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  • window.location.href not working in Safari when using onkeypress

    - by insanepaul
    I'm using an asp textbox and a search button. In Safari if I click the search button i get redirected to the search results page using javascript window.location.href. But strangely the same javascript will not redirect to the page if I press return in the textbox. Using the alert function I can see that window.location.href has the the correct url and the location bar at the top changes from the search page(default.aspx) to the search results url however when I click OK to the alert box the url at the top reverts back to the default.aspx page. It works on ie7/8/firefox/chrome but not safari. Here is my javascript,cs and aspx code: function submitSearchOnEnter(e) { var CodeForEnter = 13; var codeEnteredByUser; if (!e) var e = window.event; if (e.keyCode) codeEnteredByUser = e.keyCode; else if (e.which) codeEnteredByUser = e.which; if (codeEnteredByUser == CodeForEnter) RedirectToSearchPage(); } function RedirectToSearchPage() { var searchText = $get('<%=txtHeaderSearch.ClientID%>').value if (searchText.length) { window.location.href = "Search.aspx?searchString=" + searchText; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { txtHeaderSearch.Attributes.Add("onkeypress", "submitSearchOnEnter(event)"); } <asp:Panel ID="pnlSearch" runat="server" DefaultButton="lnkSearch"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtHeaderSearch" runat="server" CssClass="searchBox"></asp:TextBox> <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkSearch" OnClientClick="RedirectToSearchPage(); return false;" CausesValidation="false" runat="server" CssClass="searchButton"> SEARCH </asp:LinkButton> </asp:Panel> I've tried return false; which doesn't allow me to enter any characters in the search box. I've spent ages online trying to find a solution. Maybe it has something to do with setTimeout or setTimeInterval but it didn't work unless i did it wrong.

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  • PHP - Database schema: version control, branching, migrations.

    - by Billiam
    I'm trying to come up with (or find) a reusable system for database schema versioning in php projects. There are a number of Rails-style migration projects available for php. http://code.google.com/p/mysql-php-migrations/ is a good example. It uses timestamps for migration files, which helps with conflicts between branches. General problem with this kind of system: When development branch A is checked out, and you want to check out branch B instead, B may have new migration files. This is fine, migrating to newer content is straight forward. If branch A has newer migration files, you would need to migrate downwards to the nearest shared patch. If branch A and B have significantly different code bases, you may have to migrate down even further. This may mean: Check out B, determine shared patch number, check out A, migrate downwards to this patch. This must be done from A since the actual applied patches are not available in B. Then, checkout branch B, and migrate to newest B patch. Reverse process again when going from B to A. Proposed system: When migrating upwards, instead of just storing the patch version, serialize the whole patch in database for later use, though I'd probably only need the down() method. When changing branches, compare patches that have been run to patches that are available in the destination branch. Determine nearest shared patch (or oldest difference, maybe) between db table of run patches and patches in destination branch by ID or hash. Could also look for new or missing patches that are buried under a number of shared patches between the two branches. Automatically merge down to the nearest shared patch, using the db table stored down() methods, and then merge up to the branche's latest patch. My question is: Is this system too crazy and/or fraught with consequences to bother developing? My experience with database schema versioning is limited to PHP autopatch, which is an up()-only system requiring filenames with sequential IDs.

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  • Two different seeds producing the same "random" sequence

    - by Ruud Lenders
    Maybe there is a very logic explanation for this, but I just can't seem to understand why the seeds 0 and 2,147,483,647 produce the same "random" sequence, using .NET's Random Class (System). Quick code example: ushort len = 8; Random r0 = new Random(0), r1 = new Random(1), r2 = new Random(int.MaxValue); //2,147,483,647 byte[] b0 = new byte[len], b1 = new byte[len], b2 = new byte[len]; r0.NextBytes(b0); r1.NextBytes(b1); r2.NextBytes(b2); for (int i = 0; i < len; i++) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("{0}\t\t{1}\t\t{2}", b0[i], b1[i], b2[i]); } Console.ReadLine(); Output: 26 70 26 12 208 12 70 134 76 111 130 111 93 64 93 117 151 115 228 228 228 216 163 216 As you can see, the first and the third sequence are the same. Can someone please explain this to me?

