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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • Custom Image Button and Radio/Toggle Button from Common Base Class

    - by Wonko the Sane
    Hi All, I would like to create a set of custom controls that are basically image buttons (it's a little more complex than that, but that's the underlying effect I'm going for) that I've seen a few different examples for. However, I would like to further extend that to also allow radio/toggle buttons. What I'd like to do is have a common abstract class called ImageButtonBase that has default implementations for ImageSource and Text, etc. That makes a regular ImageButton implementation pretty easy. The issue I am having is creating the RadioButton flavor of it. As I see it, there are at least three options: It would be easy to create something that derives from RadioButton, but then I can't use the abstract class I've created. I could change the abstract class to an interface, but then I lose the abstract implementations, and will in fact have duplication of code. I could derive from my abstract class, and re-implement the RadioButton-type properties and events (IsChecked, GroupName, etc.), but that certainly doesn't seem like a great idea. Note: I have seen http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2362641/how-to-get-a-group-of-toggle-buttons-to-act-like-radio-buttons-in-wpf, but what I want to do is a little more complex. I'm just wondering if anybody has an example of an implementation, or something that might be adapted to this kind of scenario. I can see pros and cons of each of the ideas above, but each comes with potential pitfalls. Thanks, wTs

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  • AIX specific socket programming query

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, Question 1 From SUSE man pages, I get the below details for socket connect options If the initiating socket is connection-mode, then connect() shall attempt to establish a connection to the address specified by the address argument. If the connection cannot be established immediately and O_NONBLOCK is not set for the file descriptor for the socket, connect() shall block for up to an unspecified timeout interval until the connection is established. If the timeout interval expires before the connection is established, connect() shall fail and the connection attempt shall be aborted. If connect() is interrupted by a signal that is caught while blocked waiting to establish a connection, connect() shall fail and set errno to [EINTR], but the connection request shall not be aborted, and the connection shall be established asynchronously. Question : Is the above contents valid for AIX OS (especially the connection time-out, timed wait ...etc)?Because I do not see it in AIX man pages (5.1 and 5.3) Question 2 I have a client socket whose attributes are a. SO_RCVTIMEO ,SO_SNDTIMEO are set for 5 seconds. b. AF_INET and SOCK_STREAM. c. SO_LINGER with linger on and time is 5 seconds. d. SO_REUSEADDR is set. Note that the client socket is not O_NONBLOCK. Question : Now since O_NONBLOCK is not set and SO_RCVTIMEO and SO_SNDTIMEO is set for 5 seconds, does it mean a. connect in NON Blocking or Blocking? b. If blocking, is it timed blocking or "infinite" time blocking? c. If it is infinite, How do I establish a "connect" system call which is O_BLOCKING with timeout to t secs. Sorry if the questions are be very naive. Thanks in advance for your input.

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  • PHP - Find a string in file then show it's line number

    - by xZero
    I have an application which needs to open the file, then find string in it, and print a line number where is string found. For example, file example.txt contains few hashes: APLF2J51 1a79a4d60de6718e8e5b326e338ae533 EEQJE2YX 66b375b08fc869632935c9e6a9c7f8da O87IGF8R c458fb5edb84c54f4dc42804622aa0c5 APLF2J51 B7TSW1ZE 1e9eea56686511e9052e6578b56ae018 EEQJE2YX affb23b07576b88d1e9fea50719fb3b7 So, I want to PHP search for "1e9eea56686511e9052e6578b56ae018" and print out its line number, in this case 4. Please note that there are will not be multiple hashes in file. I found a few codes over Internet, but none seem to work. I tried this one: <?PHP $string = "1e9eea56686511e9052e6578b56ae018"; $data = file_get_contents("example.txt"); $data = explode("\n", $data); for ($line = 0; $line < count($data); $line++) { if (strpos($data[$line], $string) >= 0) { die("String $string found at line number: $line"); } } ?> It just says that string is found at line 0.... Which is not correct.... Final application is much more complex than that... After it founds line number, it should replace string which something else, and save changes to file, then goes further processing.... Thanks in advance :)

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  • Disabling browser print options (headers, footers, margins) from page?

