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  • tbody td borders not scrolling with content in tbody overflow:auto;

    - by tester
    I am unable to get the borders of these td's to follow their rows as I scroll through this overflow:auto; . Any ideas on a fix? Note: Setting table-layout:fixed or making rows display:block isn't an option as the rows will lose their fluidity.. You can see the issue in the latest Firefox, so I assume it's messed up elsewhere. Here is a test I setup (scroll to the bottom for the demo): http://www.webdevout.net/test?01y HTML: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Test</title> </head> <body> <table> <thead><th>One</th><th>Two</th><th>Three</th></thead> <tbody> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> </tbody> </table> </body> </html> CSS: table {width:100%;border-collapse:collapse;} tbody {height:200px;overflow:auto;} td {border-bottom:1px solid #f00;}

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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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  • Git is not using the first editor in my $PATH

    - by GuillaumeA
    I am using OS X 10.8, and I used brew to install a more recent version of emacs than the one shipped with OS X. The newer emacs binary is installed in /usr/local/bin (24.2.1), and the old "shipped-with-osx" one in /usr/bin (22.1.1). I updated my $PATH env variable by prepending /usr/local/bin to it. It works fine in my shell (ie. typing emacs runs the 24.2.1 version), but when git opens the editor, the emacs version is 22.1.1. Isn't git supposed to use $PATH to find the editor I want to use ? Additional informations: $ type -a emacs emacs is /usr/local/bin/emacs emacs is /usr/bin/emacs emacs is /usr/local/bin/emacs $ env PATH=/usr/local/bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/bin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin:/usr/local/bin SHELL=/bin/zsh PAGER=most EDITOR=emacs -nw _=/usr/bin/env Please note that I'd prefer not to set the absolute path of my editor directly in my git conf, as I use this conf across multiple systems. EDIT: Here's an bit of my .zshrc: # Mac OS X if [ `uname` = "Darwin" ]; then # Brew binaries PATH="/usr/local/bin":"/usr/local/sbin":$PATH else # Everyone else (Linux) # snip fi So, yes, I could add a line export EDITOR='/usr/local/bin emacs -nw' in the first if, but I'd like to understand why git is not using my PATH variable :)

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  • Why is UseCompatibleTextRendering needed here?

    - by HotOil
    Hi, I think I'm missing something fundamental. Please tell me what it is, if you can. I have developed a little C++ WinForms app using VS2008. So it is built using .NET 3.5 SP1. My development box is Win7, if that matters. The default value of UseCompatibleTextRendering property in WinForms controls is false in this version of VStudio. And this should not matter to me, I don't think. I don't have any custom-drawn text or controls. The app looks good running on my Win7 box. If I package it up (dragging along .NET 3.5) and install it on one of our WinXP desktops, the buttons and labels don't look good; the text is chopped off in them. If I set UseCompatibleTextRendering to true and then run it on the XP boxes, the text fits into the buttons and labels. My question is: Why? The installation puts .Net 3.5 on the XP boxes, so the app should be able to find and use the right version of WinForms, right? I should note that before I put my app + .NET 3.5 on these boxes, they have no .NET at all. They do not get automatic Microsoft updates; our IT guy gates the patches and upgrades. [ This sort of thing has happened before with apps I create.. they look/work great on the Engineering machines, because we maintain those and they mostly have up-to-date stuff. When they are run on the corporate boxes, they usually don't run and need the VCredist installed. ] Back to the question at hand: The text looks better with the UseCompatibleTextRendering set to false, so I'd rather keep it that way, if I can. I'd like to understand what might be missing on those XP boxes that is making the text not fit. Thanks S

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  • What should I do from here?