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  • MS Access: Why is ADODB.Recordset.BatchUpdate so much slower than Application.ImportXML?

    - by apenwarr
    I'm trying to run the code below to insert a whole lot of records (from a file with a weird file format) into my Access 2003 database from VBA. After many, many experiments, this code is the fastest I've been able to come up with: it does 10000 records in about 15 seconds on my machine. At least 14.5 of those seconds (ie. almost all the time) is in the single call to UpdateBatch. I've read elsewhere that the JET engine doesn't support UpdateBatch. So maybe there's a better way to do it. Now, I would just think the JET engine is plain slow, but that can't be it. After generating the 'testy' table with the code below, I right clicked it, picked Export, and saved it as XML. Then I right clicked, picked Import, and reloaded the XML. Total time to import the XML file? Less than one second, ie. at least 15x faster. Surely there's an efficient way to insert data into Access that doesn't require writing a temp file? Sub TestBatchUpdate() CurrentDb.Execute "create table testy (x int, y int)" Dim rs As New ADODB.Recordset rs.CursorLocation = adUseServer rs.Open "testy", CurrentProject.AccessConnection, _ adOpenStatic, adLockBatchOptimistic, adCmdTableDirect Dim n, v n = Array(0, 1) v = Array(50, 55) Debug.Print "starting loop", Time For i = 1 To 10000 rs.AddNew n, v Next i Debug.Print "done loop", Time rs.UpdateBatch Debug.Print "done update", Time CurrentDb.Execute "drop table testy" End Sub I would be willing to resort to C/C++ if there's some API that would let me do fast inserts that way. But I can't seem to find it. It can't be that Application.ImportXML is using undocumented APIs, can it?

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  • Creating queries using Criteria API (JPA 2.0)

    - by Pym
    Hello there ! I'm trying to create a query with the Criteria API from JPA 2.0, but I can't make it work. The problem is with the "between" conditionnal method. I read some documentation to know how I have to do it, but since I'm discovering JPA, I don't understand why it does not work. First, I can't see "creationDate" which should appear when I write "Transaction_." I thought it was maybe normal, since I read the metamodel was generated at runtime, so I tried to use 'Foo_.getDeclaredSingularAttribute("value")' instead of 'Foo_.value', but it still doesn't work at all. Here is my code : public List<Transaction> getTransactions(Date startDate, Date endDate) { EntityManager em = getEntityManager(); try { CriteriaBuilder cb = em.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<Transaction> cq = cb.createQuery(Transaction.class); Metamodel m = em.getMetamodel(); EntityType<Transaction> Transaction_ = m.entity(Transaction.class); Root<Transaction> transaction = cq.from(Transaction.class); // Error here. cannot find symbol. symbol: variable creationDate cq.where(cb.between(transaction.get(Transaction_.creationDate), startDate, endDate)); // I also tried this: // cq.where(cb.between(Transaction_.getDeclaredSingularAttribute("creationDate"), startDate, endDate)); List<Transaction> result = em.createQuery(cq).getResultList(); return result; } finally { em.close(); } } Can someone help me to figure this out? Thanks.

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  • Is it possible to use OAuth starting from the service provider website?

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I want to let people create apps that use my API and authenticate them with OAuth. Normally this process starts from the consumer service website (say TwitPic) and they request an access token from the service provider (Twitter). The user is then taken to the service provider website where they have to allow/deny access to to the consumer. I'm wondering if it's possible to initiate this process from the service provider website instead. So in this example you would start on Twitter's site, and maybe there is a section marked "do you want to turn on access for TwitPic?". If you click yes, it passes the access token directly to TwitPic which now has access to your account. Basically, fewer steps. I'm looking at the OAuth docs and it looks like the request token is generated on the consumer side and used later to turn it into an access token. So it's not really designed with what I described above in mind, but I thought there might be a way. http://oauth.net/core/1.0/ (Search for "steps") Thanks!

