Search Results

Search found 13891 results on 556 pages for 'maybe homework'.

Page 446/556 | < Previous Page | 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453  | Next Page >

  • How to change type of information for a Title column in SharePoint MOSS 2007 List?

    - by Ruba
    I created a calendar in SharePoint MOSS 2007 that is connected to my Outlook. I added a custom column “Person” to this list and the type of information in this column is: Person or Group. In SharePoint I can hide Title column and in Calendar View show this Person field as Month View Title. So I can see on the calendar who is working that day. Problem is in Outlook. It seems like Outlook doesn’t know a thing about custom fields. In Outlook I can see only Title and few other fields. I could rename Title field to Person, but I can’t change type of information that it contains. By default it is text field and no way to change it to Person or Group. If I could change those “default” column types, then I think my problem would be solved. I know it is possible. I created a custom list, but this list has also those “sticky” Title, Created By and Modified By columns that can’t be changed or removed. Maybe I have to create a custom list with some other program or code? Please help! Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Running directx SDK samples on a Windows Mobile 6.1 device

    - by Sil
    I tried to run the directx samples from ..\Windows Mobile 6 SDK\Samples\PocketPC\CPP\win32\directx\d3dm\tutorials on a Samsung Omnia and on the emulator and it doesn't work because of a deployment error. I am using Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 and have installed Windows Mobile SDK Standard and Professional refresh. The device is correctly plugged in and set up for active sync (I know this because other samples work, also a creating Win32 smart device application and running it works). When I try to run a directx sample application it compiles without errors but the message: " There were deployment errors, Continue? Yes/No" appears If I manually copy the application from the debug folder to the device and run it from there, it works. The same deployment error message appears if I try it on an emulator. Other applications are deploying successfully. Is there any way to make the deployment work? Maybe there is an obscure option I need to set... What I do is: Connect the Mobile device to the PC, Open Visual Studio 2008, Open a directx sample project, Click Run (in Debug or Release mode).

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc - reusing pages/controllers in workflow

    - by fregas
    I have 2 workflows: 1) the user signs up for the first time. They see 3 different screens, their basic user information, their credit card, and some additional profile information. They complete these 3 steps in a wizard like fashion, where each time they hit "submit" they leave the current screen and move on to the next. 2) the user already is signed up. He has links in the navigation to these 3 seperate pages. He can update them in any order. When he hits save, he doesn't leave the page he's on, it just shows something at the top that says "Credit Card Info saved..." or whatever. Possibly using ajax or maybe a full page refresh. I would like to reuse the code not only the view but also in the controller for these 3 screens between the two workflows, but without a ton of if...then logic to determine where to go next depending on whether its a first signup in the wizard or updating individual parts of a profile. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Django: How can I delete a formset entry if one of it's data is blank?

    - by mkret
    Hi, I have the following scenario: I have a form with data that does not need translation and a formset with a textfield that should be translated into an undefined amount of languages. Both parts are bound to a model. Each translated text is kept in a model with a foreign key that binds it to the untranslatable data. Something like: class Person(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=60) birth_date = models.DateField() class PersonBio(models.Model): person = models.ForeignKey(Person) locale = models.CharField(max_length=10) bio = models.TextField() Each form in the formset has 2 fields: A textfield (with the translated text) A locale field (with the language into which the text was translated) I've got it working with no problems until I tryed to change it's normal behaviour. I wanted to eliminate the need for the DELETE field by deleting an instance of the translated text if the textfield was left blank. I've googled quite a lot now and read the whole documentation for forms, formsets and model validation but had no luck. To be honest, I couldn't even think of a solution. Where should I implement this? On a Form clean() method? On the view? Somewhere in the Fieldset? Fieldset's save() method, maybe? I'll keep trying to find a way to do that, but any help/tip/clue is appreciated. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Apache multiple URL to one domain redirect