    - by Sunscreen
    Hi all, First of all, the site rocks. You can ask and get specific answers, mainly, for programming issues. This question is more generic. I studied Physics for my bachelors and Digital Image Processing for my masters, ended on September 2001. From then on I started working as a developer and software analyst. I worked, and working, witn C, C++, AIX OS, XP OS, MFC 4.21. I also did some data translations from EDIFACT to XML and viceversa. I trained users for the applications that I was running, I created documents (detailed design docs mainly), though most of the time I wrote, and I still write, code. Recently I applied for the best greek, graduate university for my MBA and they accepted me, starting on Jan 2011. I am a developer with no specific insight with the languages I work. I can be very productive with some subsets of the languages that the companies I worked for use, though this is a limited thing for a developer. If I get my MBA I can be a semi-businees analyst ot consultant, as I am now a semi-developer. The problem is that I can do some but not all in a designated working area. What should I do from here? Should I get my MBA and look forswitching industries? Should I read and excersise myself with new languages and frameworks? Should I be more focussed to the deligations from my current job (currently I work with MFC)? Just for the note, I am 32 and I feel I am wasting my time. I am not getting the best that I can get from is current position (and I work here for 3+ years). Thanks all, Sun

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  • Android newbie installing Eclipse, having issues....

    - by Jeff
    I am a web developer, new to app development and Java/Android. I am about to follow some tutorials to get started learning but I'm running into a wall. The Android dev site says the recommended way to build Android apps is in Java using the Eclipse plug in. So I downloaded Eclipse Classic and unzipped it on to get this error: "A Java Runtime Environment (JRE) or Java Development Kit (JDK) must be available in order to run Eclipse. No Java virtual machine was found after searching the following locations: /Users//Desktop/eclipse/Eclipse.app/Contents/MacOS/jre/bin/java java in your current PATH" Any idea what the issue is and how I can fix it? Again, newbie to java, jre, android, so I apologize if this question has already been asked. In my research I've discovered that most of the posts or solutions I've found are tough for me to follow. There's always a few unclear items that are probably prohibiting me from getting the answer I need. So I'm hoping someone can walk me through installing or configuring whatever I need to regarding Java so I can continue installing Eclipse and begin learning. I should probably note that I'm on Mac OSX 10.6.6 Snow Leopard. Please let me know if you need any other info. Thanks so much in advance for any and all help!!!

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  • Help with c# event listening and usercontrols

    - by Jen
    OK so I have a page which has a listview on it. Inside the item template of the listview is a usercontrol. This usercontrol is trying to trigger an event so that the hosting page can listen to it. My problem is that the event is not being triggered as the handler is null. (ie. EditDateRateSelected is my handler and its null when debugging) protected void lnkEditDate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (EditDateRateSelected != null) EditDateRateSelected(Convert.ToDateTime(((LinkButton)frmViewRatesDate.Row.FindControl("lnkEditDate")).Text)); } On the item data bound of my listvew is where I'm adding my event handlers protected void PropertyAccommodationRates1_ItemDataBound(object sender, ListViewItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListViewItemType.DataItem) { UserControls_RatesEditDate RatesViewDate1 = (UserControls_RatesEditDate)e.Item.FindControl("RatesViewDate1"); RatesViewDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); RatesViewDate1.PropertyID = (int)Master.PropertyId; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Accommodations1.SelectedValue)) { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = Convert.ToInt32(Accommodations1.SelectedValue); } else { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = 0; } RatesViewDate1.Rate = (PropertyCMSRate)((ListViewDataItem)e.Item).DataItem; } } My event code all works fine if the control is inside the page and on page load I have the line: RatesEditDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); But obviously I need listen for events inside the listviewcontrols. Any advice would be greatly appreciated. I have tried setting EnableViewState to true for my listview but that hasn't made a difference. Is there somewhere else I'm supposed to be wiring up the control handler? Note - apologies if I've got my terminology wrong and I'm referring to delegates as handlers and such :)

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  • Application Code Redesign to reduce no. of Database Hits from Performance Perspective

