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• I have to do two seemingly mutually exclusive things on leaving an asp:textbox. Please help me get

  - by aape

  This project has gone from being a simple '99 Ford F-150 to the Homer. I've got controls with a gridview with textboxes for data entry. All the user controls on the pages are in AJAX updatepanels. User types in a database column or budget entity or some other financial thing they want to include in the report. The textboxes in the gridview have autopostback = true set. overly long background info When the user leaves the textbox, during the postback (triggered by onTextChanged) I do some validation back on the server on their entry - regexs, do they have rights to that column, is that column locked, etc. If it fails, I put a error message next to the textbox. If it passes, I wipe out any title or error that used to be next to the code. Focus is getting lost from the postback if they're tabbing out of the box, rather than going to the next textbox in the gridview. So to fix that I need, if their leaving the tb via the tab key, to also figure out what textbox or gridviewrow they're on, if they're not on the last row, and after the validation and labeling, put the focus on the textbox in the next row. I can't figure out how, in ontextchanged, to find what caused me to leave the textbox, so I'm thinking use javascript onkeyup to test the key pressed and then find the next box etc, but the ontextchanged fires first and then the js never does, and also, since the control is all AJAXed, the javascript can't find the textboxes because when you enter the page everything is collapsed (the requirements people loooove to collapse and expand things), and so when it's expanded, all the 'new' textboxes are up in the viewstate stuff in the page source, and not down where javascript can see them. The questions So I'm wondering if I can have an onblur in the javascript that can trigger a postback where I can do my validation and such, and either 1) include the keypressed or pick it out of sender in the event or 2) followup the onblur with onkeyup and somehow figure out what textbox is next on the grid and throw focus there. Or, is there another .NET based approach that could work for this? In terms of tearing the whole thing down and starting from scratch, I couldn't sell that to the bosses, I'm past the point of no return as far as that goes.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 Preview 2 Route Request Not Working

  - by Kezzer

  Here's the error: The incoming request does not match any route. Basically I upgraded from Preview 1 to Preview 2 and got rid of a load of redundant stuff in relation to areas (as described by Phil Haack). It didn't work so I created a brand new project to check out how its dealt with in Preview 2. The file Default.aspx no longer exists which contains the following: public void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { // Change the current path so that the Routing handler can correctly interpret // the request, then restore the original path so that the OutputCache module // can correctly process the response (if caching is enabled). string originalPath = Request.Path; HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(Request.ApplicationPath, false); IHttpHandler httpHandler = new MvcHttpHandler(); httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(originalPath, false); } The error I received points to the line httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); yet in newer projects none of this even exists. To test it, I quickly deleted Default.aspx but then absolutely nothing worked, I didn't even receive any errors. Here's some code extracts: Global.asax.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Routing; namespace Intranet { public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void App_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } } Notice the area registration as that's what I'm using. Routes.cs using System.Web.Mvc; namespace Intranet.Areas.Accounts { public class Routes : AreaRegistration { public override string AreaName { get { return "Accounts"; } } public override void RegisterArea(AreaRegistrationContext context) { context.MapRoute("Accounts_Default", "Accounts/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); } } } Check the latest docs for more info on this part. It's to register the area. The Routes.cs files are located in the root folder of each area. Cheers

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• jquery in ajax loaded content

  - by Kim Gysen

  My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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• Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

  - by Philip Daubmeier

  Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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• Project Euler #18 - how to brute force all possible paths in tree-like structure using Python?

  - by euler user

  Am trying to learn Python the Atlantic way and am stuck on Project Euler #18. All of the stuff I can find on the web (and there's a LOT more googling that happened beyond that) is some variation on 'well you COULD brute force it, but here's a more elegant solution'... I get it, I totally do. There are really neat solutions out there, and I look forward to the day where the phrase 'acyclic graph' conjures up something more than a hazy, 1 megapixel resolution in my head. But I need to walk before I run here, see the state, and toy around with the brute force answer. So, question: how do I generate (enumerate?) all valid paths for the triangle in Project Euler #18 and store them in an appropriate python data structure? (A list of lists is my initial inclination?). I don't want the answer - I want to know how to brute force all the paths and store them into a data structure. Here's what I've got. I'm definitely looping over the data set wrong. The desired behavior would be to go 'depth first(?)' rather than just looping over each row ineffectually.. I read ch. 3 of Norvig's book but couldn't translate the psuedo-code. Tried reading over the AIMA python library for ch. 3 but it makes too many leaps. triangle = [ [75], [95, 64], [17, 47, 82], [18, 35, 87, 10], [20, 4, 82, 47, 65], [19, 1, 23, 75, 3, 34], [88, 2, 77, 73, 7, 63, 67], [99, 65, 4, 28, 6, 16, 70, 92], [41, 41, 26, 56, 83, 40, 80, 70, 33], [41, 48, 72, 33, 47, 32, 37, 16, 94, 29], [53, 71, 44, 65, 25, 43, 91, 52, 97, 51, 14], [70, 11, 33, 28, 77, 73, 17, 78, 39, 68, 17, 57], [91, 71, 52, 38, 17, 14, 91, 43, 58, 50, 27, 29, 48], [63, 66, 4, 68, 89, 53, 67, 30, 73, 16, 69, 87, 40, 31], [04, 62, 98, 27, 23, 9, 70, 98, 73, 93, 38, 53, 60, 4, 23], ] def expand_node(r, c): return [[r+1,c+0],[r+1,c+1]] all_paths = [] my_path = [] for i in xrange(0, len(triangle)): for j in xrange(0, len(triangle[i])): print 'row ', i, ' and col ', j, ' value is ', triangle[i][j] ??my_path = somehow chain these together??? if my_path not in all_paths all_paths.append(my_path) Answers that avoid external libraries (like itertools) preferred.