    - by Anthony
    I have seen this question asked in a couple of different ways on SO and several other websites, but most of them are either too specific or out-of-date. I'm hoping someone can provide a definitive answer here without pandering to speculation. Is there a way, either with CSS or javascript, to change the default printer settings when someone prints within their browser? And of course by "prints from their browser" I mean some form of HTML, not PDF or some other plug-in reliant mime-type. Please note: If some browsers offer this and others don't (or if you only know how to do it for some browsers) I welcome browser-specific solutions. Similarly, if you know of a mainstream browser that has specific restrictions against EVER doing this, that is also helpful, but some fairly up-to-date documentation would be appreciated. (simply saying "that goes against XYZ's security policy" isn't very convincing when XYZ has made significant changes in said policy in the last three years). Finally, when I say "change default print settings" I don't mean forever, just for my page, and I am referring specifically to print margins, headers, and footers. I am very aware that CSS offers the option of changing the page orientation as well as the page margins. One of the many struggles is with Firefox. If I set the page margins to 1 inch, it ADDS this to the half inch it already puts into place. I very much want to reduce the usage of PDFs on my client's site, but the infringement on presentation (as well as the lack of reliability) are their main concern.

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  • Unable to diligently close the excel process running in memory

    - by NewAutoUser
    I have developed a VB.Net code for retrieving data from excel file .I load this data in one form and update it back in excel after making necessary modifications in data. This complete flow works fine but most of the times I have observed that even if I close the form; the already loaded excel process does not get closed properly. I tried all possible ways to close it but could not be able to resolve the issue. Find below code which I am using for connecting to excel and let me know if any other approach I may need to follow to resolve this issue. Note: I do not want to kill the excel process as it will kill other instances of the excel Dim connectionString As String connectionString = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; Data Source=" & ExcelFilePath & "; Extended Properties=excel 8.0; Persist Security Info=False" excelSheetConnection = New ADODB.Connection If excelSheetConnection.State = 1 Then excelSheetConnection.Close() excelSheetConnection.Open(connectionString) objRsExcelSheet = New ADODB.Recordset If objRsExcelSheet.State = 1 Then objRsExcelSheet.Close() Try If TestID = "" Then objRsExcelSheet.Open("Select * from [" & ActiveSheet & "$]", excelSheetConnection, 1, 1) Else objRsExcelSheet.Open("Select Test_ID,Test_Description,Expected_Result,Type,UI_Element,Action,Data,Risk from [" & ActiveSheet & "$] WHERE TEST_Id LIKE '" & TestID & ".%'", excelSheetConnection, 1, 1) End If getExcelData = objRsExcelSheet Catch errObj As System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException MsgBox(errObj.Message, , errObj.Source) Return Nothing End Try excelSheetConnection = Nothing objRsExcelSheet = Nothing

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  • Why are we getting a WCF "Framing error" on some machines but not others

    - by Ian Ringrose
    We have just found we are getting “framing errors” (as reported by the WCF logs) when running our system on some customer test machine. It all works ok on our development machines. We have an abstract base class, with KnownType attributes for all its sub classes. One of it’s subclass is missing it’s DataContract attribute. However it all worked on our test machine! On the customers test machine, we got “framing error” showing up the WCF logs, this is not the error message I have seen in the past when missing a DataContract attribute, or a KnownType attribute. I wish to get to the bottom of this, as we can no longer have confidence in our ability to test the system before giving it to the customer until we can make our machines behave the some as the customer’s machines. Code that try to show what I am talking about, (not the real code) [DataContract()] [KnownType(typeof(SubClass1))] [KnownType(typeof(SubClass2))] // other subclasses with data members public abstract class Base { [DataMember] public int LotsMoreItemsThenThisInRealLife; } /// <summary> /// This works on some machines (not not others) when passed to Contract::DoIt, /// note the missing [DataContract()] /// </summary> public class SubClass1 : Base { // has no data members } /// <summary> /// This works in all cases when passed to Contract::DoIt /// </summary> [DataContract()] public class SubClass2 : Base { // has no data members } public interface IContract { void DoIt(Base[] items); } public static class MyProgram { public static IContract ConntectToServerOverWCF() { // lots of code ... return null; } public static void Startup() { IContract server = ConntectToServerOverWCF(); // this works all of the time server.DoIt(new Base[]{new SubClass2(){LotsMoreItemsThenThisInRealLife=2}}); // this works "in develperment" e.g. on our machines, but not on the customer's test machines! server.DoIt(new Base[] { new SubClass1() { LotsMoreItemsThenThisInRealLife = 2 } }); } }

