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  • More efficient comparison of numbers

    - by Pez Cuckow
    I have an array which is part of a small JS game I am working on I need to check (as often as reasonable) that each of the elements in the array haven't left the "stage" or "playground", so I can remove them and save the script load I have coded the below and was wondering if anyone knew a faster/more efficient way to calculate this. This is run every 50ms (it deals with the movement). Where bots[i][1] is movement in X and bots[i][2] is movement in Y (mutually exclusive). for (var i in bots) { var left = parseInt($("#" + i).css("left")); var top = parseInt($("#" + i).css("top")); var nextleft = left + bots[i][1]; var nexttop = top + bots[i][2]; if(bots[i][1]>0&&nextleft>=PLAYGROUND_WIDTH) { remove_bot(i); } else if(bots[i][1]<0&&nextleft<=-GRID_SIZE) { remove_bot(i); } else if(bots[i][2]>0&&nexttop>=PLAYGROUND_HEIGHT) { remove_bot(i); } else if(bots[i][2]<0&&nexttop<=-GRID_SIZE) { remove_bot(i); } else { //alert(nextleft + ":" + nexttop); $("#" + i).css("left", ""+(nextleft)+"px"); $("#" + i).css("top", ""+(nexttop)+"px"); } } On a similar note the remove_bot(i); function is as below, is this correct (I can't splice as it changes all the ID's of the elements in the array. function remove_bot(i) { $("#" + i).remove(); bots[i] = false; } Many thanks for any advice given!

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  • Should my validator have access to my entire model?

    - by wb
    As the title states I'm wondering if it's a good idea for my validation class to have access to all properties from my model. Ideally, I would like to do that because some fields require 10+ other fields to verify whether it is valid or not. I could but would rather not have functions with 10+ parameters. Or would that make the model and validator too coupled with one another? Here is a little example of what I mean. This code however does not work because it give an infinite loop! Class User Private m_UserID Private m_Validator Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Property Let Validator(value) Set m_Validator = value m_Validator.Initialize(Me) End Property Public Property Get Validator() Validator = m_Validator End Property Public Property Let UserID(value) m_UserID = value End property Public Property Get UserID() UserID = m_Validator.IsUserIDValid() End property End Class Class Validator Private m_User Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Sub Initialize(value) Set m_User = value End Sub Public Function IsUserIDValid() IsUserIDValid = m_User.UserID > 13 End Function End Class Dim mike : Set mike = New User mike.UserID = 123456 mike.Validator = New Validator Response.Write mike.UserID If I'm right and it is a good idea, how can I go a head and fix the infinite loop with the get property UserID? Thank you.

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  • Implementation of delegates in C#

    - by Ram
    Hi, I am trying to learn on how to use delegates efficiently in C# and I was just wondering if anyone can guide me through... The following is a sample implementation using delegates... All I am doing is just passing a value through a delegate from one class to another... Please tell me if this is the right way to implement... And also your suggestions... Also, please note that I have de-registered the delegate in : void FrmSample_FormClosing(object sender, FormClosingEventArgs e) { sampleObj.AssignValue -= new Sample.AssignValueDelegate(AssignValue); } Is this de-registration necessary? The following is the code that I have written.. public partial class FrmSample : Form { Sample sampleObj; public FrmSample() { InitializeComponent(); this.Load += new EventHandler(FrmSample_Load); this.FormClosing += new FormClosingEventHandler(FrmSample_FormClosing); sampleObj = new Sample(); sampleObj.AssignValue = new Sample.AssignValueDelegate(AssignValue); } void FrmSample_FormClosing(object sender, FormClosingEventArgs e) { sampleObj.AssignValue -= new Sample.AssignValueDelegate(AssignValue); } void FrmSample_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { sampleObj.LoadValue(); } void AssignValue(string value) { MessageBox.Show(value); } } class Sample { public delegate void AssignValueDelegate(string value); public AssignValueDelegate AssignValue; internal void LoadValue() { if (AssignValue != null) { AssignValue("This is a test message"); } } } Pls provide your feedback on whether this is right... Thanks, Ram

