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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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  • Packages name conflicting with getters and setters?

    - by MrKishi
    Hello, folks. So, I've came across this compilation error a while ago.. As there's an easy fix and I didn't find anything relevant at the time, I eventually let it go. I just remembered it and I'm now wondering if this is really part of the language grammar (which I highly doubt) or if it's a compiler bug. I'm being purely curious about this -- it doesn't really affect development, but it would be nice to see if any of you have seen this already. package view { import flash.display.Sprite; public class Main extends Sprite { private var _view:Sprite = new Sprite(); public function Main() { this.test(); } private function test():void { trace(this.view.x, this.view.y); //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property x through a reference with static type view:Main. //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property y through a reference with static type view:Main. //Note that I got this due to the package name. //It runs just fine if I rename the package or getter. } public function get view():Sprite { return this._view; } } }

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  • Evaluate an expression tree

    - by Phronima
    Hi, This project that I'm working on requires that an expression tree be constructed from a string of single digit operands and operators both represented as type char. I did the implmentation and the program up to that point works fine. I'm able to print out the inorder, preorder and postorder traversals in the correct way. The last part calls for evaulating the expression tree. The parameters are an expression tree "t" and its root "root". The expression tree is ((3+2)+(6+2)) which is equal to 13. Instead I get 11 as the answer. Clearly I'm missing something here and I've done everything short of bashing my head against the desk. I would greatly appreciate it if someone can point me in the right direction. (Note that at this point I'm only testing addition and will add in the other operators when I get this method working.) public int evalExpression( LinkedBinaryTree t, BTNode root ) { if( t.isInternal( root ) ) { int x = 0, y = 0, value = 0; char operator = root.element(); if( root.getLeft() != null ) x = evalExpression(t, t.left( root ) ); if( root.getRight() != null ) y = evalExpression(t, t.right( root ) ); if( operator == '+' ) { value = value + Character.getNumericValue(x) + Character.getNumericValue(y); } return value; } else { return root.element(); } }

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  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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  • Fast path cache generation for a connected node graph

    - by Sukasa
    I'm trying to get a faster pathfinding mechanism in place in a game I'm working on for a connected node graph. The nodes are classed into two types, "Networks" and "Routers." In this picture, the blue circles represent routers and the grey rectangles networks. Each network keeps a list of which routers it is connected to, and vice-versa. Routers cannot connect directly to other routers, and networks cannot connect directly to other networks. Networks list which routers they're connected to Routers do the same I need to get an algorithm that will map out a path, measured in the number of networks crossed, for each possible source and destination network excluding paths where the source and destination are the same network. I have one right now, however it is unusably slow, taking about two seconds to map the paths, which becomes incredibly noticeable for all connected players. The current algorithm is a depth-first brute-force search (It was thrown together in about an hour to just get the path caching working) which returns an array of networks in the order they are traversed, which explains why it's so slow. Are there any algorithms that are more efficient? As a side note, while these example graphs have four networks, the in-practice graphs have 55 networks and about 20 routers in use. Paths which are not possible also can occur, and as well at any time the network/router graph topography can change, requiring the path cache to be rebuilt. What approach/algorithm would likely provide the best results for this type of a graph?

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  • What's the best way to communicate the purpose of a string parameter in a public API?

    - by Dave
    According to the guidance published in New Recommendations for Using Strings in Microsoft .NET 2.0, the data in a string may exhibit one of the following types of behavior: A non-linguistic identifier, where bytes match exactly. A non-linguistic identifier, where case is irrelevant, especially a piece of data stored in most Microsoft Windows system services. Culturally-agnostic data, which still is linguistically relevant. Data that requires local linguistic customs. Given that, I'd like to know the best way to communicate which behavior is expected of a string parameter in a public API. I wasn't able to find an answer in the Framework Design Guidelines. Consider the following methods: f(string this_is_a_linguistic_string) g(string this_is_a_symbolic_identifier_so_use_ordinal_compares) Is variable naming and XML documentation the best I can do? Could I use attributes in some way to mark the requirements of the string? Now consider the following case: h(Dictionary<string, object> dictionary) Note that the dictionary instance is created by the caller. How do I communicate that the callee expects the IEqualityComparer<string> object held by the dictionary to perform, for example, a case-insensitive ordinal comparison?

