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  • Convert Google Analytics cookies to Local/Session Storage

    - by David Murdoch
    Google Analytics sets 4 cookies that will be sent with all requests to that domain (and ofset its subdomains). From what I can tell no server actually uses them directly; they're only sent with __utm.gif as a query param. Now, obviously Google Analytics reads, writes and acts on their values and they will need to be available to the GA tracking script. So, what I am wondering is if it is possible to: rewrite the __utm* cookies to local storage after ga.js has written them delete them after ga.js has run rewrite the cookies FROM local storage back to cookie form right before ga.js reads them start over Or, monkey patch ga.js to use local storage before it begins the cookie read/write part. Obviously if we are going so far out of the way to remove the __utm* cookies we'll want to also use the Async variant of Analytics. I'm guessing the down vote was because I didn't ask a question. DOH! My questions are: Can it be done as described above? If so, why hasn't it been done? I have a default HTML/CSS/JS boilerplate template that passes YSlow, PageSpeed, and Chrome's Audit with near perfect scores. I'm really looking for a way to squeeze those remaining cookie bytes from Google Analytics in browsers that support local storage.

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  • Which is more secure GET or POST sending parameters with cURL at PHP

    - by Steve
    I want to connect in a secure way with an API and I am using cURL to do it using HTTPS and SSL. Now, i was wondering what is better in terms of security, sending the data through GET or POST: $ch = curl_init("http://api.website.com/connect.php?user=xxx&pass=xxxx); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, FALSE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 2); $result = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); Or $param['user'] = 'xxxx'; $param['pass'] = 'xxxx'; $ch = curl_init("http://api.website.com/connect.php); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $Parameters); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, FALSE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 2); $result = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); I also realized that POST is much more slower retrieving the data.

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  • Is the following C code safe?

    - by lali
    #include<cstdio> #include<stdlib.h> int main() { char* ptr=NULL; printf("%s",ptr); return 0; } It prints (null) as output. The above is a sample code. In real code i get char* as a return of a function and i wish to print the character string for logging. However, NULL is also a valid return value of that function and so i am wondering if a null check is required before printing the character string? char* ptr=someFuncion(); // do i need the following if statement? if(ptr!=NULL) { printf("%s",ptr); } I just want to be sure that the output would be same i.e if ptr=NULL then output should be (null) on all platforms and compilers and the above code(without if statement) would not crash on any C standard compatible platform. In short, is the above code(without the if statement) standard compatible? Thanks for your help and patience :) Regards lali

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  • Switching languajes on a website with PHP

    - by jnkrois
    Hello everybody, I'm just looking for some advice. I'm creating a website that offers (at least) 2 languages. The way I'm setting it up is by using XML files for the language, PHP to retrieve the values in the XML nodes. Say you have any XML file, being loaded as follows: <?php $lang = "en"; $xmlFile = simplexml_load_file("$lang/main.xml"); ?> Once the file contents are available, I just output each node into an HTML tag like so: <li><?php echo $xmlFile->navigation->home; ?></li> which in turn is equal to : <li><a href="#">Home</a></li> as a nav bar link. Now, the way in which I'm switching languages is by changing the value of the "$lang" variable, through a "$_POST", like so: if(isset($_POST['es'])){ $lang = "es"; }elseif(isset($_POST['en'])){ $lang = "en"; } The value of the "$lang" variable is reset and the new file is loaded, loading as well all the new nodes from the new XML file, hence changing the language. I'm just wondering if there is another way to reset the "$lang" variable using something else, other than "$_POST" or "$_GET". I don't want to use query string either. I know I could use JavaScript or jQuery to achieve this, but I'd like to make the site not too dependable on JavaScript. I'd appreciate any ideas or advice. Thanks

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  • Possibility of a custom Contacts field with a set list of values and Contacts lookup performance