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  • Database schemas WAY out of sync - need to get up to date without losing data

    - by Zind
    The problem: we have one application that has a portion which is used by a very small subset of the total users, and that part of the application is running off of a separate database as well. In a perfect world, the schemas of the two databases would be synced up, but such is not the case. Some migrations have been run on the smaller database, most haven't; and furthermore, there is nothing such as revision number to be able to easily identify which have and which haven't. We would like to solve this quandary for future projects. During a discussion we've come up with the following possible plan of action, and I am wondering if anyone knows of any project which has already solved this problem: What we would like to do is create an empty database from the schema of the large fully-migrated database, and then move all of the data from the smaller non-migrated database into that empty one. If it makes things easier, it can probably be assumed for the sake of this problem specifically that no migrations have ever removed anything, only added. Else, if there are other known solutions, I'd like to hear them as well.

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • Convert Google Analytics cookies to Local/Session Storage

    - by David Murdoch
    Google Analytics sets 4 cookies that will be sent with all requests to that domain (and ofset its subdomains). From what I can tell no server actually uses them directly; they're only sent with __utm.gif as a query param. Now, obviously Google Analytics reads, writes and acts on their values and they will need to be available to the GA tracking script. So, what I am wondering is if it is possible to: rewrite the __utm* cookies to local storage after ga.js has written them delete them after ga.js has run rewrite the cookies FROM local storage back to cookie form right before ga.js reads them start over Or, monkey patch ga.js to use local storage before it begins the cookie read/write part. Obviously if we are going so far out of the way to remove the __utm* cookies we'll want to also use the Async variant of Analytics. I'm guessing the down vote was because I didn't ask a question. DOH! My questions are: Can it be done as described above? If so, why hasn't it been done? I have a default HTML/CSS/JS boilerplate template that passes YSlow, PageSpeed, and Chrome's Audit with near perfect scores. I'm really looking for a way to squeeze those remaining cookie bytes from Google Analytics in browsers that support local storage.

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  • OpenGLES - Rendering a background image only once and not wiping it

    - by chaosbeaker
    Hello, first time asking a question here but been watching others answers for a while. My own question is one for improving the performance of my program. Currently I'm wiping the viewFrameBuffer on each pass through my program and then rendering the background image first followed by the rest of my scene. I was wondering how I go about rendering the background image once, and only wiping the rest of the scene for updating/re-rendering. I tried using a seperate buffer but I'm not sure how to present this new buffer to the render buffer. // Set the current EAGLContext and bind to the framebuffer. This will direct all OGL commands to the // framebuffer and the associated renderbuffer attachment which is where our scene will be rendered [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, viewFramebuffer); // Define the viewport. Changing the settings for the viewport can allow you to scale the viewport // as well as the dimensions etc and so I'm setting it for each frame in case we want to change i glViewport(0, 0, screenBounds.size.width , screenBounds.size.height); // Clear the screen. If we are going to draw a background image then this clear is not necessary // as drawing the background image will destroy the previous image glClearColor(0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); // Setup how the images are to be blended when rendered. This could be changed at different points during your // render process if you wanted to apply different effects glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); switch (currentViewInt) { case 1: { [background render:CGPointMake(240, 0) fromTopLeftBottomRightCenter:@"Bottom"]; // Other Rendering Code }} // Bind to the renderbuffer and then present this image to the current context glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, viewRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; Hopefully by solving this I'll also be able to implement another buffer just for rendering particles as I can set them to always use a black background as their alpha source. Any help is greatly appreciated

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  • Using a "take-home" coding component in interview process

    - by Jeff Sargent
    In recent interviews I have been asking candidates to code through some questions on the whiteboard. I don't feel I'm getting a clear enough picture of the candidates technical ability with this approach. Granted, the questions might not be good enough, maybe the interview needs to be longer, etc, but I'm wondering if a different approach would be better. What I'd like to try is to create a simple, working project in Visual Studio and have it checked into source control. The candidate can check that code out from home/wherever and then check back in work representing their response to the assignment that I'll provide. I'm thinking that if the window of time is short enough and the assignment clear enough then the solution will be safe enough from all-out Googling (i.e. they couldn't search for and find the entire solution online). I would then be able to review the candidates work. Has enough worked with something like this before, either to vet a candidate or as a candidate yourself? Any thoughts in general? P.S. my first StackOverflow question - hi guys and gals. EDIT: I've seen comments about asking someone to work for free - I wouldn't mind paying the person for their time.