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  • Pointers and Addresses in C

    - by Mohit
    #include "stdio.h" main() { int i=3,*x; float j=1.5,*y; char k='c',*z; x=&i; y=&j; z=&k; printf("\nAddress of x= %u",x); printf("\nAddress of y= %u",y); printf("\nAddress of z= %u",z); x++; y++;y++;y++;y++; z++; printf("\nNew Address of x= %u",x); printf("\nNew Address of y= %u",y); printf("\nNew Address of z= %u",z); printf("\nNew Value of i= %d",i); printf("\nNew Value of j= %f",j); printf("\nNew Value of k= %c\n",k); } Output: Address of x= 3219901868 Address of y= 3219901860 Address of z= 3219901875 New Address of x= 3219901872 New Address of y= 3219901876 New Address of z= 3219901876 New Value of i= 3 New Value of j= 1.500000 New Value of k= c The new address of variable y and z are same. How can two variables have same address and et have different values? Note: I used gcc compiler on Ubuntu 9.04

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  • How to detect if a certain range resides (partly) within an other range?

    - by Tom
    Lets say I've got two squares and I know their positions, a red and blue square: redTopX; redTopY; redBotX; redBotY; blueTopX; blueTopY; blueBotX; blueBotY; Now, I want to check if square blue resides (partly) within (or around) square red. This can happen in a lot of situations, as you can see in this image I created to illustrate my situation better: Note that there's always only one blue and one red square, I just added multiple so I didn't have to redraw 18 times. My original logic was simple, I'd check all corners of square blue and see if any of them are inside square red: if ( ((redTopX >= blueTopX) && (redTopY >= blueTopY) && (redTopX <= blueBotX) && (redTopY <= blueBotY)) || //top left ((redBotX >= blueTopX) && (redTopY >= blueTopY) && (redBotX <= blueBotX) && (redTopY <= blueBotY)) || //top right ((redTopX >= blueTopX) && (redBotY >= blueTopY) && (redTopX <= blueBotX) && (redBotY <= blueBotY)) || //bottom left ((redBotX >= blueTopX) && (redBotY >= blueTopY) && (redBotX <= blueBotX) && (redBotY <= blueBotY)) //bottom right ) { //blue resides in red } Unfortunately, there are a couple of flaws in this logic. For example, what if red surrounds blue (like in situation 1)? I thought this would be pretty easy but am having trouble coming up with a good way of covering all these situations.. can anyone help me out here? Regards, Tom

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  • C++ member template for boost ptr_vector

    - by Ivan
    Hi there, I'm trying to write a container class using boost::ptr_vector. Inside the ptr_vector I would like to include different classes. I'm trying to achieve that using static templates, but so far I'm not able to do that. For example, the container class is class model { private: boost::ptr_vector<elem_type> elements; public: void insert_element(elem_type *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; and what I'm trying to achieve is be able to use different elem_type classes. The code below doesn't satisfy my requirements: template <typename T>class model { private: boost::ptr_vector<T> elements; public: void insert_element(T *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; because when I initialize the container class I can only use one class as template: model <elem_type_1> model_thing; model_thing.insert_element(new elem_type_1) but not elem_type_2: model_thing.insert_element(new elem_type_2)//error, of course It is possible to do something like using templates only on the member? class model { private: template <typename T> boost::ptr_vector<T> elements; public: void insert_element(T *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; //wrong So I can call the insert_element on the specific class that I want to insert? Note that I do not want to use virtual members. Thanks!

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  • How do you prove a function works?

    - by glenn I.
    I've recently gotten the testing religion and have started primarily with unit testing. I code unit tests which illustrate that a function works under certain cases, specifically using the exact inputs I'm using. I may do a number of unit tests to exercise the function. Still, I haven't actually proved anything other than the function does what I expect it to do under the scenarios I've tested. There may be other inputs and scenarios I haven't thought of and thinking of edge cases is expensive, particularly on the margins. This is all not very satisfying to do me. When I start to think of having to come up with tests to satisfy branch and path coverage and then integration testing, the prospective permutations can become a little maddening. So, my question is, how can one prove (in the same vein of proving a theorem in mathematics) that a function works (and, in a perfect world, compose these 'proofs' into a proof that a system works)? Is there a certain area of testing that covers an approach where you seek to prove a system works by proving that all of its functions work? Does anybody outside of academia bother with an approach like this? Are there tools and techniques to help? I realize that my use of the word 'work' is not precise. I guess I mean that a function works when it does what some spec (written or implied) states that it should do and does nothing other than that. Note, I'm not a mathematician, just a programmer.