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  • Forwarding HTTP Request with Direct Server Return

    - by Daniel Crabtree
    I have servers spread across several data centers, each storing different files. I want users to be able to access the files on all servers through a single domain and have the individual servers return the files directly to the users. The following shows a simple example: 1) The user's browser requests http://www.example.com/files/file1.zip 2) Request goes to server A, based on the DNS A record for example.com. 3) Server A analyzes the request and works out that /files/file1.zip is stored on server B. 4) Server A forwards the request to server B. 5) Server B returns file1.zip directly to the user without going through server A. Note: steps 4 and 5 must be transparent to the user and cannot involve sending a redirect to the user as that would violate the requirement of a single domain. From my research, what I want to achieve is called "Direct Server Return" and it is a common setup for load balancing. It is also sometimes called a half reverse proxy. For step 4, it sounds like I need to do MAC Address Translation and then pass the request back onto the network and for servers outside the network of server A tunneling will be required. For step 5, I simply need to configure server B, as per the real servers in a load balancing setup. Namely, server B should have server A's IP address on the loopback interface and it should not answer any ARP requests for that IP address. My problem is how to actually achieve step 4? I have found plenty of hardware and software that can do this for simple load balancing at layer 4, but these solutions fall short and cannot handle the kind of custom routing I require. It seems like I will need to roll my own solution. Ideally, I would like to do the routing / forwarding at the web server level, i.e. in PHP or C# / ASP.net. However, I am open to doing it at a lower level such as Apache or IIS, or at an even lower level, i.e. a custom proxy service in front of everything.

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  • Code Golf: Numeric Ranges

    - by SLaks
    Mods: Can you please make this Community Wiki? Challenge Compactify a long list of numbers by replacing consecutive runs with ranges. Example Input 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 10, 12, 13, 14, 15 Output: 1 - 4, 7, 8, 10, 12 - 15 Note that ranges of two numbers should be left as is. (7, 8; not 7 - 8) Rules You can accept a list of integers (or equivalent datatype) as a method parameter, from the commandline, or from standard in. (pick whichever option results in shorter code) You can output a list of strings by printing them, or by returning either a single string or set of strings. Reference Implementation (C#) IEnumerable<string> Sample(IList<int> input) { for (int i = 0; i < input.Count; ) { var start = input[i]; int size = 1; while (++i < input.Count && input[i] == start + size) size++; if (size == 1) yield return start.ToString(); else if (size == 2) { yield return start.ToString(); yield return (start + 1).ToString(); } else if (size > 2) yield return start + " - " + (start + size - 1); } }

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  • MediaWiki: how to hide users from the user list?

    - by Dave Everitt
    I've set up Mediawiki 1.15.1 for a client who has added two users by mistake. They now want to hide these users from the user list. It seems this is done via the $wgGroupPermissions array with $wgGroupPermissions['suppress']['hideuser'] = true;, but it isn't at all clear what entry this needs for the hiding to work, or whether a new group ('hidden' or whatever) has to be created first with $wgAddGroups['bureaucrat'] = true;. For now, I've added the two users to be hidden to the 'Oversight' group which explains 'Block a username, hiding it from the public (hideuser)', but they still appear on the Special:ListUsers page. At a loss as to how the MediWiki arrays alter options displayed in the interface, so far I've added this to LocalSettings.php: $wgGroupPermissions['suppress']['hideuser'] = true; $wgAddGroups['supress'] = true; Or - since they haven't actually added anything to the wiki - could they simply be removed from the MySQL users table - although MediaWiki warns against this? Has anyone else done this successfully? Update - this is a hole in MediaWiki admin (although there are workarounds). See this thread on MediaWIki Users and the note to the reply below.