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  • Using PHP as template language

    - by Kunal
    I wrote up this quick class to do templating via PHP -- I was wondering if this is easily exploitable if I were ever to open up templating to users (not the immediate plan, but thinking down the road). class Template { private $allowed_methods = array( 'if', 'switch', 'foreach', 'for', 'while' ); private function secure_code($template_code) { $php_section_pattern = '/\<\?(.*?)\?\>/'; $php_method_pattern = '/([a-zA-Z0-9_]+)[\s]*\(/'; preg_match_all($php_section_pattern, $template_code, $matches); foreach (array_unique($matches[1]) as $index => $code_chunk) { preg_match_all($php_method_pattern, $code_chunk, $sub_matches); $code_allowed = true; foreach ($sub_matches[1] as $method_name) { if (!in_array($method_name, $this->allowed_methods)) { $code_allowed = false; break; } } if (!$code_allowed) { $template_code = str_replace($matches[0][$index], '', $template_code); } } return $template_code; } public function render($template_code, $params) { extract($params); ob_start(); eval('?>'.$this->secure_code($template_code).'<?php '); $result = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); return $result; } } Example usage: $template_code = '<?= $title ?><? foreach ($photos as $photo): ?><img src="<?= $photo ?>"><? endforeach ?>'; $params = array('title' => 'My Title', 'photos' => array('img1.jpg', 'img2.jpg')); $template = new Template; echo $template->render($template_code, $params); The idea here is that I'd store the templates (PHP code) in the database, and then run it through the class which uses regular expressions to only allow permitted methods (if, for, etc.). Anyone see an obvious way to exploit this and run arbitrary PHP? If so, I'll probably go the more standard route of a templating language such as Smarty...

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  • Update SQL Server 2000 to SQL Server 2008: Benefits please?

    - by Ciaran Archer
    Hi there I'm looking for the benefits of upgrading from SQL Server 2000 to 2008. I was wondering: What database features can we leverage with 2008 that we can't now? What new TSQL features can we look forward to using? What performance benefits can we expect to see? What else will make management go for it? And the converse: What problems can we expect to encounter? What other problems have people found when migrating? Why fix something that isn't (technically) broken? We work in a Java shop, so any .NET / CLR stuff won't rock our world. We also use Eclipse as our main development so any integration with Visual Studio won't be a plus. We do use SQL Server Management Studio however. Some background: Our main database machine is a 32bit Dell Intel Xeon MP CPU 2.0GHz, 40MB of RAM with Physical Address Extension running Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition. We will not be changing our hardware. Our databases in total are under a TB with some having more than 200 tables. But they are busy and during busy times we see 60-80% CPU utilisation. Apart form the fact that SQL Server 2000 is coming close to end of life, why should we upgrade? Any and all contributions are appreciated!

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  • how to model a follower stream in appengine?