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  • jQuery - Could use a little help with a content loader

    - by Kenny Bones
    Hi, I'm not very elite when it comes to JavaScript, especially the syntax. So I'm trying to learn. And in this process I'm trying to implement a content loader that basically removes all content from a div and inserts content from another div from a different document. I've tried to do this on this site: www.matkalenderen.no - Check the butt ugly link there. See what happens? I've taken the example from this site: http://nettuts.s3.cdn.plus.org/011_jQuerySite/sample/index.html#index But I'm not sure this example actually works the way I think it does. I mean, if the code just wipes out existing content from a div and inserts content from another div, why does the other webpages in this example include doctype and heading etc etc? Wouldn't you just need the div and it's content? Without all the other stuff "around"? Maybe I don't get how this works though. Thought it worked mosly like include really. This is my code however: $(document).ready(function() { var hash = window.location.hash.substr(1); var href = $('#dynloader a').each(function(){ var href = $(this).attr('href'); if(hash==href.substr(0,href.length-5)){ var toLoad = hash+'.html #container'; $('#container').load(toLoad) } }); $('#dynloader a').click(function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #container'; $('#container').hide('fast',loadcontainer); $('#load').remove(); $('#wrapper').append('<span id="load">LOADING...</span>'); $('#load').fadeIn('normal'); window.location.hash = $(this).attr('href').substr(0,$(this).attr('href').length-5); function loadcontainer() { $('#container').load(toLoad,'',showNewcontainer()) } function showNewcontainer() { $('#container').show('normal',hideLoader()); } function hideLoader() { $('#load').fadeOut('normal'); } return false; }); });

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  • Are lambda expressions/delegates in C# "pure", or can they be?

    - by Bob
    I recently asked about functional programs having no side effects, and learned what this means for making parallelized tasks trivial. Specifically, that "pure" functions make this trivial as they have no side effects. I've also recently been looking into LINQ and lambda expressions as I've run across examples many times here on StackOverflow involving enumeration. That got me to wondering if parallelizing an enumeration or loop can be "easier" in C# now. Are lambda expressions "pure" enough to pull off trivial parallelizing? Maybe it depends on what you're doing with the expression, but can they be pure enough? Would something like this be theoretically possible/trivial in C#?: Break the loop into chunks Run a thread to loop through each chunk Run a function that does something with the value from the current loop position of each thread For instance, say I had a bunch of objects in a game loop (as I am developing a game and was thinking about the possibility of multiple threads) and had to do something with each of them every frame, would the above be trivial to pull off? Looking at IEnumerable it seems it only keeps track of the current position, so I'm not sure I could use the normal generic collections to break the enumeration into "chunks". Sorry about this question. I used bullets above instead of pseudo-code because I don't even know enough to write pseudo-code off the top of my head. My .NET knowledge has been purely simple business stuff and I'm new to delegates and threads, etc. I mainly want to know if the above approach is good for pursuing, and if delegates/lambdas don't have to be worried about when it comes to their parallelization.

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  • Speed vs security vs compatibility over methods to do string concatenation in Python

    - by Cawas
    Similar questions have been brought (good speed comparison there) on this same subject. Hopefully this question is different and updated to Python 2.6 and 3.0. So far I believe the faster and most compatible method (among different Python versions) is the plain simple + sign: text = "whatever" + " you " + SAY But I keep hearing and reading it's not secure and / or advisable. I'm not even sure how many methods are there to manipulate strings! I could count only about 4: There's interpolation and all its sub-options such as % and format and then there's the simple ones, join and +. Finally, the new approach to string formatting, which is with format, is certainly not good for backwards compatibility at same time making % not good for forward compatibility. But should it be used for every string manipulation, including every concatenation, whenever we restrict ourselves to 3.x only? Well, maybe this is more of a wiki than a question, but I do wish to have an answer on which is the proper usage of each string manipulation method. And which one could be generally used with each focus in mind (best all around for compatibility, for speed and for security). Thanks.