    - by Rachel
    Scenario I want to parse a large CSV file and inserts data into the database, csv file has approximately 100K rows of data. Currently I am using fgetcsv to parse through the file row by row and insert data into Database and so right now I am hitting database for each line of data present in csv file so currently database hit count is 100K which is not good from performance point of view. Current Code: public function initiateInserts() { //Open Large CSV File(min 100K rows) for parsing. $this->fin = fopen($file,'r') or die('Cannot open file'); //Parsing Large CSV file to get data and initiate insertion into schema. while (($data=fgetcsv($this->fin,5000,";"))!==FALSE) { $query = "INSERT INTO dt_table (id, code, connectid, connectcode) VALUES (:id, :code, :connectid, :connectcode)"; $stmt = $this->prepare($query); // Then, for each line : bind the parameters $stmt->bindValue(':id', $data[0], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':code', $data[1], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectid', $data[2], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectcode', $data[3], PDO::PARAM_INT); // Execute the statement $stmt->execute(); $this->checkForErrors($stmt); } } I am looking for a way wherein instead of hitting Database for every row of data, I can prepare the query and than hit it once and populate Database with the inserts. Any Suggestions !!! Note: This is the exact sample code that I am using but CSV file has more no. of field and not only id, code, connectid and connectcode but I wanted to make sure that I am able to explain the logic and so have used this sample code here. Thanks !!!

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  • WPF & Linq To SQL binding ComboBox to foreign key

    - by ZeroDelta
    I'm having trouble binding a ComboBox to a foreign key in WPF using Linq To SQL. It works fine when displaying records, but if I change the selection on the ComboBox, that change does not seem to affect the property to which it is bound. My SQL Server Compact file has three tables: Players (PK is PlayerID), Events (PK is EventID), and Matches (PK is MatchID). Matches has FKs for the the other two, so that a match is associated with a player and an event. My window for editing a match uses a ComboBox to select the Event, and the ItemsSource is set to the result of a LINQ query to pull all of the Events. And of course the user should be able to select the Event based on EventName, not EventID. Here's the XAML: <ComboBox x:Name="cboEvent" DisplayMemberPath="EventName" SelectedValuePath="EventID" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=EventID, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> And some code-behind from the Loaded event handler: var evt = from ev in db.Events orderby ev.EventName select ev; cboEvent.ItemsSource = evt.ToList(); var mtch = from m in db.Matches where m.PlayerID == ((Player)playerView.CurrentItem).PlayerID select m; matchView = (CollectionView)CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(mtch); this.DataContext = matchView; When displaying matches, this works fine--I can navigate from one match to the next and the EventName is shown correctly. However, if I select a new Event via this ComboBox, the CurrentItem of the CollectionView doesn't seem to change. I feel like I'm missing something stupid! Note: the Player is selected via a ListBox, and that selection filters the matches displayed--this seems to be working fine, so I didn't include that code. That is the reason for the "PlayerID" reference in the LINQ query

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  • Difference in calling redefined functions in F# and Clojure

    - by Michiel Borkent
    In F#: > let f x = x + 2;; val f : int -> int > let g x = f x;; val g : int -> int > g 10;; val it : int = 12 > let f x = x + 3;; val f : int -> int > g 10;; val it : int = 12 In Clojure: (defn f [x] (+ x 2)) (defn g [x] (f x)) (g 10) ;; => 12 (defn f [x] (+ x 3)) (g 10) ;; => 13 Note that in Clojure the most recent version of f gets called in the last line. In F# however still the old version of f is called. Why is this?