    - by areyling
    I'm pretty sure it's not viable to do what I'd like to based on some initial research, but I figured it couldn't hurt to ask the community of experts here in case someone knows a way. I'd like to create a custom field for contacts that the user is able to edit from the main Contacts app; however, the user should only be allowed to select from a list of four specific values. A short list of string values would be ideal, but an int with a min/max range would suffice. I'm interested in knowing if it's possible either way, but also wondering if it make sense to go this route performance wise. More specifically, would it be better to look up a contact (based on a phone number) each time a call or SMS message is received or better to store my own set of data (consisting of name, numbers, and the custom field) and just syncing contact info in a thread every so often? Or syncing contacts the first time the app is run and then registering for changes using ContentObserver? Here is a similar question with an answer that explains how to add a custom field to a contact. Thanks in advance.

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  • Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

    - by Memor-X
    in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

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  • Save object using variable with object name

    - by FBE
    I'm wondering what an easy way is to save an object in R, using a variable objectName with the name of the object to be saved. I want this to easy save objects, with their name in the file name. I tried to use get, but I didn't manage to save the object with it's original object name. Example: If I have the object called "temp", which I want to save in the directory "dataDir". I put the name of the object in the variable "objectName". Attempt 1: objectName<-"temp" save(get(objectName), file=paste(dataDir, objectName, ".RData", sep="")) load(paste(dataDir, objectName, ".RData", sep="")) This didn't work, because R tries to save an object called get(objectName), instead of the result of this call. So I tried the following: Attempt 2: objectName<-"temp" object<-get(objectName) save(object, file=paste(dataDir, objectName, ".RData", sep="")) load(paste(dataDir, objectName, ".RData", sep="")) This obviously didn't work, because R saves the object with name "object", and not with name "temp". After loading I have a copy of "object", instead of "temp". (Yes, with the same contents...but that is not what I want :) ). So I thought it should be something with pointers. So tried the following: Attempt 3: objectName<-"temp" object<<-get(objectName) save(object, file=paste(dataDir, objectName, ".RData", sep="")) load(paste(dataDir, objectName, ".RData", sep="")) Same result as attempt 2. But I'm not sure I'm doing what I think I'm doing. What is the solution for this?

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  • How frequently IP packets are fragmented at the source host?

    - by Methos
    I know that if IP payload MTU then routers usually fragment the IP packet. Finally all the fragmented packets are assembled at the destination using the fields IP-ID, IP fragment offsets and fragmentation flags. Max length of IP payload is 64K. Thus its very plausible for L4 to hand over payload which is 64K. If the L2 protocol is Ethernet, which often is the case, then the MTU will be about 1600 bytes. Hence IP packet will be fragmented at the source host itself. However, a quick search about IP implementation in Linux tells me that in recent kernels, L4 protocols are fragment friendly i.e. they try to save the fragmentation work for IP by handing over buffers of size which is close to MTU. Considering these two facts, I am wondering about how frequently does the IP packet gets fragmented at the source host itself. Does it occur sometimes/rarely/never? Does anyone know if there are exceptions to the rule of fragmentation in linux kernel (i.e. are there situations where L4 protocols are not fragment friendly)? How is this handled in other common OSes like windows? In general how frequently IP packets are fragmented?

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  • How can I reorder an mbox file chronologically?

    - by Joshxtothe4
    Hello, I have a single spool mbox file that was created with evolution, containing a selection of emails that I wish to print. My problem is that the emails are not placed into the mbox file chronologically. I would like to know the best way to place order the files from first to last using bash, perl or python. I would like to oder by received for files addressed to me, and sent for files sent by me. Would it perhaps be easier to use maildir files or such? The emails currently exist in the format: From [email protected] Fri Aug 12 09:34:09 2005 Message-ID: <[email protected]> Date: Fri, 12 Aug 2005 09:34:09 +0900 From: me <[email protected]> User-Agent: Mozilla Thunderbird 1.0.6 (Windows/20050716) X-Accept-Language: en-us, en MIME-Version: 1.0 To: someone <[email protected]> Subject: Re: (no subject) References: <[email protected]> In-Reply-To: <[email protected]> Content-Type: text/plain; charset=ISO-8859-1; format=flowed Content-Transfer-Encoding: 8bit Status: RO X-Status: X-Keywords: X-UID: 371 X-Evolution-Source: imap://[email protected]/ X-Evolution: 00000002-0010 Hey the actual content of the email someone wrote: > lines of quotedtext I am wondering if there is a way to use this information to easily reorganize the file, perhaps with perl or such.