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  • Subscription website architecture questions + SQL Server & .NET

    - by chopps
    Hey Guys, I have a few questions about the architecture of a subscription service I am about to embark on and I am looking for some feedback on how best to set it up. I won’t have a large amount of customers as Basecamp, maybe a few hundred and was wondering what would be a solid architecture for setting up the customer sites. I’m running SQL Server and .NET on a dedicated machine. Should create a new database for each customer as to have control and isolation of data or keep them all in one database? I am also thinking of creating a sub-domain for each customer as well so modifications can be made to each site as needed. The customer URLs would look like this: https://customer1.foobar.com https://customer2.foobar.com I am going to have the ability to ‘plug-in’ reports that will be uploaded to the site so each customer can customize as needed. Off the top of my head this necessitates having each sub domain on its own code-base for the uploading of these reports. So on the main site the customer would sign up for their new subscription and I would programmatically create a new directory for the customer from the main code base and then create a sub domain pointing to the new directory for the customer and then finally their database. Does this sound about right? Am I on the right track? How do other such sites accomplish the same thing? Thanks for letting me bend your ear for a bit on this.

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  • DNS-Based Environment Determination

    - by zvolkov
    Found the following here. The questions is: where can I find more details on how exactly implement this on Windows? Any guide or how-to anybody? Or maybe you can provide your invaluable suggestions? Specifically, how do I make so that "all QA servers would first resolve entries in qa.example.com first and then if that lookup failed they would try example.com" (I'm a dev, not a DNS specialist, but our IT Support has refused to help on this:() Use DNS Based Environment Determination for your servers. Do this by initially splitting your top level domain into a number of sub domains depending on their function, and then creating DNS Service Names in each of the sub domains pointing to the relevant server for that service. Based on the list above we would then have: * clientdb.prod.example.com for Production * clientdb.perf.example.com for Performance Testing * clientdb.qa.example.com for QA * clientdb.dev.example.com for Development Servers then resolve entries in their relevant sub domain by function. That is, all QA servers would first resolve entries in qa.example.com first and then if that lookup failed they would try example.com. This allows you to have a single configuration entry for your client database hostname (clientdb) that would resolve correctly in all environments. This technique has the added advantage of still having global services defined in a common top level domain. Here's one related (but not equivalent) SO question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/774490/dns-resolving-based-on-client-ip This seems to be related to Providing "split horizon" DNS service. Reading that, I see that I will probably need separate DNS Server for each environment. Is this true or does Windows support some form of "tagging" the records to be visible depending on the requestor's IP? Also, cross-posted on ServerFault

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  • Javascript: prototypal inheritance and the prototype property

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function? Edit by the Creator of the Question: These two links helped a lot too: Prototypes_in_JavaScript on the spheredev wiki explains the way the prototype property works relativily simple. What it lacks is some try-out code examples. Some good examples are provided by Morris John's Article. I personally find the explanations are not that easy as in the first link, but still very good. The most difficult part even after I actually got it is really not to confuse the .prototype propery with the internal [[Prototype]] of an object.

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  • Delphi How to wait for socket answer inside procedure?