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  • Passing objects across Appdomains

    - by MUSTAQ
    My issue is similar to the one posted in "http://stackoverflow.com/questions/981773/moving-objects-across-appdomains-in-net". In one of my application, I am creating a separate appdomain. I need to create an instance of a class (Note: this class is derived by MarshalByRefObject) in my parent domain and invoke a MethodA in that instance. This instance is created using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap". The problem is that this MethodA takes objects of type class as an argument. These objects are not created in the MethodB where i created the appdomain. It was passed as an argument to the MethodB where i create the appdomain. So is it necessary to create a new instance of these objects using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap" before passing it to the created domain. Not doing this gives me an error in the created domain mentioning that "MyClass object has no attribute foo" during some invocation. Please let me know how to pass the objects across appdomains and execute the method. My statements might be confusing, please let me know for any specific details required.

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  • Compare system date with a date field in SQL

    - by JeT_BluE
    I am trying to compare a date record in SQL Server with the system date. In my example the user first register with his name and date of birth which are then stored in the database. The user than logs into the web application using his name only. After logging in, his name is shown on the side where it says "Welcome "player name" using Sessions. What I am trying to show in addition to his name is a message saying "happy birthday" if his date of birth matches the system date. I have tried working with System.DateTime.Now, but what I think is that it is also comparing the year, and what I really want is the day and the month only. I would really appreciate any suggestion or help. CODE In Login page: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { String name = TextBox1.Text; String date = System.DateTime.Today.ToShortDateString(); SqlConnection myconn2 = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["User"].ToString()); SqlCommand cmd2 = new SqlCommand(); SqlDataReader reader; myconn2.Open(); cmd2 = new SqlCommand("Select D_O_B from User WHERE Username = @username", myconn2); cmd2.Parameters.Add("@username", SqlDbType.NVarChar).Value = name; cmd2.Connection = myconn2 cmd2.ExecuteNonQuery(); reader = cmd2.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read().ToString() == date) { Session["Birthday"] = "Happy Birthday"; } } Note: I using the same reader in the code above this one, but the reader here is with a different connection. Also, reader.Read() is different than reader.HasRows? Code in Web app Page: string date = (string)(Session["Birthday"]); // Retrieving the session Label6.Text = date;

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  • Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

    - by Joe White
    Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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  • xmldocument and nested schemas

    - by Stuart
    Using c# and .net 3.5 I'm trying to validate an xml document against a schema that has includes. The schemas and there includes are as below Schema1.xsd - include another.xsd another.xsd - include base.xsd When i try to add the Schema1.xsd to the XmlDocument i get the following error. Type 'YesNoType' is not declared or is not a simple type. I believe i'm getting this error because the base.xsd file is not being included when i load the Schema1.xsd schema. I'm trying to use the XmlSchemaSet class and I'm setting the XmlResolver uri to the location of the schemas. NOTE : All schemas live under the same directory E:\Dev\Main\XmlSchemas Here is the code string schemaPath = "E:\\Dev\\Main\\XmlSchemas"; XmlDocument xmlDocSchema = new XmlDocument(); XmlSchemaSet s = new XmlSchemaSet(); XmlUrlResolver resolver = new XmlUrlResolver(); Uri baseUri = new Uri(schemaPath); resolver.ResolveUri(null, schemaPath); s.XmlResolver = resolver; s.Add(null, XmlReader.Create(new System.IO.StreamReader(schemaPath + "\\Schema1.xsd"), new XmlReaderSettings { ValidationType = ValidationType.Schema, XmlResolver = resolver }, new Uri(schemaPath).ToString())); xmlDocSchema.Schemas.Add(s); ValidationEventHandler valEventHandler = new ValidationEventHandler (ValidateNinoDobEvent); try { xmlDocSchema.LoadXml(xml); xmlDocSchema.Validate(valEventHandler); } catch (XmlSchemaValidationException xmlValidationError) { // need to interogate the Validation Exception, for possible further // processing. string message = xmlValidationError.Message; return false; } Can anyone point me in the right direction regarding validating an xmldocument against a schema with nested includes.