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• How to fix OpenGL/SDL runtime error which is probobly caused by adding textures [closed]

  - by Arturs Lapins

  Hello I've recently worked with OpenGL and SDL and I was adding textures to my GL_QUADS and when I ran my program I came across with a runtime error. I've searched all over the internet for a fix but I couldn't find anything so I guess I had one more option. Asking here. So here is some of my code. int loadTexture(std::string fileName){ SDL_Surface *image=IMG_Load(fileName.c_str()); SDL_DisplayFormatAlpha(image); unsigned int id; glGenTextures(1,&id); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D,&id); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER,GL_NEAREST); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER,GL_NEAREST); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S,GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T,GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D,0,GL_RGBA,image->w,image >h,0,GL_RGBA,GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE,image->pixels); SDL_FreeSurface(image); return id; } That's my loadTexture function. void init() { glClearColor(0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); glLoadIdentity(); gluPerspective(45.0, 800.0 / 600.0, 1.0, 500.0); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); tex=loadTexture("test.png"); } That's my init function for OpenGL. Btw I have declared my tex variable. void render() { glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glLoadIdentity(); glTranslatef(0.0, 0.0, -10.0); glRotatef(rotation, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex); glBegin(GL_QUADS); glTexCoord2f(1.0, 0.0); glVertex3f(-2.0, 2.0, 0.0); glTexCoord2f(1.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(2.0, 2.0, 0.0); glTexCoord2f(1.0, 0.0); glVertex3f(2.0, -2.0, 0.0); glTexCoord2f(0.0, 0.0); glVertex3f(-2.0, -2.0, 0.0); glEnd(); } That's my render function for all my OpenGL render stuff... The render function is called in the main function which contains a game loop. Here is the runtime error when I run it with Visual C++ Unhandled exception at 0x004ffee9 in OpenGL Crap.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x05c90000. So I have only had this error when I added textures... ... So I found where the error occured it was at this line glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D,0,GL_RGBA,image->w,image->h,0,GL_RGBA,GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE,image->pixels); but I have totally no Idea what could it be. Update Only thanks to zero298

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• Unlock device, display a text, then lock again

  - by Waza_Be

  For the need of my application, I need to display a message on the screen even if the lockscreen is enabled, then wait 3 seconds, than I have to lock again the phone as I don't want it to make unwanted phone calls in your pockets. First part is easy: if (PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences( getBaseContext()).getBoolean("wake", false)) { KeyguardManager kgm = (KeyguardManager) getSystemService(Context.KEYGUARD_SERVICE); boolean isKeyguardUp = kgm.inKeyguardRestrictedInputMode(); WakeLocker.acquire(ProtoBenService.this); Intent myIntent = new Intent(ProtoBenService.this,LockActivity.class); myIntent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); if (isKeyguardUp) { ProtoBenService.this.startActivity(myIntent); } else Toast.makeText(ProtoBenService.this.getBaseContext(), intention, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); WakeLocker.release(); } With this class: public abstract class WakeLocker { private static PowerManager.WakeLock wakeLock; public static void acquire(Context ctx) { if (wakeLock != null) wakeLock.release(); PowerManager pm = (PowerManager) ctx.getSystemService(Context.POWER_SERVICE); wakeLock = pm.newWakeLock(PowerManager.FULL_WAKE_LOCK | PowerManager.ACQUIRE_CAUSES_WAKEUP | PowerManager.ON_AFTER_RELEASE, "CobeIm"); wakeLock.acquire(); } public static void release() { if (wakeLock != null) wakeLock.release(); wakeLock = null; } } And the Activity: public class LockActivity extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Window window = getWindow(); window.addFlags(WindowManager.LayoutParams.FLAG_DISMISS_KEYGUARD); window.addFlags(WindowManager.LayoutParams.FLAG_TURN_SCREEN_ON); window.addFlags(WindowManager.LayoutParams.FLAG_KEEP_SCREEN_ON); TextView tv = new TextView(this); tv.setText("This is working!"); tv.setTextSize(45); setContentView(tv); Runnable mRunnable; Handler mHandler = new Handler(); mRunnable = new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { LockActivity.this.finish(); } }; mHandler.postDelayed(mRunnable, 3 * 1000); } } So, this is nice, the phone can display my text! The only problem comes when I want to lock again the phone, it seems that locking the phone is protected by the system... Programmatically turning off the screen and locking the phone how to lock the android programatically I think that my users won't understand the Device Admin and won't be able to activate it. Is there any workaround to lock the screen without the Device Admin stuff?