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  • Clicking the mouse down to drag objects on Mac

    - by Uri
    I've been using the following code to issue clicks programmatically on a Mac void PostMouseEvent(CGMouseButton button, CGEventType type, const CGPoint point) { CGEventRef theEvent = CGEventCreateMouseEvent(NULL, type, point, button); CGEventSetType(theEvent, type); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, theEvent); CFRelease(theEvent); } void Click(const CGPoint point) { PostMouseEvent(kCGMouseButtonLeft, kCGEventMouseMoved, point); NSLog(@"Click!"); PostMouseEvent(kCGMouseButtonLeft, kCGEventLeftMouseDown, point); PostMouseEvent(kCGMouseButtonLeft, kCGEventLeftMouseUp, point); } Now, I'm trying to click down to be able to drag objects, like a scroll bar or an application's window. I'm using the following: PostMouseEvent(kCGMouseButtonLeft, kCGEventMouseMoved, point); NSLog(@"Click Down!"); PostMouseEvent(kCGMouseButtonLeft, kCGEventLeftMouseDown, point); When i ran the code above something interesting will happen, when the left mouse down is issue nothing seem to happen, I move my mouse and the window doesn't move, however when I added a mouse up event then the window jumped to the location where I supposedly dragged it. this is sort of OK, however, how do I can make the mouse click down and drag an object? Note: I do have a whole method to see when the mouse stopped moving so I can click up. please post code. Thanks

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  • LNK2019 Against CArray Add, GetAt, GetSize, all includes are present

    - by David J
    I'm having some issues trying to Compile a DLL, but I just can't see where this linking error is coming from. My LNK2019 is: Exports.obj : error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol "__declspec(dllimport) public: int __thiscall CArray<struct HWND__ *,struct HWND__ *>::Add(struct HWND__ *)" (__imp_?Add@? $CArray@PAUHWND__@@PAU1@@@QAEHPAUHWND__@@@Z) referenced in function "int __stdcall _Disable(struct HWND__ *,long)" (?_Disable@@YGHPAUHWND__@@J@Z) Disable(...) is... static BOOL CALLBACK _Disable(HWND hwnd, LPARAM lParam) { CArray<HWND, HWND>* pArr = (CHWndArray*)lParam; if(::IsWindowEnabled(hwnd) && ::IsWindowVisible(hwnd)) { pArr->Add(hwnd); ::Enable(hwnd, FALSE); } } This is the first function in Exports.cpp; right above it is #include <afxtempl.h> I have the Windows 7.1 SDK installed (and have tried reinstalling both that and VS2010). The exact same project compiles perfectly fine on other machines, so it can't be the code itself.. I've spent countless errors researching, which led to desperate attempts of just changing random values in the solution file, including different Windows headers, etc. My last resort is getting to be just reinstalling the OS completely (assuming it's actually a problem with the Windows SDK being incorrect or something). Any suggestions at all would be a huge help. EDIT: I've added /showIncludes on the cpp giving issues, and I do see afxtempl.h being included. It's being included multiple times due to other headers including it, but it is there (and it is from the same directory every time): 1> Note: including file: C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VC\atlmfc\include\afxtempl.h

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  • access properties of current model in has_many declaration

    - by seth.vargo
    Hello, I didn't exactly know how to pose this question other than through example... I have a class we will call Foo. Foo :has_many Bar. Foo has a boolean attribute called randomize that determines the order of the the Bars in the :has_many relationship: class CreateFoo < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :foos do |t| t.string :name t.boolean :randomize, :default => false end end end   class CreateBar < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bars do |t| t.string :name t.references :foo end end end   class Bar < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :foo end   class Foo < ActiveRecord::Base # this is the line that doesn't work has_many :bars, :order => self.randomize ? 'RAND()' : 'id' end How do I access properties of self in the has_many declaration? Things I've tried and failed: creating a method of Foo that returns the correct string creating a lambda function crying Is this possible? UPDATE The problem seems to be that the class in :has_many ISN'T of type Foo: undefined method `randomize' for #<Class:0x1076fbf78> is one of the errors I get. Note that its a general Class, not a Foo object... Why??

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  • [FIXED] Scan file contents into an array of a structure.