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  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help. EDIT I should note that my question is not just aimed at interposing over standard C library functions, but also functions contained in other libraries, perhaps 3rd party, perhaps ones created in-house. Essentially, I want to catch any instance of interpositioning regardless of where the interposed function resides.

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  • Recreating a workflow instance with the same instance id

    - by Miron Brezuleanu
    We have some objects that have an associated workflow instance. The objects are identified with a GUID, which is also the GUID of the workflow instance associated with the object. We need to restart (see NOTE 3 for the meaning of 'restart') the workflow instance if the workflow definition changed (there is no state in the workflow itself and it is written to support restarting in this manner). The restarting is performed by calling Terminate on the WorkflowInstance, then recreating the instance with the same GUID. The weird part is that this works every other attempt (odd attempts - the workflow is stopped, but for some reason doesn't restart, even attempt - the already terminated workflow is recreated and started successfully). While I admit that using 'second hand' GUIDs is a sign of extraordinary cheapness (and something we plan to change), I'm wondering why this isn't working. Any ideas? NOTES: The terminated workflow instance is passivated (waiting for a notification) at the time of the termination. The Terminate call successfully deletes the data persisted in the database for that instance. We're using 'restarting' with a meaning that's less common in the context of WF - not restarting a passivated instance, but force the workflow to start again from the beginning of its definition. Thanks!

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  • C++ AI Design Question

    - by disney
    Hi, I am currently writing a bot for a MMORPG. Though, currently I am stuck at trying to figure out how to nicely implement this. The design problem is related to casting the character spells in the correct order. Here is a simple example to what I need to archieve. It's not related to casting them, but doing it in the correct order. I would know how simply cast them randomly, by checking which skill has not yet been casted, but in right order as being shown in the GUI, not really. note: the skill amount may differ, it's not always 3, maximum 10 though. Charactername < foobar has 3 skills. Skill 1: Name ( random1 ) cooldown ( 1000 ms ) cast duration ( 500 ms ) Skill 2: Name ( random2 ) cooldown ( 1500 ms ) cast duration ( 700 ms ) Skill 3: Name ( random3 ) cooldown ( 2000 ms ) cast duration ( 900 ms ) I don't really know how I could implement this, if anyone has some thoughts, feel free to share. I do know that most of the people don't like the idea of cheating in games, I don't like it either, nor I am actually playing the game, but its an interesting field for me. Thank you.

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  • How to Populate a 'Tree' structure 'Declaratively'

    - by mackenir
    I want to define a 'node' class/struct and then declare a tree of these nodes in code in such a way that the way the code is formatted reflects the tree structure, and there's not 'too much' boiler plate in the way. Note that this isn't a question about data structures, but rather about what features of C++ I could use to arrive at a similar style of declarative code to the example below. Possibly with C++0X this would be easier as it has more capabilities in the area of constructing objects and collections, but I'm using Visual Studio 2008. Example tree node type: struct node { string name; node* children; node(const char* name, node* children); node(const char* name); }; What I want to do: Declare a tree so its structure is reflected in the source code node root = node("foo", [ node("child1"), node("child2", [ node("grand_child1"), node("grand_child2"), node("grand_child3" ]), node("child3") ]); NB: what I don't want to do: Declare a whole bunch of temporary objects/colls and construct the tree 'backwards' node grandkids[] = node[3] { node("grand_child1"), node("grand_child2"), node("grand_child3" }; node kids[] = node[3] { node("child1"), node("child2", grandkids) node("child3") }; node root = node("foo", kids);

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  • rbind.zoo doesn't seem create consistent zoo object