    - by Christian Moser
    For the last two day, I've been spending a lot of time to solve my problem, maybe someone can help me. Problem: I need to redirect different url's to one tomcat webbase-dir used for artifactory. following urls should point to the tomcat/artifactory webapp: maven-repo.example.local ; maven-repo.example.local/artifactory ; srv-example/artifactory Where maven-repo.example.local is the dns for the server-hostname: "srv-example" I'm accessing the tomcat app through the JK_mod module. The webapp is in the ROOT directory This is what I've got so far: <VirtualHost *:80> #If URL contains "artifactory" strip down and redirect RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^\artifactory\$ [NC] # (how can I remove 'artifactory' from the redirected parameters? ) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://maven-repo.example.local/$1 [R=301,L] ServerName localhost ErrorLog "logs/redirect-error_log" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName maven-repo.example.local ErrorLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-error.log" CustomLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-access.log" common #calling tomcat webapp in ROOT JkMount /* ajp13w </VirtualHost> The webapp is working with "maven-repo.example.local", but with "maven-repo.example.local/artifactory" tomcat gives a 404 - "The requested resource () is not available." It seems that the mod_rewrite doesn't have taken any effect, even if I redirect to another page, e.g google.com I'm testing on windows 7 with maven-repo.example.local added in the "system32/drivers/hosts" file Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Image File In Text Editor - What Are The Characters? What's the Process?

    - by TheDarkIn1978
    i'm currently in the process of conceptualizing an art piece for a gallery show next year, so this bizarre question of mine is more than just simple curiosity. if i open up an image file (a .PNG) with Text Edit or Note Pad, the file is presented in textual characters. something like this except: æº"í=™?0Ù:Ã,ÏI8^?K¯pmDHƒÃ?;wÔlD DDF›ä™èÜE[E˜ƒê?¯ƒºäeèçã?'ów+æ1ï‡ê0òHõñ?ò$úîù¥{WÎn}2*Ÿ!y(Ö!%2e9U2µ i4Õ(?=ù(›7}:É?##„G¶VfcVñ[÷D6gvrˆvéZN›=Ù=ó{púp…p?Ók‹oÃvŒÛ»{ùœóüôøW†W–VH\P?P$VTPt^lQ‹_B_S=Q™\Z[Ü)s/{]Œ_û]~¯¿¯Awu˜ùä’JÖ Í*tï[’ÎáÔ=<Æ6?~ZCWSÛpVµ?±ØŒ?nÆ^¨æ??™¡?a¥ë£1µÒÁ#?Gè)G<^mRl™m?jˆj~€"“R–Úª’?u?çO-•m˜â?ìéväˆàˆOä5ùXùûù”]¬]?]›V›œ{X{Óˆ|Ô’Èm{J?4‰Èáæõ}??~Á?óºYáœåüuRFÆ>W|^3Ñ5‰94=,<ú?|1b=2< >ö:?sÃ`¨{úf<f|ÛÖ?ãÊ íâ–âè/_÷O¬}Â?Í›§Ãd’kÃkØ?sSíS? ??øy;-6]ˆ?÷ÌÌÙåËLÈ,l÷uvzNtÆt6Ô6?O ?P?_t_|°N¸]Ÿ{ƒ{è˜3KK> ?x~ò[ñ\ÆXA?x?Ãî?X? ?…°”¸™‘jÂzÕkm~]jObµ·p1°Y‚s?&b”}s?ãËóí-»ñ”÷‰?‡v?ˆ˜WõØ£??æe~;¸n?Ooáa'aÁÎÌ-ª$ª!ª~ ?¨‹CÏpÏO/Á›œ/?80<Ë<§8 can anyone explain what is happening here? are the characters some form translation of pixel data by the text editor? maybe it is completely meaningless / an error? if not, is there a name for this type of data conversion or process?