    - by ZaZu
    Hello, I have a structure in my program that contains a particular array. I want to scan a random file with numbers and put the contents into that array. This is my code : ( NOTE : This is a sample from a bigger program, so I need the structure and arrays as declared ) The contents of the file are basically : 5 4 3 2 5 3 4 2 #include<stdio.h> #define first 500 #define sec 500 struct trial{ int f; int r; float what[first][sec]; }; int trialtest(trial *test); main(){ trial test; trialtest(&test); } int trialtest(trial *test){ int z,x,i; FILE *fin; fin=fopen("randomfile.txt","r"); for(i=0;i<5;i++){ fscanf(fin,"%5.2f\t",(*test).what[z][x]); } fclose(fin); return 0; } But the problem is, whenever this I run this code, I get this error : (25) : warning 508 - Data of type 'double' supplied where a pointer is required I tried adding do{ for(i=0;i<5;i++){ q=fscanf(fin,"%5.2f\t",(*test).what[z][x]); } }while(q!=EOF); But that didnt work either, it gives the same error. Does anyone have a solution to this problem ?

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  • Create lambda action from function expression

    - by Martin Robins
    It is relatively easy to create a lambda function that will return the value of a property from an object, even including deep properties... Func<Category, string> getCategoryName = new Func<Category, string>(c => c.Name); and this can be called as follows... string categoryName = getCategoryName(this.category); But, given only the resulting function above (or the expression originally used to create the function), can anybody provide an easy way to create the opposing action... Action<Category, string> setCategoryName = new Action<Category, string>((c, s) => c.Name = s); ...that will enable the same property value to be set as follows? setCategoryName(this.category, ""); Note that I am looking for a way to create the action programatically from the function or expression - I hope that I have shown that I already know how to create it manually. I am open to answers that work in both .net 3.5 and 4.0. Thanks.

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  • Java: any problems/negative sides of keeping SoftReference to ArrayList in HttpSession?

    - by westla7
    My code is doing the following (just as an example, and the reason that I specify package path to java.lang.ref.SoftReference is to note that it's not my own implementaiton :-): ... List<String> someData = new ArrayList<String>(); someData.add("Value1"); someData.add("Value2"); ... java.lang.ref.SoftReference softRef = new SoftReference(someData); ... HttpSession session = request.getSession(true); session.setAttribute("mySoftRefData", softRef); ... and later: ... java.lang.ref.SoftReference softRef = session.getAttribute("mySoftRefData"); if (softRef != null && softRef.get() != null) { List<String> someData = (List<String>)softRef.get(); // do something with it. } ... Any disadvantages? Which I do not see? Thank you!

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  • CALayer Border is appearing above subview (Z-order related, I think)

    - by kurisukun
    I have searched but could not find the reason for this behavior. I have a UIButton whose image I am setting. Here is how the button should appear. Note that this is just a photoshop of the intended button design: Essentially, it is a square custom UIButton with a white border and a little surrounding shadow. In the upper right corner, there is a "X" mark, that will be added programmatically as a subview. Here is the screenshot of the button within the actual app. At this point, I have only added a shadow and the X mark as a subview: How, when I try to add the white border, here is what it looks like: It seems that the white border is appearing above the X mark sublayer. I don't know why. Here is the code that I am using: // selectedPhotoButton is the UIButton with UIImage set earlier // At this point, I am adding in the shadow [selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowColor:[[UIColor lightGrayColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOffset: CGSizeMake(1.0f, 1.0f)]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowRadius:0.5f]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOpacity:1.0f]; // Now add the white border [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderWidth:2.0]; // Now add the X mark subview UIImage *deleteImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"nocheck_photo.png"]; UIImageView *deleteMark = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(53, -5, 27, 27)]; deleteMark.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFit; [deleteMark setImage:deleteImage]; [selectedPhotoButton addSubview:deleteMark]; [deleteMark release]; I don't understand why the border is appearing above the deleteMark subview. Is there any way to get the intended effect? Thank you!