    - by a-or-b
    I want to rbind.zoo two zoo object together. When I was testing I came across the following issue(?)... Note: The below is an example, there is clearly no point to it apart from being illustrative. I have an zoo object, call it, 'X'. I want to break it into two parts and then rbind.zoo them together. When I compare it to the original object then all.equal gives differences. It appears that the '$class' attribute differs, but I can't see how or why. Is I make these xts objects then the all.equal works as expected. i.e. ..... X.date <- as.POSIXct(paste("2003-", rep(1:4, 4:1), "-", sample(1:28, 10, replace = TRUE), sep = "")) X <- zoo(matrix(rnorm(24), ncol = 2), X.date) a <- X[c(1:3), ] # first 3 elements b <- X[c(4:6), ] # second 3 elements c <- rbind.zoo(a, b) # rbind into an object of 6 elements d <- X[c(1:6), ] # all 6 elements all.equal(c, d) # are they equal? ~~~~ all.equal gives me the following difference: "Attributes: < Component 3: Attributes: < Length mismatch: comparison on first 1 components "

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  • WPF & Linq To SQL binding ComboBox to foreign key

    - by ZeroDelta
    I'm having trouble binding a ComboBox to a foreign key in WPF using Linq To SQL. It works fine when displaying records, but if I change the selection on the ComboBox, that change does not seem to affect the property to which it is bound. My SQL Server Compact file has three tables: Players (PK is PlayerID), Events (PK is EventID), and Matches (PK is MatchID). Matches has FKs for the the other two, so that a match is associated with a player and an event. My window for editing a match uses a ComboBox to select the Event, and the ItemsSource is set to the result of a LINQ query to pull all of the Events. And of course the user should be able to select the Event based on EventName, not EventID. Here's the XAML: <ComboBox x:Name="cboEvent" DisplayMemberPath="EventName" SelectedValuePath="EventID" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=EventID, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> And some code-behind from the Loaded event handler: var evt = from ev in db.Events orderby ev.EventName select ev; cboEvent.ItemsSource = evt.ToList(); var mtch = from m in db.Matches where m.PlayerID == ((Player)playerView.CurrentItem).PlayerID select m; matchView = (CollectionView)CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(mtch); this.DataContext = matchView; When displaying matches, this works fine--I can navigate from one match to the next and the EventName is shown correctly. However, if I select a new Event via this ComboBox, the CurrentItem of the CollectionView doesn't seem to change. I feel like I'm missing something stupid! Note: the Player is selected via a ListBox, and that selection filters the matches displayed--this seems to be working fine, so I didn't include that code. That is the reason for the "PlayerID" reference in the LINQ query

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  • Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

    - by Sarah
    Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

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  • Invoking a SOAP ( Web Services ) from ORACLE DB

    - by Mousarules
    Dears, Kindly note that I’m trying to invoke a SOAP (web services) from ORACLE DB using pl\sql , after I have done some investigations it says that I have to use the UTL_HTTP package but It didn't work with me !!! Kindly to advice me , where should I exactly place the following SOAP in pl\SQL to be invoked .... is it posible ? SOAP 1.1 The following is a sample SOAP 1.1 request and response. The placeholders shown need to be replaced with actual values. POST /gmgwebservice/service.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: bulk.umniah.com Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "http://tempuri.org/SendSMS" <SendSMS xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <UserName>string</UserName> <Password>string</Password> <MessageBody>string</MessageBody> <Sender>string</Sender> <Destination>string</Destination> </SendSMS> HTTP/1.1 200 OK Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length <SendSMSResponse xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <SendSMSResult>string</SendSMSResult> </SendSMSResponse> --This web services refers to a web site called Bulk Messaging ; the web site sends SMS to a specific mobile number by filling in some text boxes , I need it to be done from ORACLE forms when a specific action occurs ( JOB ) but I don’t know how to use it inside my pl\sql code . Hope that it’s clear ,is there something else I have to mention ?