    - by Astronavigator
    For some specific needs i need to create procedure that waits for socket request (or answer) in dll: TForm1 = class(TForm) ServerSocket1: TServerSocket; ...... procedure MyWaitProc; stdcall; begin Go := false; while not Go do begin // Wating... // Application.ProcessMessages; // Works with this line end; end; procedure TForm1.ServerSocket1ClientRead(Sender: TObject; Socket: TCustomWinSocket); begin MessageBoxA(0, PAnsiChar('Received: '+Socket.ReceiveText), '', MB_OK); Go := true; end; exports MyWaitProc; When I call Application.ProcessMessages everything works fine: application waits for request and then continues. But in my case calling Application.ProcessMessages causes to unlocking main form on host application (not dll's one). When I don't call Application.ProcessMessages application just hangs couse it cannot handle message... So, how to create such a procedure that's wating for socket answer ? Maybe there a way to wait for socket answer without using Application.ProcessMessages ? EDIT I also tried to use TIdTCPServer, for some reasons, the result is the same. TForm1 = class(TForm) IdTCPServer1: TIdTCPServer; ..... procedure MyWaitProc; stdcall; begin Go := false; while not Go do begin // Waiting ... // Application.ProcessMessages; end; end; procedure TForm1.IdTCPServer1Execute(AContext: TIdContext); var s: string; begin s := AContext.Connection.Socket.ReadString(1); AllText := AllText + s; Go := True; end;

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  • Hot to make COM ActiveX object work in IE 64 bit?

    - by Kurtevich
    Hi! I have a COM object embeded in ASP.NET page using <object classid="clsid:XXX...">. It works in IE 32 bit, but does not work in IE 64 bit - can't access its functions. There are no error messages, no event logs where I can get some information. The dll is in C#, includes COM visible class, compiled for Any CPU (though I also tried x86), and registered during client installation by executing regasm. This creates registry keys, well everything works fine except for IE 64. I searched internet about the issue or at least some guidlines and didn't find anything. I received an answer on another forum, something about _MERGE_PROXYSTUB (I guess it's preprocessor definition?) and ProxyStubClsid32 registry key, but not very detailed. Well, I searched again, didn't find much, and experimented: rebuilt with _MERGE_PROXYSTUB defined, created ProxyStubClsid32 keys everywhere, but with no result. What can be at least possible solutions or points to look at? Maybe there is a way at least to get the logs about why IE 64 can't access it?

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  • How to compile Open Flash Chart v.1?

    - by geehertush01
    Let me just say, that I'm a total beginner in anything related to flash. I would like to compile latest version of OFC1 (v.1.9.7). It can be downloaded here: link. Unfortunately no tutorial of how to do it can be found anywhere. I succeeded in compiling OFC2 (v.Lug-Wyrm-Charmer). I installed FlashDevelop, then I found .proj file in the OFC2 package, opened it in FlashDevelop and built the project. It worked fine (although I had to fix some code errors, but it was simple). Unfortunately there is no project file in OFC1 package. I tried to create a new project (Project-New Project-AS3 Project). It created .proj file and few folders (src,bin...). I deleted 'Main.as' from 'src' folder. Then I copied all files from 'actionscript' folder from OFC1 to 'src' project folder. I opened the project and set 'open-flash-char.as' as Document Class (right click on the file in the project tree and 'Set Document Class'). Then I tried to build the project, but got an syntax error with (in 'open-flash-char.as'): #include "prototype.drawCircle.as" #include "prototype.fillCircle.as" #include "String.prototype.replace.as" So I removed "#" signs. But then I got an error ...\ofc1\projtest4\src\open-flash-chart.as: Error: A file found in a source-path must have an externally visible definition. If a definition in the file is meant to be externally visible, please put the definition in a package. I have no idea of how to continue. Maybe I'm doing everything wrong, because OFC1 is written in AS2 (probably), not AS3. I don't know. So my question is: How to compile OFC v.1.9.7?