    Read the article

  • Floating point precision in Visual C++

    - by Luigi Giaccari
    HI, I am trying to use the robust predicates for computational geometry from Jonathan Richard Shewchuk. I am not a programmer, so I am not even sure of what I am saying, I may be doing some basic mistake. The point is the predicates should allow for precise aritmthetic with adaptive floating point precision. On my computer: Asus pro31/S (Core Due Centrino Processor) they do not work. The problem may stay in the fact the my computer may use some improvements in the floating point precision taht conflicts with the one used by Shewchuk. The author says: /* On some machines, the exact arithmetic routines might be defeated by the / / use of internal extended precision floating-point registers. Sometimes / / this problem can be fixed by defining certain values to be volatile, / / thus forcing them to be stored to memory and rounded off. This isn't / / a great solution, though, as it slows the arithmetic down. */ Now what I would like to know is that there is a way, maybe some compiler option, to turn off the internal extended precision floating-point registers. I really appriaciate your help

    Read the article

  • Javascript: prototypal inheritance and the prototype property

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function? Edit by the Creator of the Question: These two links helped a lot too: Prototypes_in_JavaScript on the spheredev wiki explains the way the prototype property works relativily simple. What it lacks is some try-out code examples. Some good examples are provided by Morris John's Article. I personally find the explanations are not that easy as in the first link, but still very good. The most difficult part even after I actually got it is really not to confuse the .prototype propery with the internal [[Prototype]] of an object.

    Read the article

  • Hot to make COM ActiveX object work in IE 64 bit?

    - by Kurtevich
    Hi! I have a COM object embeded in ASP.NET page using <object classid="clsid:XXX...">. It works in IE 32 bit, but does not work in IE 64 bit - can't access its functions. There are no error messages, no event logs where I can get some information. The dll is in C#, includes COM visible class, compiled for Any CPU (though I also tried x86), and registered during client installation by executing regasm. This creates registry keys, well everything works fine except for IE 64. I searched internet about the issue or at least some guidlines and didn't find anything. I received an answer on another forum, something about _MERGE_PROXYSTUB (I guess it's preprocessor definition?) and ProxyStubClsid32 registry key, but not very detailed. Well, I searched again, didn't find much, and experimented: rebuilt with _MERGE_PROXYSTUB defined, created ProxyStubClsid32 keys everywhere, but with no result. What can be at least possible solutions or points to look at? Maybe there is a way at least to get the logs about why IE 64 can't access it?

    Read the article

  • Invert linear linked list

    - by ArtWorkAD
    Hi, a linear linked list is a set of nodes. This is how a node is defined (to keep it easy we do not distinguish between node an list): class Node{ Object data; Node link; public Node(Object pData, Node pLink){ this.data = pData; this.link = pLink; } public String toString(){ if(this.link != null){ return this.data.toString() + this.link.toString(); }else{ return this.data.toString() ; } } public void inc(){ this.data = new Integer((Integer)this.data + 1); } public void lappend(Node list){ Node child = this.link; while(child != null){ child = child.link; } child.link = list; } public Node copy(){ if(this.link != null){ return new Node(new Integer((Integer)this.data), this.link.copy()); }else{ return new Node(new Integer((Integer)this.data), null); } } public Node invert(){ Node child = this.link; while(child != null){ child = child.link; } child.link = this;.... } } I am able to make a deep copy of the list. Now I want to invert the list so that the first node is the last and the last the first. The inverted list has to be a deep copy. I started developing the invert function but I am not sure. Any Ideas? Update: Maybe there is a recursive way since the linear linked list is a recursive data structure. I would take the first element, iterate through the list until I get to a node that has no child and append the first element, I would repeat this for the second, third....

    Read the article

  • puzzled with java if else performance

    - by user1906966
    I am doing an investigation on a method's performance and finally identified the overhead was caused by the "else" portion of the if else statement. I have written a small program to illustrate the performance difference even when the else portion of the code never gets executed: public class TestIfPerf { public static void main( String[] args ) { boolean condition = true; long time = 0L; int value = 0; // warm up test for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } // benchmark if condition only time = System.nanoTime(); for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "1) performance " + time ); time = System.nanoTime(); // benchmark if else condition for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "2) performance " + time ); } } and run the test program with java -classpath . -Dmx=800m -Dms=800m TestIfPerf. I performed this on both Mac and Linux Java with 1.6 latest build. Consistently the first benchmark, without the else is much faster than the second benchmark with the else section even though the code is structured such that the else portion is never executed because of the condition. I understand that to some, the difference might not be significant but the relative performance difference is large. I wonder if anyone has any insight to this (or maybe there is something I did incorrectly). Linux benchmark (in nano) performance 1215488 performance 2629531 Mac benchmark (in nano) performance 1667000 performance 4208000

    Read the article

  • Creating and publishing exel file in MOSS 2007 using data from SQL sever.