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  • Null reference exceptions in .net

    - by Carlo
    Hello, we're having this big problem with our application. It's a rather large application with several modules, and thousands and thousands lines of code. A lot of parts of the application are designed to exist only with a reference to another object, for example a Person object can never exists without a House object, so if you at any point in the app say: bool check = App.Person.House == null; check should always be false (by design), so, to keep using that example, while creating modules, testing, debugging, App.Person.House is never null, but once we shipped the application to our client, they started getting a bunch of NullReferenceException with the objects that by design, should never have a null reference. They tell us the bug, we try to reproduce it here, but 90% of the times we can't, because here it works fine. The app is being developed with C# and WPF, and by design, it only runs on Windows XP SP 3, and the .net framework v3.5, so we KNOW the user has the same operative system, service pack, and .net framework version as we do here, but they still get this weird NullReferenceExceptions that we can't reproduce. So, I'm just wondering if anyone has seen this before and how you fixed it, we have the app running here at least 8 hours a day in 5 different computers, and we never see those exceptions, this only happens to the client for some reason. ANY thought, any clue, any solution that could get us closer to fixing this problem will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Which technology should I use to pop up a simple form in my add-in DLL?

    - by Decker
    I'm building an assembly that runs as an "add-on" to a vendor's Outlook add-in. When it is time for me to execute my "action", I have to put up a simple window with a few simple controls. The vendor's add-in provides me with the parent window's integer handle. I am able to put up a form pretty easily with WinForms by adding are reference to System.Windows.Forms from my assembly and with the following code: FrmHistoryDisplay frm = new FrmHistoryDisplay(); frm.ShowDialog(new ParentWindowWrapper(_parentWindowHandle)); where ParentWindowWrapper is a shim class around the window handle I'm given private class ParentWindowWrapper : IWin32Window { private int _parentWindowHandle; public ParentWindowWrapper(int parentWindowHandle) { _parentWindowHandle = parentWindowHandle; } public IntPtr Handle { get { return new IntPtr(_parentWindowHandle); } } } The Form's ShowDialog method takes an IWin32Window implementor to wrap the parent's window handle. This all works and seems simple enough. I was just wondering whether something similar can be done with a WPF window rather than a WinForm Form? Should I care?

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  • Pattern for UI configuration

    - by TERACytE
    I have a Win32 C++ program that validates user input and updates the UI with status information and options. Currently it is written like this: void ShowError() { SetIcon(kError); SetMessageString("There was an error"); HideButton(kButton1); HideButton(kButton2); ShowButton(kButton3); } void ShowSuccess() { SetIcon(kError); std::String statusText (GetStatusText()); SetMessageString(statusText); HideButton(kButton1); HideButton(kButton2); ShowButton(kButton3); } // plus several more methods to update the UI using similar mechanisms I do not likes this because it duplicates code and causes me to update several methods if something changes in the UI. I am wondering if there is a design pattern or best practice to remove the duplication and make the functionality easier to understand and update. I could consolidate the code inside a config function and pass in flags to enable/disable UI items, but I am not convinced this is the best approach. Any suggestions and ideas?

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  • Dealing with expired authentication for a partially filled form?