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  • Invert linear linked list

    - by ArtWorkAD
    Hi, a linear linked list is a set of nodes. This is how a node is defined (to keep it easy we do not distinguish between node an list): class Node{ Object data; Node link; public Node(Object pData, Node pLink){ this.data = pData; this.link = pLink; } public String toString(){ if(this.link != null){ return this.data.toString() + this.link.toString(); }else{ return this.data.toString() ; } } public void inc(){ this.data = new Integer((Integer)this.data + 1); } public void lappend(Node list){ Node child = this.link; while(child != null){ child = child.link; } child.link = list; } public Node copy(){ if(this.link != null){ return new Node(new Integer((Integer)this.data), this.link.copy()); }else{ return new Node(new Integer((Integer)this.data), null); } } public Node invert(){ Node child = this.link; while(child != null){ child = child.link; } child.link = this;.... } } I am able to make a deep copy of the list. Now I want to invert the list so that the first node is the last and the last the first. The inverted list has to be a deep copy. I started developing the invert function but I am not sure. Any Ideas? Update: Maybe there is a recursive way since the linear linked list is a recursive data structure. I would take the first element, iterate through the list until I get to a node that has no child and append the first element, I would repeat this for the second, third....

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  • How to define index by several columns in hibernate entity?

    - by foobar
    Morning. I need to add indexing in hibernate entity. As I know it is possible to do using @Index annotation to specify index for separate column but I need an index for several fields of entity. I've googled and found jboss annotation @Table, that allows to do this (by specification). But (I don't know why) this functionality doesn't work. May be jboss version is lower than necessary, or maybe I don't understant how to use this annotation, but... complex index is not created. Why index may not be created? jboss version 4.2.3.GA Entity example: package somepackage; import org.hibernate.annotations.Index; import javax.persistence.Column; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.GeneratedValue; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity @org.hibernate.annotations.Table(appliesTo = House.TABLE_NAME, indexes = { @Index(name = "IDX_XDN_DFN", columnNames = {House.XDN, House.DFN} ) } ) public class House { public final static String TABLE_NAME = "house"; public final static String XDN = "xdn"; public final static String DFN = "dfn"; @Id @GeneratedValue private long Id; @Column(name = XDN) private long xdn; @Column(name = DFN) private long dfn; @Column private String address; public long getId() { return Id; } public void setId(long id) { this.Id = id; } public long getXdn() { return xdn; } public void setXdn(long xdn) { this.xdn = xdn; } public long getDfn() { return dfn; } public void setDfn(long dfn) { this.dfn = dfn; } public String getAddress() { return address; } public void setAddress(String address) { this.address = address; } } When jboss/hibernate tries to create table "house" it throws following exception: Reason: org.hibernate.AnnotationException: @org.hibernate.annotations.Table references an unknown table: house

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  • StringTokenizer split at "<br/>"

    - by AnAmuser
    Maybe I am stupid but I don't understand why the behaviour of StringTokenizer here: import static org.apache.commons.lang.StringEscapeUtils.escapeHtml; String object = (String) value; String escaped = escapeHtml(object); StringTokenizer tokenizer = new StringTokenizer(escaped, escapeHtml("<br/>")); If fx. value is Hej<br/>$user.get(0).name Har vundet<br/><table border='1'><tr><th>Name</th><th>Played</th><th>Brewed</th></tr>#foreach( $u in $user )<tr><td>$u.name</td> <td>$u.played</td> <td>$u.brewed</td></tr>#end</table><br/> Then the result is Hej $use . e (0).name Ha vunde a e o de ='1' h Name h h P ayed h h B ewed h #fo each( $u in $use ) d $u.name d d $u.p ayed d d $u. ewed d #end a e It makes no sense to me. How can I make it behave as I expect to.

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  • ViewModel updates after Model server roundtrip