    - by Diomos
    Hello, I need help in this matter: We have a template of exel file in which all calculations are already set. User can request a 'report'. Idea is to create a button on our site (SharePoint portal). After clicking on it a new exel file is generated. This means to get actual data from database (SQL server 2005 SP2), import them into template, let all calculations to generate proper data and then allow user to see this file. For now it's enough to publish final exel file in document library. I am quite new in WSS 3.0 and MOSS 2007 and I need some advice in what can be the best solution. Looks like a quite complex task for me. Is there some direct way how to accomplish this? Or maybe I need one tool to get data from database and to import this data into exel file (SSRS?) and other tool to publish it in document library (MOSS7 Exel services?). I heard something about PerformancePoint Server 2007, is this a way to follow? Thanks forward for any advice!

    Read the article

  • ViewModel updates after Model server roundtrip

    - by Pavel Savara
    I have stateless services and anemic domain objects on server side. Model between server and client is POCO DTO. The client should become MVVM. The model could be graph of about 100 instances of 20 different classes. The client editor contains diverse tab-pages all of them live-connected to model/viewmodel. My problem is how to propagate changes after server round-trip nice way. It's quite easy to propagate changes from ViewModel to DTO. For way back it would be possible to throw away old DTO and replace it whole with new one, but it will cause lot of redrawing for lists/DataTemplates. I could gather the server side changes and transmit them to client side. But the names of fields changed would be domain/DTO specific, not ViewModel specific. And the mapping seems nontrivial to me. If I should do it imperative way after round-trip, it would break SOC/modularity of viewModels. I'm thinking about some kind of mapping rule engine, something like automappper or emit mapper. But it solves just very plain use-cases. I don't see how it would map/propagate/convert adding items to list or removal. How to identify instances in collections so it could merge values to existing instances. As well it should propagate validation/error info. Maybe I should implement INotifyPropertyChanged on DTO and try to replay server side events on it ? And then bind ViewModel to it ? Would binding solve the problems with collection merges nice way ? Is EventAgregator from PRISM useful for that ? Is there any event record-replay component ? Is there better client side pattern for architecture with server side logic ?

    Read the article

  • Are lambda expressions/delegates in C# "pure", or can they be?

    - by Bob
    I recently asked about functional programs having no side effects, and learned what this means for making parallelized tasks trivial. Specifically, that "pure" functions make this trivial as they have no side effects. I've also recently been looking into LINQ and lambda expressions as I've run across examples many times here on StackOverflow involving enumeration. That got me to wondering if parallelizing an enumeration or loop can be "easier" in C# now. Are lambda expressions "pure" enough to pull off trivial parallelizing? Maybe it depends on what you're doing with the expression, but can they be pure enough? Would something like this be theoretically possible/trivial in C#?: Break the loop into chunks Run a thread to loop through each chunk Run a function that does something with the value from the current loop position of each thread For instance, say I had a bunch of objects in a game loop (as I am developing a game and was thinking about the possibility of multiple threads) and had to do something with each of them every frame, would the above be trivial to pull off? Looking at IEnumerable it seems it only keeps track of the current position, so I'm not sure I could use the normal generic collections to break the enumeration into "chunks". Sorry about this question. I used bullets above instead of pseudo-code because I don't even know enough to write pseudo-code off the top of my head. My .NET knowledge has been purely simple business stuff and I'm new to delegates and threads, etc. I mainly want to know if the above approach is good for pursuing, and if delegates/lambdas don't have to be worried about when it comes to their parallelization.