    - by aaronls
    I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

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  • wordpress displaying the post in a specific categories

    - by Juliver Galleto
    I have this php code below for displaying the post from the specific categories. <ul id="sliderx"> <?php query_posts('category_name=slideshow&showposts=10'); while (have_posts()) : the_post(); echo "<li>".the_content()."</li>"; endwhile;?> </ul> as you can see, it display those post in the category slideshow and the structure of that should be this. <ul id="sliderx"> <li>the post 1</li> <li>the post 2</li> <li>the post 3</li> </ul> but the output that is generated is this. <ul id="sliderx"> <p>three</p> <li></li><p>two</p> <li></li><p>one</p> <li></li> </ul> and the generated structure should not look like that and it looks nasty at all, so im having a problem on this on how to display it properly like to display into this structure. <ul id="sliderx"> <li>the post 1</li> <li>the post 2</li> <li>the post 3</li> </ul> So Im wondering if there's someone who could tell me how to fix this. Im open into any suggestions, recommendations and suggestions. Thank you.

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  • 'Fixed' for loop - what is more efficient?

    - by pimvdb
    I'm creating a tic-tac-toe game, and one of the functions has to iterate through each of the 9 fields (tic-tac-toe is played on a 3x3 grid). I was wondering what is more efficient (which one is perhaps faster, or what is the preferred way of scripting in such situation) - using two for nested loops like this: for(var i=0; i<3; i++) { for(var j=0; j<3; j++) { checkField(i, j); } } or hard-coding it like this: checkField(0, 0); checkField(0, 1); checkField(0, 2); checkField(1, 0); checkField(1, 1); checkField(1, 2); checkField(2, 0); checkField(2, 1); checkField(2, 2); As there are only 9 combinations, it would be perhaps overkill to use two nested for loops, but then again this is clearer to read. The for loop, however, will increment variables and check whether i and j are smaller than 3 every time as well. In this example, the time saving at least might be negligible, but what is the preferred way of coding in this case? Thanks.

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • Is there a methode to linarize a Document?

    - by M.R.
    A webservice response with a message which is not linarized. This produces a problem, when trying to access a (as an example) the root element with getSOAPBody().getFirstChlid(). In a linarized document this call would return the first element inside the the body. If the message is not properly formated, you may get the the line break between the soap body and the first element. The problem should be easy to solve with a recursive method, but I was wondering, if there is a method for it? Like normalize etc. Edit: XML Response: ... XMLSchema-instance"><soapenv:Body> <wst:RequestSecurityTokenResponse xmlns:wst="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/200/02/trust">... JAVA CODE: final DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); factory.setNamespaceAware(true); DocumentBuilder db = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document result = db.newDocument(); //messResult is the response result.appendChild(result.importNode(messResult.getSOAPBody().getFirstChild(),true)); Error Log: HIERARCHY_REQUEST_ERR: An attempt was made to insert a node where it is not permitted.

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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • Installing Rails on Mountain Lion

    - by Jordan Medlock
    I was wondering if you could help me find why I cannot install Ruby on Rails on my MBP with OS X Mountain Lion. It's a weird problem and I'll give you as much info as I can. I've installed ruby and it's working at version 1.9.3 And I've installed ruby gems and it's worked for every other gem I've tried to install. It's version is 1.8.24 When I run $ sudo gem install rails it replies with the message: Successfully installed rails-3.2.8 1 gem installed Although when I ask it rails -v it returns: `Rails is not currently installed on this system. To get the latest version, simply type: $ sudo gem install rails You can then rerun your "rails" command.` What should I do? The rails bash file (/usr/bin/rails) contains: #!/usr/bin/ruby # Stub rails command to load rails from Gems or print an error if not installed. require 'rubygems' version = ">= 0" if ARGV.first =~ /^_(.*)_$/ and Gem::Version.correct? $1 then version = $1 ARGV.shift end begin gem 'railties', version or raise rescue Exception puts 'Rails is not currently installed on this system. To get the latest version, simply type:' puts puts ' $ sudo gem install rails' puts puts 'You can then rerun your "rails" command.' exit 0 end load Gem.bin_path('railties', 'rails', version) That must mean that the gem files aren't there or are old or corrupted How can I check that?