    - by Pavel Savara
    I have stateless services and anemic domain objects on server side. Model between server and client is POCO DTO. The client should become MVVM. The model could be graph of about 100 instances of 20 different classes. The client editor contains diverse tab-pages all of them live-connected to model/viewmodel. My problem is how to propagate changes after server round-trip nice way. It's quite easy to propagate changes from ViewModel to DTO. For way back it would be possible to throw away old DTO and replace it whole with new one, but it will cause lot of redrawing for lists/DataTemplates. I could gather the server side changes and transmit them to client side. But the names of fields changed would be domain/DTO specific, not ViewModel specific. And the mapping seems nontrivial to me. If I should do it imperative way after round-trip, it would break SOC/modularity of viewModels. I'm thinking about some kind of mapping rule engine, something like automappper or emit mapper. But it solves just very plain use-cases. I don't see how it would map/propagate/convert adding items to list or removal. How to identify instances in collections so it could merge values to existing instances. As well it should propagate validation/error info. Maybe I should implement INotifyPropertyChanged on DTO and try to replay server side events on it ? And then bind ViewModel to it ? Would binding solve the problems with collection merges nice way ? Is EventAgregator from PRISM useful for that ? Is there any event record-replay component ? Is there better client side pattern for architecture with server side logic ?

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  • jQuery Validation error...

    - by Povylas
    Hi, I have been struggling with this jQuery Validation Plugin. Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var validator = $('#signup').validate({ errorElement: 'span', rules: { username: { required: true, minlenght: 6 //remote: "check-username.php" }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, confirm_password: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, email: { required: true, email: true }, agree: "required" }, messages: { username: { required: "Please enter a username", minlength: "Your username must consist of at least 6 characters" //remote: "Somenoe have already chosen nick like this." }, password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long" }, confirm_password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long", equalTo: "Please enter the same password as above" }, email: "Please enter a valid email address", agree: "Please accept our policy" } }); var root = $("#wizard").scrollable({size: 1, clickable: false}); // some variables that we need var api = root.scrollable(); $("#data").click(function() { validator.form(); }); // validation logic is done inside the onBeforeSeek callback api.onBeforeSeek(function(event, i) { if($("#signup").valid() == false){ return false; }else{ return true; } $("#status li").removeClass("active").eq(i).addClass("active"); }); //if tab is pressed on the next button seek to next page root.find("button.next").keydown(function(e) { if (e.keyCode == 9) { // seeks to next tab by executing our validation routine api.next(); e.preventDefault(); } }); $('button.fin').click(function(){ parent.$.fn.fancybox.close() }); }); </script> And here is the error: $.validator.methods[method] is undefined http://www.vvv.vhost.lt/js/jquery-validate/jquery.validate.min.js Line 15 I am completely confused... Maybe some kind of handler is needed? I would be grateful for any kind of answer.

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  • Efficient cron job utilizing Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap.

    - by fireeyedboy
    I'm new to the IMAP protocol and Zend_Mail_Storage and I'm writing a small php script for a cron job that should regularly poll an IMAP account and check for new messages, and send an e-mail if new messages have arrived. As you can imagine, I want to only poll the IMAP account for relevant messages, and I only want to send a new e-mail if new messages have arrived since the last polled new message. So I thought of keeping track of the last message I polled with some unique identifier for a message. But I'm a bit uncertain about whether the methods I want to utilize for this do what I expect them to do though. So my questions are: Does the iterator position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap actually resemble some IMAP unique identifier for messages, or is it simply only and internal position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? For instance, if I tell it to seek() to message 5 (which I stored from an earlier session) will it indeed seek to the appropriate message on the IMAP server, even if for instance messages have been deleted since last session? Would keeping track of this latest polled message id in a file suffice for a cron job that, say, polls the account every 5 or 10 minutes? Or is this too naive, and should I be using a database for instance. Or is there maybe a much easier way to keep track of such state with Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? Also, do I need to poll every IMAP folder? Or is everything accumulated when I poll INBOX? If you could shed some light on any of these matters, I'ld appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

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  • Design suggestions for creating document management structure using hidden shares.