    Read the article

  • StringTokenizer split at "<br/>"

    - by AnAmuser
    Maybe I am stupid but I don't understand why the behaviour of StringTokenizer here: import static org.apache.commons.lang.StringEscapeUtils.escapeHtml; String object = (String) value; String escaped = escapeHtml(object); StringTokenizer tokenizer = new StringTokenizer(escaped, escapeHtml("<br/>")); If fx. value is Hej<br/>$user.get(0).name Har vundet<br/><table border='1'><tr><th>Name</th><th>Played</th><th>Brewed</th></tr>#foreach( $u in $user )<tr><td>$u.name</td> <td>$u.played</td> <td>$u.brewed</td></tr>#end</table><br/> Then the result is Hej $use . e (0).name Ha vunde a e o de ='1' h Name h h P ayed h h B ewed h #fo each( $u in $use ) d $u.name d d $u.p ayed d d $u. ewed d #end a e It makes no sense to me. How can I make it behave as I expect to.

    Read the article

  • Drawing to the canvas

    - by Mattl
    I'm writing an android application that draws directly to the canvas on the onDraw event of a View. I'm drawing something that involves drawing each pixel individually, for this I use something like: for (int x = 0; x < xMax; x++) { for (int y = 0; y < yMax; y++){ MyColour = CalculateMyPoint(x, y); canvas.drawPoint(x, y, MyColour); } } The problem here is that this takes a long time to paint as the CalculateMyPoint routine is quite an expensive method. Is there a more efficient way of painting to the canvas, for example should I draw to a bitmap and then paint the whole bitmap to the canvas on the onDraw event? Or maybe evaluate my colours and fill in an array that the onDraw method can use to paint the canvas? Users of my application will be able to change parameters that affect the drawing on the canvas. This is incredibly slow at the moment.

    Read the article

  • Multiple Ruby versions on one webserver?

    - by Legion
    The Ideal Using rvm, it would be awesome to be able to have multiple Rubies on one webserver, and through some sort of server configuration, be able to assign Ruby versions to different Rails/Sinatra/etc apps on a per-project basis. I am aware, from rvm's documentation, that Passenger only works with one Ruby at a time. :( The Compromise Failing that, it would be nice to at least be able to concoct a way to be able to assign projects to a Ruby 1.8 or a Ruby 1.9 interpreter. I've read that using Nginx as a reverse proxy allows running Apache and Nginx on the same box. Would it then be possible to have Apache+Passenger using one Ruby, and Nginx+Passenger using a different one? Maybe use something other than Passenger with Nginx? Am I Barking Up the Wrong Tree? Am I missing a good solution to this issue? Am I walking into a nightmare configuration situation? Is what I want even viable, or is it necessary to run another box to run a separate Ruby version?

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validation error...

    - by Povylas
    Hi, I have been struggling with this jQuery Validation Plugin. Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var validator = $('#signup').validate({ errorElement: 'span', rules: { username: { required: true, minlenght: 6 //remote: "check-username.php" }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, confirm_password: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, email: { required: true, email: true }, agree: "required" }, messages: { username: { required: "Please enter a username", minlength: "Your username must consist of at least 6 characters" //remote: "Somenoe have already chosen nick like this." }, password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long" }, confirm_password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long", equalTo: "Please enter the same password as above" }, email: "Please enter a valid email address", agree: "Please accept our policy" } }); var root = $("#wizard").scrollable({size: 1, clickable: false}); // some variables that we need var api = root.scrollable(); $("#data").click(function() { validator.form(); }); // validation logic is done inside the onBeforeSeek callback api.onBeforeSeek(function(event, i) { if($("#signup").valid() == false){ return false; }else{ return true; } $("#status li").removeClass("active").eq(i).addClass("active"); }); //if tab is pressed on the next button seek to next page root.find("button.next").keydown(function(e) { if (e.keyCode == 9) { // seeks to next tab by executing our validation routine api.next(); e.preventDefault(); } }); $('button.fin').click(function(){ parent.$.fn.fancybox.close() }); }); </script> And here is the error: $.validator.methods[method] is undefined http://www.vvv.vhost.lt/js/jquery-validate/jquery.validate.min.js Line 15 I am completely confused... Maybe some kind of handler is needed? I would be grateful for any kind of answer.