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  • Information about PTE's (Page Table Entries) in Windows

    - by Patrick
    In order to find more easily buffer overflows I am changing our custom memory allocator so that it allocates a full 4KB page instead of only the wanted number of bytes. Then I change the page protection and size so that if the caller writes before or after its allocated piece of memory, the application immediately crashes. Problem is that although I have enough memory, the application never starts up completely because it runs out of memory. This has two causes: since every allocation needs 4 KB, we probably reach the 2 GB limit very soon. This problem could be solved if I would make a 64-bit executable (didn't try it yet). even when I only need a few hundreds of megabytes, the allocations fail at a certain moment. The second problem is the biggest one, and I think it's related to the maximum number of PTE's (page table entries, which store information on how Virtual Memory is mapped to physical memory, and whether pages should be read-only or not) you can have in a process. My questions (or a cry-for-tips): Where can I find information about the maximum number of PTE's in a process? Is this different (higher) for 64-bit systems/applications or not? Can the number of PTE's be configured in the application or in Windows? Thanks, Patrick PS. note for those who will try to argument that you shouldn't write your own memory manager: My application is rather specific so I really want full control over memory management (can't give any more details) Last week we had a memory overwrite which we couldn't find using the standard C++ allocator and the debugging functionality of the C/C++ run time (it only said "block corrupt" minutes after the actual corruption") We also tried standard Windows utilities (like GFLAGS, ...) but they slowed down the application by a factor of 100, and couldn't find the exact position of the overwrite either We also tried the "Full Page Heap" functionality of Application Verifier, but then the application doesn't start up either (probably also running out of PTE's)

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  • sendto is returning ENOBUF

    - by user338159
    Hi, I am currently running an old system on Tru64 which involves lots of UDP sockets using the sendto() function. The sockets are used in our code to send messages to/from various processes and then eventually on to a thick client app that is connected remotely. Occasionally the socket to the thick client gets stuck, this can cause some of these messages to get built up. My question is how can I determine the current buffer size, and how do I determine the maximum message buffer. The code below gives a snippet of how I set up the port and use the sendto function. /* need to adjust the maximum size we can send on this / / as it needs to be able to cope with the biggest / / messages we send / lenlen = sizeof(len) ; / allow double for when the system is under load */ len = 2 * C_MAX_MESSAGE_DATA_SIZE ; lpos_setsockopt(FATAL, msg_socket,SOL_SOCKET, SO_SNDBUF, &len, lenlen, &error_no) ; result = sendto( msg_socket, (char *)message, (int)message_len, flags, dest_addr, addrlen); Note. We have ported this application to Linux and the problem does not seem to appear there. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Regards

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  • Populating PDF Fields using FDFACX

    - by NWilliams
    I was recently asked to preform some updates to an existing PDF document. The changes required were completed using Adobe Designer (the only tool I have available to me). These changes included alignment, and new text. Note that there were fillable form fields on the forms, and they were left untouched. The saved version of the form was then put into our ASP.NET application, which pre-populates the form fields were applicable (things like name, address etc... things we have in our database). For some reason, the new form does not populate. I've confirmed that the form fields have the correct names, that the actual file (the pdf) that is being pre-populated has the same permissions as others that are working. There are no errors thrown, and no difference in a step through with a working form and a non-working form. This is a legacy project and I have no real experience with the PDF populator they are using ... FDFACX .NET? And can't find a lot of info on it online. Any ideas?

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  • access properties of current model in has_many declaration

    - by seth.vargo
    Hello, I didn't exactly know how to pose this question other than through example... I have a class we will call Foo. Foo :has_many Bar. Foo has a boolean attribute called randomize that determines the order of the the Bars in the :has_many relationship: class CreateFoo < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :foos do |t| t.string :name t.boolean :randomize, :default => false end end end   class CreateBar < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bars do |t| t.string :name t.references :foo end end end   class Bar < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :foo end   class Foo < ActiveRecord::Base # this is the line that doesn't work has_many :bars, :order => self.randomize ? 'RAND()' : 'id' end How do I access properties of self in the has_many declaration? Things I've tried and failed: creating a method of Foo that returns the correct string creating a lambda function crying Is this possible? UPDATE The problem seems to be that the class in :has_many ISN'T of type Foo: undefined method `randomize' for #<Class:0x1076fbf78> is one of the errors I get. Note that its a general Class, not a Foo object... Why??