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• Set text equal to string and pass to receipt printer at a different size on iOS

  - by Max Roper

  I am using the StarIO SDK to print text to a receipt printer and I am trying to get a certain line of text larger than the rest. I have some help from their support but I can't really get it to go. -(void)print{ NSMutableString *final=[NSMutableString stringWithFormat:@"-----"]; [final appendFormat:@"\n\nLevel:%@ Section:%@ Row:%@ Seat:%@", [response_dict objectForKey:@"level"], [response_dict objectForKey:@"section"],[response_dict objectForKey:@"row"],[response_dict objectForKey:@"seat"]]; There is a bunch of other stuff that is printing, but that is the line that I would like to be a different size than the rest. The StarIO support said that I should try and pass that to this... -(IBAction)PrintText { NSString *portName = [IOS_SDKViewController getPortName]; NSString *portSettings = [IOS_SDKViewController getPortSettings]; [PrinterFunctions PrintTextWithPortname:portName portSettings:portSettings heightExpansion:heightExpansion widthExpansion:widthExpansion textData:textData textDataSize:[textNSData length]]; free(textData); } Would love some help if possible. :) Thanks so much. This is the main bit I think I would need from the StarIO Text formatting doc... - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]; if (self) { array_hieghtExpansion = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [array_hieghtExpansion addObject:@"1"]; [array_hieghtExpansion addObject:@"2"]; [array_hieghtExpansion addObject:@"3"]; [array_hieghtExpansion addObject:@"4"]; [array_hieghtExpansion addObject:@"5"]; [array_hieghtExpansion addObject:@"6"]; array_widthExpansion = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [array_widthExpansion addObject:@"1"]; [array_widthExpansion addObject:@"2"]; [array_widthExpansion addObject:@"3"]; [array_widthExpansion addObject:@"4"]; [array_widthExpansion addObject:@"5"]; [array_widthExpansion addObject:@"6"]; array_alignment = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [array_alignment addObject:@"Left"]; [array_alignment addObject:@"Center"]; [array_alignment addObject:@"Right"]; } return self; } and int heightExpansion = [pickerpopup_heightExpansion getSelectedIndex]; int widthExpansion = [pickerpopup_widthExpansion getSelectedIndex];

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• Creating a mySQL query using PHP form dropdowns - If user ignores dropdown, do not filter by that pa

  - by user303043

  Hello, I am creating a simple MySQL query that will be built from the user selecting options from 2 dropdowns. The issue I am having is that I would like each drop down to default that if they do not actually choose an option, do not filter by that dropdown parameter. So, if they come in, and simply hit submit without choosing from a dropdown they should see everything. If they come in and pick from only one of the dropdowns, the query will basically ignore filtering by the other dropdown. I tried making <OPTION VALUE='any'>Choose but my query didn't know what to do with the 'any' and just shows no results. Here is my code. Thank you very much for whatever help you can provide. FORM <form method="POST" action="<?php echo $_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']; ?>"> <select name="GameType"> <OPTION VALUE='any'>Choose Game Type <option value="Game1">Option 1</option> <option value="Game2">Option 2</option> <option value="Game3">Option 3</option> </select> <select name="Instructor"> <OPTION VALUE='any'>Choose Instructor <option VALUE="InstructorA">Instructor A</option> <option value="InstructorB">Instructor B</option> <option value="InstructorC">Instructor C</option> </select> <input type='submit' value='Search Videos'> </form> MYSQL <?PHP connection stuff $db_handle = mysql_connect($server, $user_name, $password); $db_found = mysql_select_db($database, $db_handle); if ($db_found) { $SQL = "SELECT * FROM Videos WHERE GameType=\"{$_POST['GameType']}\" AND Instructor=\"{$_POST['Instructor']}\""; $result = mysql_query($SQL); while ($db_field = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo $db_field['ShortDescription'] . ", "; echo $db_field['LongDescription'] . ", "; echo $db_field['GameType'] . ", "; echo $db_field['NumberOfPlayers'] . ", "; echo $db_field['Instructor'] . ", "; echo $db_field['Stakes'] . ", "; echo $db_field['UserPermissionLevel'] . ", "; echo $db_field['DateCreated'] . "<BR>"; } mysql_close($db_handle); } else { print "Database NOT Found "; mysql_close($db_handle); } ?>

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• Command Not working in separate thread in J2me.

  - by RishiPatel

  I am creating a bluetooth application. I created a simple midlet with a exit command and i create a thread for finding the service and discovering the device. While doing so it displays a animated screen on which i added the parent commandListener for exit command. After successful connection both user is represented with greetings(Current screen calls the parent Display method setCurrent for displaying itself). This screen also have CommandListener set to the parent. Now i want to add few more commands. I Implemented the CommandLIstener Interface in this class, added few commands but the commands are not working. I dont whats wen wrong. I am giving u Code snippets to fully describle my issue : - package name Imports here public class MyMidlet extends MIDlet implements CommandListener { public CommandListener theListener; public Display theDisplay; public Command exitCommand; public MyMidlet() { // Retrieve the display for this MIDlet //Create the initial screen } public void startApp() throws MIDletStateChangeException { } public void pauseApp() { } public void destroyApp(boolean unconditional) { } public void commandAction(Command c, Displayable d) { // Determine if the exit command was selected if (c == exitCommand) { //End application here notifyDestroyed(); } else { //Start the new thread here } } } Now here is the code for the class which is invoked by the above midlet in a separate thread; package here; imports here public class MyService implements Runnable, CommandListener { private MyMidlet parent; private StreamConnection conn; private OutputStream output; private InputStream input; public Command sendCommand; private TextField messageToSend Form form; public BChatService(boolean isServer, BChatMidlet parent) { //some stuff here this.parent = parent; } public void run() { //functino for showing animation here try { input = conn.openInputStream(); output = conn.openOutputStream(); } catch (IOException e) { displayError("IO Error", "An error occurred while opening " + "the input and output streams" + "(IOException: " + e.getMessage() + ")"); try { conn.close(); } catch (Exception ex) { } return; } // Create the Form here when service is discoverd and greets the users Command sendCommand = new Command("Send", Command.ITEM, 2); exitCommand = new Command("Exit", Command.EXIT, 1); form.addCommand(exitCommand); form.addCommand(sendCommand); parent.theDisplay.setCurrent(form); form.setCommandListener(this); public void commandAction(Command c, Displayable d) { if (c == exitCommand) { // End the game parent.destroyApp(true); parent.notifyDestroyed(); } if(c == sendCommand) { form.append("SOme text here"); } } } When i select the Send command, the string doesnt append in form neither exit command works. What can be the possible cause for it?? I need to implement this functionality...Is there any other way to achieve this??