    - by focus.nz
    I need to add some document management functionality into my software. Documents will be grouped by company name and project name. The folders need to be accessed by the application using the id numbers of clients/projects, but also easily browsed by the end user using windows explorer. Clients and Projects will be stored in a database. I am thinking of having the software create the folders using the friendly name and then using a hidden share with the id number for the software to access the files. The folder structure would be something like this --Company 1 (Company-1234$) -- Project 101 (Project-101$) -- Project 102 (Project-102$) -- Project 103 (Project-103$) -- Company 2 (Company-5678$) -- Project 201 (Project-201$) -- Project 202 (Project-202$) -- Project 203 (Project-203$) So in the example above there would be a company called "Company 1" with a ID of "1234". When browsing the folders using windows explorer the user would see \\ServerName\Documents\Company1 and you could also access the same folder from \\ServerName\Documents\Company-1234$ By using the hidden share, if the company name changes or its renamed for some reason it doesn't break the link in the application because its using the hidden shared based on the ID that never changes. Will having hundreds (maybe thousands) or hidden shares on a server provide a huge performance hit? Does any one have any suggestions or alternatives to provide this feature?

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  • Is using SharePoint as a intranet/extranet portal a good idea?

    - by Rob
    I work for a fortune 500 company in IT and we have developed many systems/applications to do a variety of things. We are in need of some commonality of these applications and a better portal/dashboard/landing page for these applications. So, our customers and employees would log into this portal and see all the "things" that they can do which then link to their own application. This could maybe just iframe in each application inside of this portal to keep brand and navigation consistency. We are trying to decide whether to use SharePoint 2007 or 2010 for this or develop a portal/dashboard of sorts in house. We would like this portal to look and feel very branded to our needs and really not even feel like its using SharePoint (if needed). An example is to provide our own Menu control that drives the navigation if needed. Does anyone have any pros/cons for using SharePoint in such a way? Any advice on implementation (e.g. use 2010, much easier to customize design than 2007, etc)?

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  • Floating point precision in Visual C++

    - by Luigi Giaccari
    HI, I am trying to use the robust predicates for computational geometry from Jonathan Richard Shewchuk. I am not a programmer, so I am not even sure of what I am saying, I may be doing some basic mistake. The point is the predicates should allow for precise aritmthetic with adaptive floating point precision. On my computer: Asus pro31/S (Core Due Centrino Processor) they do not work. The problem may stay in the fact the my computer may use some improvements in the floating point precision taht conflicts with the one used by Shewchuk. The author says: /* On some machines, the exact arithmetic routines might be defeated by the / / use of internal extended precision floating-point registers. Sometimes / / this problem can be fixed by defining certain values to be volatile, / / thus forcing them to be stored to memory and rounded off. This isn't / / a great solution, though, as it slows the arithmetic down. */ Now what I would like to know is that there is a way, maybe some compiler option, to turn off the internal extended precision floating-point registers. I really appriaciate your help

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  • Generating All Permutations of Character Combinations when # of arrays and length of each array are

    - by Jay
    Hi everyone, I'm not sure how to ask my question in a succinct way, so I'll start with examples and expand from there. I am working with VBA, but I think this problem is non language specific and would only require a bright mind that can provide a pseudo code framework. Thanks in advance for the help! Example: I have 3 Character Arrays Like So: Arr_1 = [X,Y,Z] Arr_2 = [A,B] Arr_3 = [1,2,3,4] I would like to generate ALL possible permutations of the character arrays like so: XA1 XA2 XA3 XA4 XB1 XB2 XB3 XB4 YA1 YA2 . . . ZB3 ZB4 This can be easily solved using 3 while loops or for loops. My question is how do I solve for this if the # of arrays is unknown and the length of each array is unknown? So as an example with 4 character arrays: Arr_1 = [X,Y,Z] Arr_2 = [A,B] Arr_3 = [1,2,3,4] Arr_4 = [a,b] I would need to generate: XA1a XA1b XA2a XA2b XA3a XA3b XA4a XA4b . . . ZB4a ZB4b So the Generalized Example would be: Arr_1 = [...] Arr_2 = [...] Arr_3 = [...] . . . Arr_x = [...] Is there a way to structure a function that will generate an unknown number of loops and loop through the length of each array to generate the permutations? Or maybe there's a better way to think about the problem? Thanks Everyone!

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