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  • HMAC URLs instead of login?

    - by Tres
    In implementing my site (a Rails site if it makes any difference), one of my design priorities is to relieve the user of the need to create yet another username and password while still providing useful per-user functionality. The way I am planning to do this is: User enters information on the site. Information is associated with the user via server-side session. User completes entering information, server sends an access URL via e-mail to the user roughly in the form of: http://siteurl/<user identifier>/<signature: HMAC(secret + salt + user identifier)> User clicks URL, site looks up user ID and salt and computes the HMAC with the server-stored secret and authenticates if the computed HMAC and signature match. My question is: is this a reasonably secure way to accomplish what I'm looking to do? Are there common attacks that would render it useless? Is there a compelling reason to abandon my desire to avoid a username/password? Is there a must-read book or article on the subject? Note that I'm not dealing with credit card numbers or anything exceedingly private, but I would still like to keep the information reasonably secure.

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  • tomcat wont start up on linux machine

    - by David
    hi, im new to linux but after spending the day i have got linux running. installed java and tomcat. my goal is host my app with this linux box i've just set up. i know it all works fine from my windows based machine but it is my laptop so i'm planning this as my dedicated server. following many many forums i've now got tomcat 7 installed. however i cannot get it to start. changing to the tomcat directory and "./startup.sh" i get output Using CATALINA_BASE: /usr/local/tomcat Using CATALINA_HOME: /usr/local.tomcat Using CATALINA_TMPDIR: /usr/local/tomcat/temp Using JRE_HOME: usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun/ Using CLASSPATH: /usr/local/tomcat/bin/bootstrap.jar:/usr/local.tomcat/bin/c\tomcat-juli.jar thats the end of theoutput. however localhost:8080 is not up. and in the tomcat log file is the error "eval: 1: usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun//bin/java: not found" hopfully there is some expert here who can help me with this problem. please note that im a novice when it comes to linux. thankyou oh and my version of linux is Ubuntu 10.04 LTS - the Lucid Lynx

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  • How do I insert null fields with Perl's DBD::Pg?

    - by User1
    I have a Perl script inserting data into Postgres according to a pipe delimited text file. Sometimes, a field is null (as expected). However, Perl makes this field into an empty string and the Postgres insert statement fails. Here's a snippet of code: use DBI; #Connect to the database. $dbh=DBI-connect('dbi:Pg:dbname=mydb','mydb','mydb',{AutoCommit=1,RaiseError=1,PrintError=1}); #Prepare an insert. $sth=$dbh-prepare("INSERT INTO mytable (field0,field1) SELECT ?,?"); while (<){ #Remove the whitespace chomp; #Parse the fields. @field=split(/\|/,$_); print "$_\n"; #Do the insert. $sth-execute($field[0],$field[1]); } And if the input is: a|1 b| c|3 EDIT: Use this input instead. a|1|x b||x c|3|x It will fail at b|. DBD::Pg::st execute failed: ERROR: invalid input syntax for integer: "" I just want it to insert a null on field1 instead. Any ideas? EDIT: I simplified the input at the last minute. The old input actually made it work for some reason. So now I changed the input to something that will make the program fail. Also note that field1 is a nullable integer datatype.

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  • Updating Embedded Video in Firefox

    - by Slevin
    I am working on a Videos page where my intention is to load a video with the page but by clicking a link, the original video will be updated and replaced with the corresponding video. For instance, if video1 loads with the page and the user clicks to view video2, the original div's innerHTML holding video1 is updated to play video2. Now, I have works great in IE and Chrome but nothing loads at all in Firefox. Below are some snippets of my code. Any idea how to load these videos in a manner that Firefox supports? Javascript Function function updateVideo(arraynum) { var arraynum; var vidId = document.anchors(arraynum).name; document.getElementById("movieDiv").innerHTML = "<object width='340' height='300'><param name='movie' value='http://www.youtube.com/v/" + vidId + "&h1=en&fs=1&color1=0x5d1719&color2=0xcd311b'></param><param name='wmode' value='opaque'></param><embed src='http://www.youtube.com/v/" + vidId + "&h1=en&fs=1&color1=0x5d1719&color2=0xcd311b' type='application/x-shockwave-flash' wmode='opaque' width='340' height='300'></embed></object>"; Html <div id = "movieDiv"> </div> Links <a name="-MQf_Ol00nk" href = "#" onclick="updateVideo(4)"><img src="../images/content/videos/kaleidoscope/2010/May/Arts-and-Events.jpg" border = "0"></a> Any help with this issue would be greatly appreciated. And on a smaller note, every time a link in clicked in IE, a '#' is added into the title bar. So clicking three or four videos would result in the page title being followed up with three or four # signs.