    - by molicule
    I am trying to design tables to buildout a follower relationship. Say I have a stream of 140char records that have user, hashtag and other text. Users follow other users, and can also follow hashtags. I am outlining the way I've designed this below, but there are two limitaions in my design. I was wondering if others had smarter ways to accomplish the same goal. The issues with this are The list of followers is copied in for each record If a new follower is added or one removed, 'all' the records have to be updated. The code class HashtagFollowers(db.Model): """ This table contains the followers for each hashtag """ hashtag = db.StringProperty() followers = db.StringListProperty() class UserFollowers(db.Model): """ This table contains the followers for each user """ username = db.StringProperty() followers = db.StringListProperty() class stream(db.Model): """ This table contains the data stream """ username = db.StringProperty() hashtag = db.StringProperty() text = db.TextProperty() def save(self): """ On each save all the followers for each hashtag and user are added into a another table with this record as the parent """ super(stream, self).save() hfs = HashtagFollowers.all().filter("hashtag =", self.hashtag).fetch(10) for hf in hfs: sh = streamHashtags(parent=self, followers=hf.followers) sh.save() ufs = UserFollowers.all().filter("username =", self.username).fetch(10) for uf in ufs: uh = streamUsers(parent=self, followers=uf.followers) uh.save() class streamHashtags(db.Model): """ The stream record is the parent of this record """ followers = db.StringListProperty() class streamUsers(db.Model): """ The stream record is the parent of this record """ followers = db.StringListProperty() Now, to get the stream of followed hastags indexes = db.GqlQuery("""SELECT __key__ from streamHashtags where followers = 'myusername'""") keys = [k,parent() for k in indexes[offset:numresults]] return db.get(keys) Is there a smarter way to do this?

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  • methods of metaclasses on class instances.

    - by Stefano Borini
    I was wondering what happens to methods declared on a metaclass. I expected that if you declare a method on a metaclass, it will end up being a classmethod, however, the behavior is different. Example >>> class A(object): ... @classmethod ... def foo(cls): ... print "foo" ... >>> a=A() >>> a.foo() foo >>> A.foo() foo However, if I try to define a metaclass and give it a method foo, it seems to work the same for the class, not for the instance. >>> class Meta(type): ... def foo(self): ... print "foo" ... >>> class A(object): ... __metaclass__=Meta ... def __init__(self): ... print "hello" ... >>> >>> a=A() hello >>> A.foo() foo >>> a.foo() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> AttributeError: 'A' object has no attribute 'foo' What's going on here exactly ? edit: bumping the question

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  • C headers: compiler specific vs library specific?

    - by leonbloy
    Is there some clear-cut distinction between standard C *.h header files that are provided by the C compiler, as oppossed to those which are provided by a standard C library? Is there some list, or some standard locations? Motivation: int this answer I got a while ago, regarding a missing unistd.h in the latest TinyC compiler, the author argued that unistd.h (contrarily to sys/unistd.h) should not be provided by the compiler but by your C library. I could not make much sense of that response (for one thing shouldn't that also apply to, say, stdio.h?) but I'm still wondering about it. Is that correct? Where is some authoritative reference for this? Looking in other compilers, I see that other "self contained" POSIX C compilers that are hosted in Windows (like the GCC toolchain that comes with MinGW, in several incarnations; or Digital Mars compiler), include all header files. And in a standard Linux distribution (say, Centos 5.10) I see that the gcc package provides a few header files (eg, stdbool.h, syslimits.h) in /usr/lib/gcc/i386-redhat-linux/4.1.1/include/, and the glibc-headers package provides the majority of the headers in /usr/include/ (including stdio.h, /usr/include/unistd.h and /usr/include/sys/unistd.h). So, in neither case I see support for the above claim.

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  • Implicit Type Conversions in Reflection

    - by bradhe
    So I've written a quick bit of code to help quickly convert between business objects and view models. Not to pimp my own blog, but you can find the details here if you're interested or need to know. One issue I've run in to is that I have a custom collection type, ProductCollection, and I need to turn that in to a string[] in on my model. Obviously, since there is no default implicit cast, I'm getting an exception in my contract converter. So, I thought I would write the next little bit of code and that should solve the problem: public static implicit operator string[](ProductCollection collection) { var list = new List<string>(); foreach (var product in collection) { if (product.Id == null) { list.Add(null); } else { list.Add(product.Id.ToString()); } } return list.ToArray(); } However, it still fails with the same cast exception. I'm wondering if it has something to do with being in reflection? If so, is there anything that I can do here?? I'm open to architectural solutions, too!