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  • Problem shrinking with StretchBlt()

    - by SparkyNZ
    Hi. I have some code that paints my own rectangular buttons based on a source bitmap. Most of the time the destination buttons are bigger than my source bitmap image and StretchBlt works fine. However, when the destination is smaller than the source image, StretchBlt refuses to fill the entire destination area. I know StretchBlt isn't great on quality when it comes to scaling down images but I'm not too concerned about that. I just don't want missing pixels. Here a link with the source image at the top and destination at the bottom: link text Note, I am actually shrinking parts of the source image into the destination. I am not shrinking the entire image down. So for example, I copy the corners size for size with BitBlt() then I stretch (squash) the horizontal pixel data between the corners from the source image into the destination DC. There is no fault with my source and destination coordinates. If I change from SRCCOPY to WHITENESS, the entire area fills with white as you'd expect. There is no grey bar where pixels haven't copied as you see in the Broken.bmp image above. Has anyone had this problem before, and if so, can somebody please suggest a solution? Cheers

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  • How do I insert null fields with Perl's DBD::Pg?

    - by User1
    I have a Perl script inserting data into Postgres according to a pipe delimited text file. Sometimes, a field is null (as expected). However, Perl makes this field into an empty string and the Postgres insert statement fails. Here's a snippet of code: use DBI; #Connect to the database. $dbh=DBI-connect('dbi:Pg:dbname=mydb','mydb','mydb',{AutoCommit=1,RaiseError=1,PrintError=1}); #Prepare an insert. $sth=$dbh-prepare("INSERT INTO mytable (field0,field1) SELECT ?,?"); while (<){ #Remove the whitespace chomp; #Parse the fields. @field=split(/\|/,$_); print "$_\n"; #Do the insert. $sth-execute($field[0],$field[1]); } And if the input is: a|1 b| c|3 EDIT: Use this input instead. a|1|x b||x c|3|x It will fail at b|. DBD::Pg::st execute failed: ERROR: invalid input syntax for integer: "" I just want it to insert a null on field1 instead. Any ideas? EDIT: I simplified the input at the last minute. The old input actually made it work for some reason. So now I changed the input to something that will make the program fail. Also note that field1 is a nullable integer datatype.

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  • How to prevent multiple definitions in C?

    - by Jordi
    I'm a C newbie and I was just trying to write a console application with Code::Blocks. Here's the (simplified) code: main.c: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include "test.c" // include not necessary for error in Code::Blocks int main() { //t = test(); // calling of method also not necessary return 0; } test.c: void test() {} When I try to build this program, it gives the following errors: *path*\test.c|1|multiple definition of `_ test'| obj\Debug\main.o:*path*\test.c|1|first defined here| There is no way that I'm multiply defining test (although I don't know where the underscore is coming from) and it seems highly unlikely that the definition is somehow included twice. This is all the code there is. I've ruled out that this error is due to some naming conflict with other functions or files being called test or test.c. Note that the multiple and the first definition are on the same line in the same file. Does anyone know what is causing this and what I can do about it? Thanks!

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  • jquery mobile mPDF not rendering on form submission

    - by Adam
    Im trying to have the user submit form data to a mPDF page the will render a pdf with the data included. The problem Im having is that jquery mobile initializes the mPDF page not allowing the mPDF to render properly. Im trying to figure out how to stop jquery mobile from initializing the mPDF page. Just a note, when I remove query mobile the functionality works. HTML <form id="rxForm" method="post" action="rxPDF.php"> <input type="text" name="dueDate"></form> </form> <button id="printPDF">Submit</button> JQUERY $('#printPDF').on('click', function() { console.log('pdf'); $('#rxForm').submit(); return false; }); mPDF <?php include ("library/mpdf.php"); $dueDate = $_POST['dueDate']; $html = 'The date is '.$dueDate.''; $mpdf = new mPDF(); $mpdf->WriteHTML($html, 0); $mpdf->Output(); exit; ?> I appreciate anyone's help!