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  • Strange problem on some client's browsers

    - by Gustavo Cardoso
    We are fighting a strange problem on the company that I work. We created a site of a promotion to a client where its consumers can register products barcodes to win prizes. The site was created using PHP and MySQL. The site uses SSL on every form. However, some consumers report to the client's call-center they was no able make a registration at the site. We try everything, but we cannot, by no ways, reproduce the problem. The consumers reported the problem on several browsers ranging from IE8 to Firefox, the problem is same on everyone them. One co-woker this weekend was able to catch this same bug on his wife's notebook and brought her computer to the company so we could test. However, here on the company the problem didn't happened and we can make the registration normally. We suppose this problem could be a matter of encoding and special characteres like ã and ç. But we are sure that all source files are UTF8- with BOM. We also suspect of MSXml version, but we are note sure anymore. Because of legal impediments the client cannot ask the consumers to install anything on they computers to test or fix the problem. Sorry but by complience rules we also cannot share the url of the site, what is a pity. I know it is too much on vacuun, but perhaps you could had crossed something similar. Thank you

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  • LNK2019 Against CArray Add, GetAt, GetSize, all includes are present

    - by David J
    I'm having some issues trying to Compile a DLL, but I just can't see where this linking error is coming from. My LNK2019 is: Exports.obj : error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol "__declspec(dllimport) public: int __thiscall CArray<struct HWND__ *,struct HWND__ *>::Add(struct HWND__ *)" (__imp_?Add@? $CArray@PAUHWND__@@PAU1@@@QAEHPAUHWND__@@@Z) referenced in function "int __stdcall _Disable(struct HWND__ *,long)" (?_Disable@@YGHPAUHWND__@@J@Z) Disable(...) is... static BOOL CALLBACK _Disable(HWND hwnd, LPARAM lParam) { CArray<HWND, HWND>* pArr = (CHWndArray*)lParam; if(::IsWindowEnabled(hwnd) && ::IsWindowVisible(hwnd)) { pArr->Add(hwnd); ::Enable(hwnd, FALSE); } } This is the first function in Exports.cpp; right above it is #include <afxtempl.h> I have the Windows 7.1 SDK installed (and have tried reinstalling both that and VS2010). The exact same project compiles perfectly fine on other machines, so it can't be the code itself.. I've spent countless errors researching, which led to desperate attempts of just changing random values in the solution file, including different Windows headers, etc. My last resort is getting to be just reinstalling the OS completely (assuming it's actually a problem with the Windows SDK being incorrect or something). Any suggestions at all would be a huge help. EDIT: I've added /showIncludes on the cpp giving issues, and I do see afxtempl.h being included. It's being included multiple times due to other headers including it, but it is there (and it is from the same directory every time): 1> Note: including file: C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VC\atlmfc\include\afxtempl.h

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  • Why Backbone.js isn't binding my event

    - by Saif Bechan
    I have a router like this, as main entry point: window.AppRouter = Backbone.Router.extend({ routes: { '': 'login' }, login: function(){ userLoginView = new UserLoginView(); } }); var appRouter = new AppRouter; Backbone.history.start({pushState: true}); I have a model/collection/view like this: window.User = Backbone.Model.extend({}); window.Users = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: User }); window.UserLoginView = Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click #login-button': 'loginAction' }, initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render', 'loginAction'); }, loginAction: function(){ var uid = $("#login-username").val(); var pwd = $("#login-password").val(); var user = new User({uid:uid, pwd:pwd}); } }); And body of my HTML looks like this: <form action="#" method="POST" id="login-form"> <p> <label for="login-username">username</label> <input type="text" id="login-username" autofocus /> </p> <p> <label for="login-password">password</label> <input type="password" id="login-password" /> </p> <a id="login-button" href="#">Inloggen</a> </form> Note: The HTML comes from Node.js using express.js, should I maybe wait for a document ready event somewhere? Edit: I have tried this, create the view when ready, did not solve the problem. $(function(){ userLoginView = new UserLoginView(); });