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• Domain-Driven-Design question

  - by Michael

  Hello everyone, I have a question about DDD. I'm building a application to learn DDD and I have a question about layering. I have an application that works like this: UI layer calls = Application Layer - Domain Layer - Database Here is a small example of how the code looks: //****************UI LAYER************************ //Uses Ioc to get the service from the factory. //This factory would be in the MyApp.Infrastructure.dll IImplementationFactory factory = new ImplementationFactory(); //Interface and implementation for Shopping Cart service would be in MyApp.ApplicationLayer.dll IShoppingCartService service = factory.GetImplementationFactory<IShoppingCartService>(); //This is the UI layer, //Calling into Application Layer //to get the shopping cart for a user. //Interface for IShoppingCart would be in MyApp.ApplicationLayer.dll //and implementation for IShoppingCart would be in MyApp.Model. IShoppingCart shoppingCart = service.GetShoppingCartByUserName(userName); //Show shopping cart information. //For example, items bought, price, taxes..etc ... //Pressed Purchase button, so even for when //button is pressed. //Uses Ioc to get the service from the factory again. IImplementationFactory factory = new ImplementationFactory(); IShoppingCartService service = factory.GetImplementationFactory<IShoppingCartService>(); service.Purchase(shoppingCart); //**********************Application Layer********************** public class ShoppingCartService : IShoppingCartService { public IShoppingCart GetShoppingCartByUserName(string userName) { //Uses Ioc to get the service from the factory. //This factory would be in the MyApp.Infrastructure.dll IImplementationFactory factory = new ImplementationFactory(); //Interface for repository would be in MyApp.Infrastructure.dll //but implementation would by in MyApp.Model.dll IShoppingCartRepository repository = factory.GetImplementationFactory<IShoppingCartRepository>(); IShoppingCart shoppingCart = repository.GetShoppingCartByUserName(username); //Do shopping cart logic like calculating taxes and stuff //I would put these in services but not sure? ... return shoppingCart; } public void Purchase(IShoppingCart shoppingCart) { //Do Purchase logic and calling out to repository ... } } I've seem to put most of my business rules in services rather than the models and I'm not sure if this is correct? Also, i'm not completely sure if I have the laying correct? Do I have the right pieces in the correct place? Also should my models leave my domain model? In general I'm I doing this correct according DDD? Thanks!

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• How to capture child links clicked using jquery?

  - by user244394

  I am trying to capture the event when a child element link is clicked and add class called "highlightchild" to it. Also I want to check if there are any child element link exist or not, if no child element exits ie "third level" highlight with "highlightparent" the parent. How can I do that using jquery? $(document).ready(function() { $('.menu ul').hide(); $('.menu .arrowUp').click(function() { $('.menu ul').hide(); $(this).find(".third-level").toggle(); }); }); html <ul class="menu"> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link1</a> <ul class="third-level" > <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/somelink/">Some Link</a></li> </ul> </li> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link2</a> <ul class="third-level" > <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/links2/">some Links 2</a></li> </ul> </li> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link3</a> <ul class="third-level" > <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/Agri/">Agricultural</a></li> <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/sugar/">Sugar</a></li> <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/bbc/">Coffee</a></li> <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="/cnn/">Energy</a></li> <!-- third level non-active --> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="funstuff">Fun stuff</a></li> </ul> </li> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link4</a></li> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link5</a></li> <li class="arrowUp"><a href="#">link6</a></li> </ul>

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• PHP looping through an array to fetch a value for each key from database (third normal form)

  - by zomboble

  I am building a system, mostly for consolidating learning but will be used in practice. I will try and verbally explain the part of the E-R diagram I am focusing on: Each cadet can have many uniformID's Each Uniform ID is a new entry in table uniform, so cadets (table) may look like: id | name | ... | uniformID 1 | Example | ... | 1,2,3 uniform table: id | notes | cadet 1 | Need new blahh | 1 2 | Some stuff needed | 1 3 | Whatever you like | 1 On second thought, looks like I wont need that third column in the db. I am trying to iterate through each id in uniformID, code: <?php $cadet = $_GET['id']; // set from URL $query = mysql_query("SELECT `uniformID` FROM `cadets` WHERE id = '$cadet' LIMIT 1") or die(mysql_error()); // get uniform needed as string // store it while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($query)) { $uniformArray = $row['uniformID']; } echo $uniformArray . " "; $exploded = explode(",", $uniformArray); // convert into an array // for each key in the array perform a new query foreach ($exploded as $key => $value) { $query(count($exploded)); $query[$key] = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `uniform` WHERE `id` = '$value'"); } ? As I say, this is mainly for consolidation purposes but I have come up with a error, sql is saying: Fatal error: Function name must be a string in C:\wamp\www\intranet\uniform.php on line 82 line 82 is: $query[$key] = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `uniform` WHERE `id` = '$value'"); I wasn't sure it would work so I tried it and now i'm stuck! EDIT: Thanks to everyone who has contributed to this! This is now the working code: foreach ($exploded as $key => $value) { //$query(count($exploded)); $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `uniform` WHERE `id` = '$value'"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($query)) { echo "<tr> <td>" . $row['id'] . "</td> <td>" . $row['note'] . "</td> </tr>"; } } Added the while and did the iteration by nesting it in the foreach

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• Java: Is there a way to efficiently insert or remove many elements from the middle of a LinkedList?