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  • The proper way to script periodically pulling a page from an https site

    - by DarthShader
    I want to create a command-line script for Cygwin/Bash that logs into a site, navigates to a specific page and compares it with the results of the last run. So far, I have it working with Lynx like so: ----snpipped, just setting variables---- echo "# Command logfile created by Lynx 2.8.5rel.5 (29 Oct 2005) ----snipped the recorded keystrokes------- key Right Arrow key p key Right Arrow key ^U" >> $tmp1 #p, right arrow initiate the page saving #"type" the filename inside the "where to save" dialog for i in $(seq 0 $((${#tmp2} - 1))) do echo "key ${tmp2:$i:1}" >> $tmp1 done #hit enter and quit echo "key ^J key y key q key y " >> $tmp1 lynx -accept_all_cookies -cmd_script=$tmp1 https://thewebpage.com/login diff $tmp2 $oldComp mv $tmp2 $oldComp It definitely does not feel "right": the cmd_script consists of relative user actions instead of specifying the exact link names and actions. So, if anything on the site ever changes, switches places, or a new link is added - I will have to re-create the actions. Also, I can't check for any errors so I can't abort the script if something goes wrong (login failed, etc) Another alternative I have been looking at is Mechanize with Ruby (as a note - I have 0 experience with Ruby). What would be the best way to improve or rewrite this?

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  • Updating Embedded Video in Firefox

    - by Slevin
    I am working on a Videos page where my intention is to load a video with the page but by clicking a link, the original video will be updated and replaced with the corresponding video. For instance, if video1 loads with the page and the user clicks to view video2, the original div's innerHTML holding video1 is updated to play video2. Now, I have works great in IE and Chrome but nothing loads at all in Firefox. Below are some snippets of my code. Any idea how to load these videos in a manner that Firefox supports? Javascript Function function updateVideo(arraynum) { var arraynum; var vidId = document.anchors(arraynum).name; document.getElementById("movieDiv").innerHTML = "<object width='340' height='300'><param name='movie' value='http://www.youtube.com/v/" + vidId + "&h1=en&fs=1&color1=0x5d1719&color2=0xcd311b'></param><param name='wmode' value='opaque'></param><embed src='http://www.youtube.com/v/" + vidId + "&h1=en&fs=1&color1=0x5d1719&color2=0xcd311b' type='application/x-shockwave-flash' wmode='opaque' width='340' height='300'></embed></object>"; Html <div id = "movieDiv"> </div> Links <a name="-MQf_Ol00nk" href = "#" onclick="updateVideo(4)"><img src="../images/content/videos/kaleidoscope/2010/May/Arts-and-Events.jpg" border = "0"></a> Any help with this issue would be greatly appreciated. And on a smaller note, every time a link in clicked in IE, a '#' is added into the title bar. So clicking three or four videos would result in the page title being followed up with three or four # signs.

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • tomcat wont start up on linux machine

    - by David
    hi, im new to linux but after spending the day i have got linux running. installed java and tomcat. my goal is host my app with this linux box i've just set up. i know it all works fine from my windows based machine but it is my laptop so i'm planning this as my dedicated server. following many many forums i've now got tomcat 7 installed. however i cannot get it to start. changing to the tomcat directory and "./startup.sh" i get output Using CATALINA_BASE: /usr/local/tomcat Using CATALINA_HOME: /usr/local.tomcat Using CATALINA_TMPDIR: /usr/local/tomcat/temp Using JRE_HOME: usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun/ Using CLASSPATH: /usr/local/tomcat/bin/bootstrap.jar:/usr/local.tomcat/bin/c\tomcat-juli.jar thats the end of theoutput. however localhost:8080 is not up. and in the tomcat log file is the error "eval: 1: usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun//bin/java: not found" hopfully there is some expert here who can help me with this problem. please note that im a novice when it comes to linux. thankyou oh and my version of linux is Ubuntu 10.04 LTS - the Lucid Lynx

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