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  • DotNetOpenAuth getting return_To url as the provider

    - by Jeff
    I have a provider that I'm upgrading from version 2 to version 3. basically a user comes to one of our sites and we say "if you don't have an openID sign up with this one" They click that and are sent to our in house provider what signs them up for an account and has to verify their email address. In the link I send via Email I included the return to url . This way when they click the link to verify their email (sometimes up to a week later) they are sent to our page that knows to send them back to the returnTo to login. I could not find a good way to do this in version 2 so I used a hack. Sadly this hack broke in version 2 so I'm completely stumped as to how to find the login page url that is the return_To Note: I need the full URL not just the domain. old hack: if (ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest != null) { req = ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest.ToString(); int startpos = req.LastIndexOf("CheckIdRequest.ReturnTo = '"); startpos += "CheckIdRequest.ReturnTo = '".Length; int endpos = req.LastIndexOf("token=") - startpos-1; if (endpos > 0) { req = req.Substring(startpos, endpos); } else { log.Fatal("Missing token in url" + ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest.ToString()); return "~/"; } req = req.Replace("&internalLogin=True", ""); req = req.Replace("?internalLogin=True&", "?"); req = req.Replace("?internalLogin=True", ""); }

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  • Inline function v. Macro in C -- What's the Overhead (Memory/Speed)?

    - by Jason R. Mick
    I searched Stack Overflow for the pros/cons of function-like macros v. inline functions. I found the following discussion: Pros and Cons of Different macro function / inline methods in C ...but it didn't answer my primary burning question. Namely, what is the overhead in c of using a macro function (with variables, possibly other function calls) v. an inline function, in terms of memory usage and execution speed? Are there any compiler-dependent differences in overhead? I have both icc and gcc at my disposal. My code snippet I'm modularizing is: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = AttractiveTerm * AttractiveTerm; EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); My reason for turning it into an inline function/macro is so I can drop it into a c file and then conditionally compile other similar, but slightly different functions/macros. e.g.: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,9); EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); (note the difference in the second line...) This function is a central one to my code and gets called thousands of times per step in my program and my program performs millions of steps. Thus I want to have the LEAST overhead possible, hence why I'm wasting time worrying about the overhead of inlining v. transforming the code into a macro. Based on the prior discussion I already realize other pros/cons (type independence and resulting errors from that) of macros... but what I want to know most, and don't currently know is the PERFORMANCE. I know some of you C veterans will have some great insight for me!!

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  • How to allow all except part 1 and part 2 ?

    - by Stackfan
    This allows me to get easyly dynamic input variables instead of putting a static prefix like /en/etcetcetc, but the problem is all controllers are blocked. Everything goes to index/index. Question: How can i tell this rule allow evertying as it is now, but do not track if it contains http://site.com/donotcatch/me and http://site.com/iamnotbelongstodynamic1/blabla protected function _initRoutes() { ... $dynamic1 = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( '/:variable0/:variable1', array( 'controller' => 'index', 'action' => 'index'), array( 'variable0' => '^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$', 'variable1' => '^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$', ) ); Follow up: Normally, i always belive yes we can, so, we can do that like this where dynamic1 does not the inter-fare with my other static controllers: // http://site/yeswecan/blabla // variable0 = yeswecan // variable1 = blabla $dynamic1 = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( '/:variable0/:variable1', array( 'controller' => 'index', 'action' => 'index'), array( 'variable0' => '^[a-zA-Z]*$', 'variable1' => '^[a-z0-9_]*$', ) ); // http://site/ajax/whatever... // solves it $dynamic2 = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( '/ajax/:variable0', array( 'controller' => 'ajax', 'action' => '' ), array( 'variable0' => '^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$', ) ); // http://site/order/whatever... // solves it $dynamic3 = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( '/order/:variable0', array( 'controller' => 'order', 'action' => ''), array( 'variable0' => '^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$', ) ); Note: Still the controllers are getting failed for example http://site/ajax/whatever always goes to /ajax/index where i wanted to send it as /ajax/user-inserted-value How can i fix the $dynamic2 and $dynamic3 by keeping $dynamic1 ??

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