  - by allyourcode

  I was expecting to find this in Java's LinkedList, since the point of linked lists is to be able to efficiently insert (and remove) anywhere (assuming you have some kind of pointer to the location where you want to insert or remove). I'm not finding anything in the API though. Am I overlooking something? The closest thing I can find to this are the add and remove method in ListIterator. This has some limitations though. In particular, other iterators become invalid as soon as the underlying LinkedList is modified via remove, according to the API. This is born out in my tests as well; the following program results in a IllegalStateException: import java.util.*; public class RemoveFromLinkedList { public static void main(String[] args) { LinkedList<Integer> myList= new LinkedList<Integer>(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myList.add(i); } ListIterator<Integer> i1 = myList.listIterator(); ListIterator<Integer> i2 = myList.listIterator(); for (int i = 0; i < 3; ++i) { i1.next(); i2.next(); } System.out.println("i1.next() should be 3: " + i1.next()); i1.remove(); i1.remove(); // Exception! System.out.println("i2.next() should be 5: " + i2.next()); } } Ideally, what I'm expecting is something like this: // In my imagination only. This is the way Java actually works, afaict. // Construct two insertion/deletion points in LinkedList myLinkedList. myIterator = myLinkedList.iterator(); for (...) { myIterator.next(); } start = myIterator.clone(); for (...) { myIterator.next(); } // Later... after = myLinkedList.spliceAfter(myIterator, someOtherLinkedList); // start, myIterator, and after are still all valid; thus, I can do this: // Removes everything I just spliced in, as well as some other stuff before that. myLinkedList.remove(start, after); // Now, myIterator is invalid, but not start, nor after. C++ has something like this for its list class (template). Only iterators pointing to moved elements become invalidated, not ALL iterators.

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• Best way to have common class shared by both C++ and Ruby?

  - by shuttle87

  I am currently working on a project where a team of us are designing a game, all of us are proficient in ruby and some (but not all) of us are proficient in c++. Initially we made the backend in ruby but we ported it to c++ for more speed. The c++ port of the backend has exactly the same features and algorithms as the original ruby code. However we still have a bunch of code in ruby that does useful things but we want it to now get the data from the c++ classes. Our first thought was that we could save some of the data structures in something like XML or redis and call that, but some of the developers don't like that idea. We don't need anything particularly complex data structures to be passed between the different parts of the code, just tuples, strings and ints. Is there any way of integrating the ruby code so that it can call the c++ stuff natively? Will we need to embed code? Will we have to make a ruby extension? If so are there any good resources/tutorials you could suggest? For example say we have this code in the c++ backend: class The_game{ private: bool printinfo; //print the player diagnostic info at the beginning if true int numplayers; std::vector<Player*> players; string current_action; int action_is_on; // the index of the player in the players array that the action is now on //more code here public: Table(std::vector<Player *> in_players, std::vector<Statistics *> player_stats ,const int in_numplayers); ~Table(); void play_game(); History actions_history; }; class History{ private: int action_sequence_number; std::vector<Action*> hand_actions; public: void print_history(); void add_action(Action* the_action_to_be_added); int get_action_sequence_number(){ return action_sequence_number;} bool history_actions_are_equal(); int last_action_size(int street,int number_of_actions_ago); History(); ~History(); }; Is there any way to natively call something in the actions_history via The_game object in ruby? (The objects in the original ruby code all had the same names and functionality) By this I mean: class MyRubyClass def method1(arg1) puts arg1 self.f() # ... but still available puts cpp_method.the_current_game.actions_history.get_action_sequence_number() end # Constructor: def initialize(arg) puts "In constructor with arg #{arg}" #get the c++ object here and call it cpp_method end end Is this possible? Any advice or suggestions are appreciated.

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• Sharing the same file between different projects