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  • Drawbacks with using Class Methods in Objective C.

    - by RickiG
    Hi I was wondering if there are any memory/performance drawbacks, or just drawbacks in general, with using Class Methods like: + (void)myClassMethod:(NSString *)param { // much to be done... } or + (NSArray*)myClassMethod:(NSString *)param { // much to be done... return [NSArray autorelease]; } It is convenient placing a lot of functionality in Class Methods, especially in an environment where I have to deal with memory management(iPhone), but there is usually a catch when something is convenient? An example could be a thought up Web Service that consisted of a lot of classes with very simple functionality. i.e. TomorrowsXMLResults; TodaysXMLResults; YesterdaysXMLResults; MondaysXMLResults; TuesdaysXMLResults; . . . n I collect a ton of these in my Web Service Class and just instantiate the web service class and let methods on this class call Class Methods on the 'Results' Classes. The classes are simple but they handle large amount of Xml, instantiate lots of objects etc. I guess I am asking if Class Methods lives or are treated different on the stack and in memory than messages to instantiated objects? Or are they just instantiated and pulled down again behind the scenes and thus, just a way of saving a few lines of code?

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  • Vim: yank and replace -- the same yanked input -- multiple times, and two other questions

    - by Hassan Syed
    Now that I am using vim for everything I type, rather then just for configuring servers, I wan't to sort out the following trivialities. I tried to formulate Google search queries but the results didn't address my questions :D. Question one: How do I yank and replace multiple times ? Once I have something in the yank history (if that is what its called) and then highlight and use the 'p' char in command mode the replaced text is put at the front of the yank history; therefore subsequent replace operations do not use the the text I intended. I imagine this to be a usefull feature under certain circumstances but I do not have a need for it in my workflow. Question two: How do I type text without causing the line to ripple forward ? I use hard-tab stops to allign my code in a certain way -- e.g., FunctionNameX ( lala * land ); FunctionNameProto ( ); When I figure out what needs to go into the second function, how do I insert it without move the text up ? Question three Is there a way of having a uniform yank history across gvim instances on the same machine ? I have 1 monitors. Just wondering, atm I am using highlight + mouse middle click.

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  • Error when loading YAML config files in Rails

    - by ZelluX
    I am configuring Rails with MongoDB, and find a strange problem when paring config/mongo.yml file. config/mongo.yml is generated by executing script/rails generate mongo_mapper:config, and it looks like following: defaults: &defaults host: 127.0.0.1 port: 27017 development: <<: *defaults database: tc_web_development test: <<: *defaults database: tc_web_test From the config file we can see the objects development and test should both have a database field. But when it is parsed and loaded in config/initializers/mongo.db, config = YAML::load(File.read(Rails.root.join('config/mongo.yml'))) puts config.inspect MongoMapper.setup(config, Rails.env) the strange thing comes: the output of puts config.inspect is {"defaults"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "development"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "test"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}} which does not contain database attribute. But when I execute the same statements in a plain ruby console, instead of using rails console, mongo.yml is parsed in a right way. {"defaults"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "development"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017, "database"=>"tc_web_development"}, "test"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017, "database"=>"tc_web_test"}} I am wondering what may be the cause of this problem. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • what makes a Tomcat5.5 cannot be "aware" of new Java Web Applications?

