], [70, 11, 33, 28, 77, 73, 17, 78, 39, 68, 17, 57], [91, 71, 52, 38, 17, 14, 91, 43, 58, 50, 27, 29, 48], [63, 66, 4, 68, 89, 53, 67, 30, 73, 16, 69, 87, 40, 31], [04, 62, 98, 27, 23, 9, 70, 98, 73, 93, 38, 53, 60, 4, 23], ] def expand_node(r, c): return [[r+1,c+0],[r+1,c+1]] all_paths = [] my_path = [] for i in xrange(0, len(triangle)): for j in xrange(0, len(triangle[i])): print 'row ', i, ' and col ', j, ' value is ', triangle[i][j] ??my_path = somehow chain these together??? if my_path not in all_paths all_paths.append(my_path) Answers that avoid external libraries (like itertools) preferred.

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  • Race condition for thread startup

    - by Ozzah
    A similar question was asked here, but the answers generally all seem to relate to the lambda notation. I get a similar result without the lambda so I thought I'd ask for some clarification: Say I have something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); One would expect the following output: Thread 0 Thread 1 Thread 2 Thread 3 Thread 4 Now I realise that the threads aren't started in any particular order, so let's just assume that the above lines can come out in any order. But that is not what happens. What instead happens: Thread 3 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 or something similar, which leads me to believe that rather than passing the value if i, it is passing the reference. (Which is weird, since an int is a value type). Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { int j = i; Console.WriteLine("Thread " + j); }))).Start(); does not help either, even though we have made a copy of i. I am assuming the reason is that it hasn't made a copy of i in time. Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) { (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); Thread.Sleep(50); } seems to fix the problem, however it is extremely undesirable as we're wasting 50ms on each iteration, not to mention the fact that if the computer is heavily loaded then maybe 50ms may not be enough. Here is a sample with my current, specific problem: Thread t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(delgate() { threadLogic(param1, param2, param3, param4); })); t.Start(); param1 = param2 = param3 = param4 = null; with: void threadLogic(object param1, object param2, object param3, object param4) { // Do some stuff here... } I want threadLogic() to run in its own thread, however the above code gives a null reference exception. I assume this is because the values are set to null before the thread has had a chance to start. Again, putting a Thread.Sleep(100) works, but it is an awful solution from every aspect. What do you guys recommend for this particular type of race condition?

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