  - by selsine

  Hi Everyone, For version control we currently use Visual Source Safe and are thinking of migrating to another version control system (SVN, Mercurial, Git). Currently we use Visual Source Safe's "Shared" file feature quite heavily. This allows us to share code between design and runtimes of a single product, and between multiple products as well. For example: **Product One** - Design Login.cpp Login.h Helper.cpp Helper.h - Runtime Login.cpp Login.h Helper.cpp Helper.h **Product Two** - Design Login.cpp Login.h - Launcher Login.cpp Login.h - Runtime Login.cpp Login.h In this example Login.cpp and Login.h contain common code that all of our projects need, Helper.cpp and Helper.h is only used in Product One. In Visual Source Safe they are shared between the specific projects, which means that whenever the files are updated in one project they are updated in any project they are shared with. This is a simple example but hopefully it explains why we use the shared feature: to reduce the amount of duplicated code and ensure that when a bug is fixed all projects automatically have access to the new fixed code. After researching alternatives to Visual Source Safe it seems that most version control systems do not have the idea of shared files, instead they seem to use the idea of sub repositories. (http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/subrepos http://svnbook.red-bean.com/en/1.0/ch07s03.html) My question (after all of that) is about what the best practices for achieving this are using other version control systems? Should we restructure our projects so that two copies of the files do not exist and an include directory is used instead? e.g. Product One Design Login.cpp Login.h Runtime Login.cpp Login.h Common Helper.cpp Helper.h This still leaves what to do with Login.cpp and Logon.h Should the shared files be moved to their own repository and then compiled into a lib or dll? This would make bug fixing more time consuming as the lib projects would have to be edited and then rebuilt. Should we use externals or sub repositories? Should we combine our projects (i.e. runtime, design, and launcher) into one large project? Any help would be appreciated. We have the feeling that our project design has evolved based on the tools that we used and now that we are thinking of switching tools it's difficult for us to see how we can best modify our practices. Or maybe we are the only people are there doing this...? Also, we use Visual Studio for all of our stuff. Thanks.

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• PHP, PEAR, and oci8 configuration

  - by zack_falcon

  I'll make this quick. I installed Oracle 11g (with appropriate database, users, etc), Apache 2.4.6, and PHP 5.5.4 on a Fedora 19 system. I wanted to connect PHP to Oracle. What I really wanted to do was to download MDB2_Driver_oci8, which I thought would be easy, but before I can do such a thing, PHP needs to have that plug-in enabled, so here's what I did: Tried to install oci8 via the following: pecl install oci8 When that didn't exactly work the first few times, I figured out I, for some reason, needed "Development tools" - via yum groupinstall "Development Tools" Then I figured out later that PHP actually doesn't do oci8 - it's PHP Devel. So, I had to install that too, via yum install php-devel. And then, I finally got to install oci8. It asked for the Oracle Directory, and that was that. But it said the following: Configuration option 'php_ini' is not set to php.ini location You should add 'extensions=oci8.so' to php.ini First, I did a locate oci8.so - found it in /usr/lib64/php/modules/ Second, I added what it told me to, to the php.ini file. Third, I checked the usual php_info() test page - no mention of OCI8. Uh-oh. Fourth, running both php -i and php -m listed oci8 as one of the modules. Weird. In desperation, I went ahead and downloaded the MDB2_Driver_oci8. Maybe that will fix things. Nope. When I loaded my PHP Webpage, it returned the following: Error message: extension oci8 is not compiled into PHP As well as: MDB2 error: not found Strange. And then I decided to check the error logs: PHP Startup - unable to load dynamic library '/usr/lib64/php/modules/oci8.so' - libclntsh.so.11.1: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory in Unknown on line 0 And now I'm stuck. I tried going into the php.ini, and found that the extension_dir was commented out. I put it back in, which only seemed to break stuff. Things of note: I followed this (link) guide on how to configure PHP and install oci8. ./configure --with-oci8 doesn't work. Fedora says no such directory. As both the webpage files and the actual server reside on the same PC, I did not install the Oracle Client files. The extension_dir is commented out by default in the php.ini. This is just one of my problems in a long line of problems concerning the replication of an already existing and working, but dying, setup. It seems whenever I want to solve a problem, I have to do X first. And by doing X, I uncover another problem, which I have to solve by doing Y, which has its own problems, etc, etc. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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• AuthenticationForm - cookie cross site

  - by bit

  I've 2 web site, the first one myFirst.domain.com and the second one mySecondSite.domain.com. They stay on two different web server and my goal is allow a cross site authentication (my real need is shared authenticationForm Cookie). I've correctly setted web config (machine key node, forms node). The only different is about loginUrl where on myFirstSite appears like "~/login.aspx", instead on mySecondSite it appears like "http://myFirstSite.com/login.aspx". Note that I've not a virtual directory, I've just 2 different web apps. The problem: When I reach myFirstSite login page from mySecondSite I never get redirect from login page, it seems like if cookie doesn't being written. The following is a few of snippet about the issue: MyFirsSite: <machineKey validationKey="..." decryptionKey="..." validation="SHA1" decryption="AES" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="login.aspx" name="authCookie" enableCrossAppRedirects="true"></forms> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> MyFirstSite code behind: FormsAuthenticationTicket fat = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, "userName..", DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(30), true, "roles.."); string ticket = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(fat); HttpCookie authCookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, ticket); authCookie.Expires = fat.Expiration; authCookie.Domain = "myDomain.com"; Response.Cookies.Add(authCookie); // here other stuff about querystring checking in order to execute exact redirect, however it's not work, I always return on login page MySecondSite: <machineKey validationKey="..." decryptionKey="..." validation="SHA1" decryption="AES"/> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="http://myFirstSite.domain.com/login.aspx?queryStringToIndicateUrlPage" enableCrossAppRedirects="true"></forms> </authentication> <authorization> Well, that's all. Unfortunately it doesn't works. please, don't pay attention to "queryStringToIndicateUrlPage", it's only simple workaround in order to know whether I must redirect on the same app or on the another one.