    Read the article

  • AppEngine JDO-QL : Problem with multiple AND and OR in query

    - by KlasE
    Hi, I'm working with App Engine(Java/JDO) and are trying to do some querying with lists. So I have the following class: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION, detachable="true") public class MyEntity { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) Key key; @Persistent List<String> tags = new ArrayList<String>(); @Persistent String otherVar; } The following JDO-QL works for me: ( tags.contains('a') || tags.contains('b') || tags.contains('c') || tags.contains('d') ) && otherVar > 'a' && otherVar < 'z' This seem to return all results where tags has one or more strings with one or more of the given values and together with the inequality search on otherVar But the following do not work: (tags.contains('a') || tags.contains('_a')) && (tags.contains('b') || tags.contains('_b')) && otherVar > 'a' && otherVar < 'z' In this case I want all hits where there is at least one a (either a or _a) and one b (either b or _b) together with the inequality search as before. But the problem is that I also get back the results where there is a but no b, which is not what I want. Maybe I have missed something obvious, or done a coding error, or possibly there is a restriction on how you can write these queries in appengine, so any tips or help would be very welcome. Regards Klas

    Read the article

  • Good patterns for loose coupling in Java?

    - by Eye of Hell
    Hello. I'm new to java, and while reading documentation so far i can't find any good ways for programming with loose coupling between objects. For majority of languages i know (C++, C#, python, javascript) i can manage objects as having 'signals' (notification about something happens/something needed) and 'slots' (method that can be connected to signal and process notification/do some work). In all mentioned languages i can write something like this: Object1 = new Object1Class(); Object2 = new Object2Class(); Connect( Object1.ItemAdded, Object2.OnItemAdded ); Now if object1 calls/emits ItemAdded, the OnItemAdded method of Object2 will be called. Such loose coupling technique is often referred as 'delegates', 'signal-slot' or 'inversion of control'. Compared to interface pattern, technique mentioned don't need to group signals into some interfaces. Any object's methods can be connected to any delegate as long as signatures match ( C++Qt even extends this by allowing only partial signature match ). So i don't need to write additional interface code for each methods / groups of methods, provide default implementation for interface methods not used etc. And i can't see anything like this in Java :(. Maybe i'm looking a wrong way?

    Read the article

  • jQuery - Could use a little help with a content loader

    - by Kenny Bones
    Hi, I'm not very elite when it comes to JavaScript, especially the syntax. So I'm trying to learn. And in this process I'm trying to implement a content loader that basically removes all content from a div and inserts content from another div from a different document. I've tried to do this on this site: www.matkalenderen.no - Check the butt ugly link there. See what happens? I've taken the example from this site: http://nettuts.s3.cdn.plus.org/011_jQuerySite/sample/index.html#index But I'm not sure this example actually works the way I think it does. I mean, if the code just wipes out existing content from a div and inserts content from another div, why does the other webpages in this example include doctype and heading etc etc? Wouldn't you just need the div and it's content? Without all the other stuff "around"? Maybe I don't get how this works though. Thought it worked mosly like include really. This is my code however: $(document).ready(function() { var hash = window.location.hash.substr(1); var href = $('#dynloader a').each(function(){ var href = $(this).attr('href'); if(hash==href.substr(0,href.length-5)){ var toLoad = hash+'.html #container'; $('#container').load(toLoad) } }); $('#dynloader a').click(function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #container'; $('#container').hide('fast',loadcontainer); $('#load').remove(); $('#wrapper').append('<span id="load">LOADING...</span>'); $('#load').fadeIn('normal'); window.location.hash = $(this).attr('href').substr(0,$(this).attr('href').length-5); function loadcontainer() { $('#container').load(toLoad,'',showNewcontainer()) } function showNewcontainer() { $('#container').show('normal',hideLoader()); } function hideLoader() { $('#load').fadeOut('normal'); } return false; }); });

    Read the article

  • @font-face fonts only work on their own domain

    - by Ben
    I am trying to create a type of font repository for use on my websites, so that I can call to any font in the repository in my css without any other set-up. To do this I created a subdomain on which I placed folders for each font in the repository that contained the various file types for each font. I also placed a css file called font-face.css on the root of the subdomain and filled it with @font-face declarations for each of the fonts, the fonts a linked with an absolute link so that they can be used from anywhere. My issue is that it seems that I can only use the fonts on that subdomain where they are located, on my other sites the font does not show. Using firebug I determined that the font-face.css file was successfully being linked to and loaded. So why does the font not correctly load? Is there protection on the font files or something? I am using all fonts that I should be allowed to do this with, so I don't see why this is occurring. Maybe it is an apache issue, but I can download the font just fine when I link to it. Oh, and just to clarify, I am not violating any copyrights by setting this up, all the fonts I am using are licensed to allow this sort of thing. I would however like to set up a way that only I can have access to this repository of fonts but that's another project.