    - by Michael Mao
    This is for uni homework, but I reckon it is more a generic problem to the Tomcat Server(version 5.5.27) on my uni. The problem is, I first did a skeleton Java Web Application (Just a simple Servlet and a welcome-file, nothing complicated, no lib included) using NetBeans 6.8 with the bundled Tomcat 6.0.20 (localhost:8084/WSD) Then, to test and prove it is "portable" and "auto-deploy-able", I cleaned and built a WSD.war file and dropped it onto my Xampp Tomcat (localhost:8080/WSD). The war extracted everything accordingly and I can see identical output from this Tomcat. So far, so good. However, after I tried to drop to war onto uni server, funny thing happens: uni server Even though I've changed the war permission to 755, it is simply not "responding". I then copied the extracted files to uni server, the MainServlet cannot be recognized from within its Context Path "/WSD", basically nothing works, expect the static index.jsp. I tried several times to stop and restart uni Tomcat, it doesn't help? I wonder what makes this happen? Is there anything I did wrong with my approach? To be frank I paid no attention to a server not under my control, and I am unfortunately not a real active day-to-day Java Programmer now. I understand the fundamentals of MVC, Servelets, JSPs, JavaBeans, but I really feel frustrated by this, as I cannot see why... Or, should I ask, a Java Web Application, after cleaned and built by NetBeans6.8, is self-contained and self-configured so ready to be deployed to any Java Web Container? I know, I can certainly program everything in plain old JSP, but this is soooo... unacceptable to myself... Update : I am now wondering if there is any free Tomcat Hosting so that I would like to see if my war file and/or my web app can go with them without any configuration at all?

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  • Is there a mechanism to distribute an app with its own JRE?

    - by user179997
    These fine folks are my users: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=o4MwTvtyrUQ If you don't want to enjoy the video here is the gist: my users can't tell between a file and a folder, between a browser and a web site. I need to create a Java web app (Tomcat or Jetty) and deploy it in as many of their computers, Windows and Mac. The question is: Is there a mechanism to distribute an app with its own JRE? (in the Tcl world there are starpacks and starkits, in the Python world there's py2exe and others, that's the idea). And also, is it legal? I know the VM is open source but I'm not clear about the libraries, and I know about GNU Classpath but I don't know if all the packages are there. I don't want to depend on the installed JRE or on the user having enough privileges to install one. On the Mac I don't want to depend on Apple (I had to switch from Tiger to Snow Leopard just to have Java 1.6, I can't put my users in that position) Any info greatly appreciated. Thanks! jb edit: I'm wondering if I can just paste the JRE folder under my app folder. Is that allowed?

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  • Pairs from single list

    - by Apalala
    Often enough, I've found the need to process a list by pairs. I was wondering which would be the pythonic and efficient way to do it, and found this on Google: pairs = zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) I thought that was pythonic enough, but after a recent discussion involving idioms versus efficiency, I decided to do some tests: import time from itertools import islice, izip def pairs_1(t): return zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_2(t): return izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_3(t): return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) A = range(10000) B = xrange(len(A)) def pairs_4(t): # ignore value of t! t = B return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) for f in pairs_1, pairs_2, pairs_3, pairs_4: # time the pairing s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) t1 = time.time() - s # time using the pairs s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) for a, b in p: pass t2 = time.time() - s print t1, t2, t2-t1 These were the results on my computer: 1.48668909073 2.63187503815 1.14518594742 0.105381965637 1.35109519958 1.24571323395 0.00257992744446 1.46182489395 1.45924496651 0.00251388549805 1.70076990128 1.69825601578 If I'm interpreting them correctly, that should mean that the implementation of lists, list indexing, and list slicing in Python is very efficient. It's a result both comforting and unexpected. Is there another, "better" way of traversing a list in pairs? Note that if the list has an odd number of elements then the last one will not be in any of the pairs. Which would be the right way to ensure that all elements are included? I added these two suggestions from the answers to the tests: def pairwise(t): it = iter(t) return izip(it, it) def chunkwise(t, size=2): it = iter(t) return izip(*[it]*size) These are the results: 0.00159502029419 1.25745987892 1.25586485863 0.00222492218018 1.23795199394 1.23572707176 Results so far Most pythonic and very efficient: pairs = izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) Most efficient and very pythonic: pairs = izip(*[iter(t)]*2) It took me a moment to grok that the first answer uses two iterators while the second uses a single one. To deal with sequences with an odd number of elements, the suggestion has been to augment the original sequence adding one element (None) that gets paired with the previous last element, something that can be achieved with itertools.izip_longest().

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