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• iOS dynamic object creation

  - by Abdul Ahmad

  I've worked with Xcode and iOS on a few personal projects and have always used non-object-oriented designs for everything... just because I've been doing mostly learning/experimenting with things. Now I've been trying to implement some object oriented design into one game I've made previously. The idea is, I have a space ship that can shoot bullets. In the past I basically added the UIImageView to the storyboard and then connected it to the .h file and from there did things on it like move it around or whatever (using CGPointMake). The idea now is to make a method (and a whole other class soon) that will create a UIImageView programmatically, allocate it, add it to the superview etc... I've got this working so far, easy stuff, but the next part is a bit harder. Where do I store this local variable "bullet"? I've been saving it to an NSMutableArray and doing the following: (actually here are the methods that I have) -(void)movement { for (int i = 0; i < [array1 count]; i ++) { UIImageView *a = [array1 objectAtIndex:i]; a.center = CGPointMake(a.center.x + 2, a.center.y); if (a.center.x > 500) { [array1 removeObjectAtIndex:i]; [a removeFromSuperview]; } } } -(void)getBullet { UIImageView *bullet = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(ship.center.x + 20, ship.center.y - 2, 15, 3)]; bullet.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"bullet2.png"]; bullet.hidden = NO; [self.view addSubview:bullet]; [array1 addObject:bullet]; } (by the way, array1 is declared in the .h file) and theres a timer that controls the movement method timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.5 target:self selector:@selector(movement) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; first question is: what is the correct way of doing this? Storing a bullet for example until it is removed from the superview, should I store it another way? and another question is, when I remove a UIImageView from the superview, does that remove it from memory so its not using up system resources? Thank you for the help! (will update if I Think of other questions

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• Rails controller not rendering correct view when form is force-submitted by Javascript

  - by whazzmaster

  I'm using Rails with jQuery, and I'm working on a page for a simple site that prints each record to a table. The only editable field for each record is a checkbox. My goal is that every time a checkbox is changed, an ajax request updates that boolean attribute for the record (i.e., no submit button). My view code: <td> <% form_remote_tag :url => admin_update_path, :html => { :id => "form#{lead.id}" } do %> <%= hidden_field :lead, :id, :value => lead.id %> <%= check_box :lead, :contacted, :id => "checkbox"+lead.id.to_s, :checked => lead.contacted, :onchange => "$('#form#{lead.id}').submit();" %> <% end %> </td> In my routes.rb, admin_update_path is defined by map.admin_update 'update', :controller => "admin", :action => "update", :method => :post I also have an RJS template to render back an update. The contents of this file is currently just for testing (I just wanted to see if it worked, this will not be the ultimate functionality on a successful save)... page << "$('#checkbox#{@lead.id}').hide();" When clicked, the ajax request is successfully sent, with the correct params, and the action on the controller can retrieve the record and update it just fine. The problem is that it doesn't send back the JS; it changes the page in the browser and renders the generated Javascript as plain text rather than executing it in-place. Rails does some behind-the-scenes stuff to figure out if the incoming request is an ajax call, and I can't figure out why it's interpreting the incoming request as a regular web request as opposed to an ajax request. I may be missing something extremely simple here, but I've kind-of burned myself out looking so I thought I'd ask for another pair of eyes. Thanks in advance for any info!

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• Can first descendent be selected directly?

  - by Ben Huh

  I am currently using find() and first() method to select the first descendent element from each of the <div> elements that contains the parent class. But I find this quite cumbersome since find() method would produce a set of matched elements before the first element is being picked. The following is the skeleton of my code: HTML <div class=parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> <div class=parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> <div class=non-parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> <div class=parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> // .....the list continues Javascript $('.parent').each(function() { $(this).find('ul li').first().css('color', 'red'); // do other stuff within each loop }); I have seen people using $(".parent li:first") selector. But, because I am doing it in a loop, I am not sure how or whether if this could be done and would like some advice. Thanks.

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• Unable to get Stencil Buffer to work in iOS 4+ (5.0 works fine). [OpenGL ES 2.0]

  - by MurderDev

  So I am trying to use a stencil buffer in iOS for masking/clipping purposes. Do you guys have any idea why this code may not work? This is everything I have associated with Stencils. On iOS 4 I get a black screen. On iOS 5 I get exactly what I expect. The transparent areas of the image I drew in the stencil are the only areas being drawn later. Code is below. This is where I setup the frameBuffer, depth and stencil. In iOS the depth and stencil are combined. -(void)setupDepthBuffer { glGenRenderbuffers(1, &depthRenderBuffer); glBindRenderbuffer(GL_RENDERBUFFER, depthRenderBuffer); glRenderbufferStorage(GL_RENDERBUFFER, GL_DEPTH24_STENCIL8_OES, self.frame.size.width * [[UIScreen mainScreen] scale], self.frame.size.height * [[UIScreen mainScreen] scale]); } -(void)setupFrameBuffer { glGenFramebuffers(1, &frameBuffer); glBindFramebuffer(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, frameBuffer); glFramebufferRenderbuffer(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_COLOR_ATTACHMENT0, GL_RENDERBUFFER, colorRenderBuffer); glFramebufferRenderbuffer(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, GL_RENDERBUFFER, depthRenderBuffer); glFramebufferRenderbuffer(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_STENCIL_ATTACHMENT, GL_RENDERBUFFER, depthRenderBuffer); // Check the FBO. if(glCheckFramebufferStatus(GL_FRAMEBUFFER) != GL_FRAMEBUFFER_COMPLETE) { NSLog(@"Failure with framebuffer generation: %d", glCheckFramebufferStatus(GL_FRAMEBUFFER)); } } This is how I am setting up and drawing the stencil. (Shader code below.) glEnable(GL_STENCIL_TEST); glDisable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glColorMask(GL_FALSE, GL_FALSE, GL_FALSE, GL_FALSE); glDepthMask(GL_FALSE); glStencilFunc(GL_ALWAYS, 1, -1); glStencilOp(GL_KEEP, GL_KEEP, GL_REPLACE); glColorMask(0, 0, 0, 0); glClear(GL_STENCIL_BUFFER_BIT); machineForeground.shader = [StencilEffect sharedInstance]; [machineForeground draw]; machineForeground.shader = [BasicEffect sharedInstance]; glDisable(GL_STENCIL_TEST); glColorMask(GL_TRUE, GL_TRUE, GL_TRUE, GL_TRUE); glDepthMask(GL_TRUE); Here is where I am using the stencil. glEnable(GL_STENCIL_TEST); glStencilOp(GL_KEEP, GL_KEEP, GL_KEEP); glStencilFunc(GL_EQUAL, 1, -1); ...Draw Stuff here glDisable(GL_STENCIL_TEST); Finally here is my fragment shader. varying lowp vec2 TexCoordOut; uniform sampler2D Texture; void main(void) { lowp vec4 color = texture2D(Texture, TexCoordOut); if(color.a < 0.1) gl_FragColor = color; else discard; }