    Read the article

  • VB.NET, templates, reflection, inheritance, feeling adrift

    - by brovar
    I've just made myself up a problem and am now wondering how to solve it. To begin with, I'm using some third-party components, including some calendar controls like schedule and timeline. They're used in the project classes more or less like that: Friend Class TimeBasedDataView 'some members End Class Friend Class ScheduleDataView Inherits TimeBasedDataView Public Schedule As Controls.Schedule.Schedule 'and others End Class Friend Class TimeLineDataView Inherits TimeBasedDataView Public TimeLine As Controls.TimeLine.TimeLine 'and others End Class (Hmm, code coloring fail, never mind...) Now, to allow managing the look of data being presented there are some mechanisms including so called Style Managers. A lot of code in them repeats, varying almost only with the control it maintains: Friend Class TimeLineStyleManager Private m_TimeLine As TimeLineDataView Private Sub Whatever() m_TimeLine.TimeLine.SomeProperty = SomeValue End Sub End Class Friend Class ScheduleStyleManager Private m_Schedule As ScheduleDataView Private Sub Whatever() m_Schedule.Schedule.SomeProperty = SomeValue End Sub End Class I was wondering if I could create some base class for those managers, like Friend Class TimeBasedCtrlStyleManagerBase(Of T As TimeBasedDataView) Private m_Control As T 'and others End Class which would unify these two, but I've got lost when it came to maintaining two components that have nothing in common (except their properties' names, etc.). Type reflection maybe? I'll be grateful for any advice ;)

    Read the article

  • git pull crashes after other member push something

    - by naiad
    Here it's the story... we have a Github account. I clone the repository ... then I can work with it, commit things, push things, etc ... I use Linux with command line and git version 1.7.7.3 Then other user, using Eclipse and git plugin for eclipse eGit 1.1.0 pushes something, and it appears in the github web pages as the last commit, but when I try to pull: $ git pull remote: Counting objects: 13, done. remote: Compressing objects: 100% (6/6), done. remote: Total 9 (delta 2), reused 7 (delta 0) Unpacking objects: 100% (9/9), done. error: unable to find 3e6c5386cab0c605877f296642d5183f582964b6 fatal: object 3e6c5386cab0c605877f296642d5183f582964b6 not found "3e6c5386cab0c605877f296642d5183f582964b6" is the commit hash of the last commit, done by the other user ... there's no problem at all to browse it through web page ... but for me it's impossible to pull it. It's strange, because my command line output tells about that commit hash, so it knows that one is the last one commit in the github system, but my git can not pull it ! Maybe the git protocol used in eGit is incompatible with the console git 1.7.7.3...

    Read the article

  • Two different seeds producing the same "random" sequence

    - by Ruud Lenders
    Maybe there is a very logic explanation for this, but I just can't seem to understand why the seeds 0 and 2,147,483,647 produce the same "random" sequence, using .NET's Random Class (System). Quick code example: ushort len = 8; Random r0 = new Random(0), r1 = new Random(1), r2 = new Random(int.MaxValue); //2,147,483,647 byte[] b0 = new byte[len], b1 = new byte[len], b2 = new byte[len]; r0.NextBytes(b0); r1.NextBytes(b1); r2.NextBytes(b2); for (int i = 0; i < len; i++) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("{0}\t\t{1}\t\t{2}", b0[i], b1[i], b2[i]); } Console.ReadLine(); Output: 26 70 26 12 208 12 70 134 76 111 130 111 93 64 93 117 151 115 228 228 228 216 163 216 As you can see, the first and the third sequence are the same. Can someone please explain this to me?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453  | Next Page >