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  • Clicking the mouse down to drag objects on Mac

    - by Uri
    I've been using the following code to issue clicks programmatically on a Mac void PostMouseEvent(CGMouseButton button, CGEventType type, const CGPoint point) { CGEventRef theEvent = CGEventCreateMouseEvent(NULL, type, point, button); CGEventSetType(theEvent, type); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, theEvent); CFRelease(theEvent); } void Click(const CGPoint point) { PostMouseEvent(kCGMouseButtonLeft, kCGEventMouseMoved, point); NSLog(@"Click!"); PostMouseEvent(kCGMouseButtonLeft, kCGEventLeftMouseDown, point); PostMouseEvent(kCGMouseButtonLeft, kCGEventLeftMouseUp, point); } Now, I'm trying to click down to be able to drag objects, like a scroll bar or an application's window. I'm using the following: PostMouseEvent(kCGMouseButtonLeft, kCGEventMouseMoved, point); NSLog(@"Click Down!"); PostMouseEvent(kCGMouseButtonLeft, kCGEventLeftMouseDown, point); When i ran the code above something interesting will happen, when the left mouse down is issue nothing seem to happen, I move my mouse and the window doesn't move, however when I added a mouse up event then the window jumped to the location where I supposedly dragged it. this is sort of OK, however, how do I can make the mouse click down and drag an object? Note: I do have a whole method to see when the mouse stopped moving so I can click up. please post code. Thanks

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  • Rationale of C# iterators design (comparing to C++)

    - by macias
    I found similar topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56347/iterators-in-c-stl-vs-java-is-there-a-conceptual-difference Which basically deals with Java iterator (which is similar to C#) being unable to going backward. So here I would like to focus on limits -- in C++ iterator does not know its limit, you have by yourself compare the given iterator with the limit. In C# iterator knows more -- you can tell without comparing to any external reference, if the iterator is valid or not. I prefer C++ way, because once having iterator you can set any iterator as a limit. In other words if you would like to get only few elements instead of entire collection, you don't have to alter the iterator (in C++). For me it is more "pure" (clear). But of course MS knew this and C++ while designing C#. So what are the advantages of C# way? Which approach is more powerful (which leads to more elegant functions based on iterators). What do I miss? If you have thoughts on C# vs. C++ iterators design other than their limits (boundaries), please also answer. Note: (just in case) please, keep the discussion strictly technical. No C++/C# flamewar.

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  • Unable to diligently close the excel process running in memory

    - by NewAutoUser
    I have developed a VB.Net code for retrieving data from excel file .I load this data in one form and update it back in excel after making necessary modifications in data. This complete flow works fine but most of the times I have observed that even if I close the form; the already loaded excel process does not get closed properly. I tried all possible ways to close it but could not be able to resolve the issue. Find below code which I am using for connecting to excel and let me know if any other approach I may need to follow to resolve this issue. Note: I do not want to kill the excel process as it will kill other instances of the excel Dim connectionString As String connectionString = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; Data Source=" & ExcelFilePath & "; Extended Properties=excel 8.0; Persist Security Info=False" excelSheetConnection = New ADODB.Connection If excelSheetConnection.State = 1 Then excelSheetConnection.Close() excelSheetConnection.Open(connectionString) objRsExcelSheet = New ADODB.Recordset If objRsExcelSheet.State = 1 Then objRsExcelSheet.Close() Try If TestID = "" Then objRsExcelSheet.Open("Select * from [" & ActiveSheet & "$]", excelSheetConnection, 1, 1) Else objRsExcelSheet.Open("Select Test_ID,Test_Description,Expected_Result,Type,UI_Element,Action,Data,Risk from [" & ActiveSheet & "$] WHERE TEST_Id LIKE '" & TestID & ".%'", excelSheetConnection, 1, 1) End If getExcelData = objRsExcelSheet Catch errObj As System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException MsgBox(errObj.Message, , errObj.Source) Return Nothing End Try excelSheetConnection = Nothing objRsExcelSheet = Nothing

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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