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• Attribute vector emptying itself

  - by ravloony

  Hello, I have two classes, derived from a common class. The common class has a pure virtual function called execute(), which is implemented in both derived classes. In the inherited class I have an attribute which is a vector. In both execute() methods I overwrite this vector with a result. I access both classes from a vector of pointers to their objects. The problem is when I try to access the result vector form outside the objects. In one case I can get the elements (which are simply pointers), in the other I cannot, the vector is empty. Code: class E; class A{ protected: vector<E*> _result; public: virtual void execute()=0; vector<E*> get_result(); }; vector<E*> A::get_result() { return _result; } class B : public A { public: virtual void execute(); }; B::execute() { //... _result = tempVec; return; } class C : public A { public: virtual void execute(); }; C::execute() { //different stuff to B _result = tempvec; return; } main() { B* b = new B(); C* c = new C(); b->execute(); c->execute(); b->get_result();//returns full vector c->get_result(); //returns empty vector!! } I have no idea what is going on here... I have tried filling _result by hand from a temp vector in the offending class, doing the same with vector::assign(), nothing works. And the other object works perfectly. I must be missing something.... Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Using KnockoutJS 2.2.0 & jQuery 1.8.2 remove all bindings from all children of #someDiv

  - by Nukeface

  I'm wanting to delete All bindings (ko.cleanNode) from all child elements of a certain div. Must be a noobie question but I can't figure out how to use jQuery to loop through all childre, grand-children, great-grand-children, etc. whilst having KnockoutJS remove the bindings of all the DOM elements. I do NOT want to remove the elements from the DOM. This is a single page application, therefore the elements are pre-loaded as embedded resources and don't get resend to a client if they were to visit the page again. If a client revisits that part of the application I'll have a function rebind the necessary elements, which currently works fine. Current setup: <html> <head> //loading all resources </head> <body> //load first element using some obscure setup <div id="firsPage" data-role="page"> <div data-role="header">@Global.header</div> <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <label for="firstInput" /> <input id="firstInput some other stuff /> </div> <div data-role="datebox <!-- some settings --> > //creates table using jQuery mobile (lots of (great-)(grand-)children) </div> <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <div id="secondInput"> <div class="checklist"> <ul> <li /> <li /> </ul> </div> </div> </div> </div> //Here the whole thing starts again <div id="secondPage" data-role="page"> <!-- repeat above innerHTML in your mind ;) --> </div> //And here again! and again... </body> The problem I'm having is that bindings of the children don't seem to get "cleaned up" when i use ko.cleanNode($('#firstPage')[0]); Or when I get the Element into a variable and then format it to ko.cleanNode($element). Is there a way to do this? Been staring at it for a good few hours now, so probably overlooking a way too obvious way of doing it... Thanks!

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• IE8 ignores absolute positioning and margin:auto

  - by tuff

  I have a lightbox-style div with scrolling content that I am trying to restrict to a reasonable size within the viewport. I also want this div to be horizontally centered. This is all easy in Fx/Chrome/IE9. My problem is that IE8 ignores the absolute positioning which I use to size the content, and the rule margin: 0 auto which I use to horizontally center the lightbox. 1) Why? 2) What are my options for workarounds? EDIT: The centering issue is fixed by setting text-align:center on the parent element, but I have no idea why that works since the element I want to center is not inline. Still stuck on the absolute positioning stuff. HTML: <div class="bg"> <div class="a"> <div class="aa">titlebar</div> <div class="b"> <!-- many lines of content here --> </div> </div> </div> CSS: body { overflow: hidden; height: 100%; margin: 0; padding: 0; } /* IE8 needs ruleset above */ .bg { background: #333; position: fixed; top: 0; right: 0; bottom: 0; left: 0; height: 100%; /* needed in IE8 or the bg will only be as tall as the lightbox */ } .a { background: #eee; border: 3px solid #000; height: 80%; max-height: 800px; min-height: 200px; margin: 0 auto; position: relative; width: 80%; min-width: 200px; max-width: 800px; } .aa { background: lightblue; height: 28px; line-height: 28px; text-align: center; } .b { background: coral; overflow: auto; padding: 20px; position: absolute; top: 30px; right: 0; bottom: 0; left: 0; } Here's a demo of the problem: http://jsbin.com/urikoj/1/edit

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