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  • File descriptor limits and default stack sizes

    - by Charles
    Where I work we build and distribute a library and a couple complex programs built on that library. All code is written in C and is available on most 'standard' systems like Windows, Linux, Aix, Solaris, Darwin. I started in the QA department and while running tests recently I have been reminded several times that I need to remember to set the file descriptor limits and default stack sizes higher or bad things will happen. This is particularly the case with Solaris and now Darwin. Now this is very strange to me because I am a believer in 0 required environment fiddling to make a product work. So I am wondering if there are times where this sort of requirement is a necessary evil, or if we are doing something wrong. Edit: Great comments that describe the problem and a little background. However I do not believe I worded the question well enough. Currently, we require customers, and hence, us the testers, to set these limits before running our code. We do not do this programatically. And this is not a situation where they MIGHT run out, under normal load our programs WILL run out and seg fault. So rewording the question, is requiring the customer to change these ulimit values to run our software to be expected on some platforms, ie, Solaris, Aix, or are we as a company making it to difficult for these users to get going? Bounty: I added a bounty to hopefully get a little more information on what other companies are doing to manage these limits. Can you set these pragmatically? Should we? Should our programs even be hitting these limits or could this be a sign that things might be a bit messy under the covers? That is really what I want to know, as a perfectionist a seemingly dirty program really bugs me.

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  • Componentizing complex functionality in an MVC web app

    - by NXT
    Hi Everyone, This is question about MVC web-app architecture, and how it can be extended to handle componentizing moderately complex units of functionality. I have an MVC style web-app with a customer facing credit card charge page. I've been asked to allow the admins to enter credit card payments as well, for times when credit cards are taken over the phone. The customer facing credit card charge section of the website is currently it's own controller, with approximately 3 pages and a login. That controller is responsible for: Customer login credential authentication Credit card data collection Calling a library to do the actual charge. reporting the results to the user. I would like to extract the card data collection pages into a component of some kind so that I can easily reuse the code on the admin side of the app. Right now my components are limited to single "view" pages with PHP style embedded Perl code. This is a simple, custom MVC framework written in Perl. Right now, controllers are called directly from the framework to service web requests. My idea is to allow controllers to be called from other controllers, so that I can componentize more complex functionality. For simplicity I think I prefer composition over inheritance, even though it will require writing a bunch of pass-through methods (actions). Being Perl, I could in theory do multiple inheritance. I'm wondering if anyone with experience in other MVC web frameworks can comment on how this sort of thing is usually done. Thank you.

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  • multi-shop orders table and sequential order numbers based on shop

    - by imanc
    Hey, I am looking at building a shop solution that needs to be scalable. Currently it retrieves 1-2000 orders on average per day across multiple country based shops (e.g. uk, us, de, dk, es etc.) but this order could be 10x this amount in two years. I am looking at either using separate country-shop databases to store the orders tables, or looking to combine all into one order table. If all orders exist in one table with a global ID (auto num) and country ID (e.g uk,de,dk etc.), each countries orders would also need to have sequential ordering. So in essence, we'd have to have a global ID and a country order ID, with the country order ID being sequential for countries only, e.g. global ID = 1000, country = UK, country order ID = 1000 global ID = 1001, country = DE, country order ID = 1000 global ID = 1002, country = DE, country order ID = 1001 global ID = 1003, country = DE, country order ID = 1002 global ID = 1004, country = UK, country order ID = 1001 THe global ID would be DB generated and not something I would need to worry about. But I am thinking that I'd have to do a query to get the current country order based ID+1 to find the next sequential number. Two things concern me about this: 1) query times when the table has potentially millions of rows of data and I'm doing a read before a write, 2) the potential for ID number clashes due to simultaneous writes/reads. With a MyISAM table the entire table could be locked whilst the last country order + 1 is retrieved, to prevent ID number clashes. I am wondering if anyone knows of a more elegant solution? Cheers, imanc

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  • Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

    - by Memor-X
    in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

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  • Matab - Trace contour line between two different points

    - by Graham
    Hi, I have a set of points represented as a 2 row by n column matrix. These points make up a connected boundary or edge. I require a function that traces this contour from a start point P1 and stop at an end point P2. It also needs to be able trace the contour in a clockwise or anti-clockwise direction. I was wondering if this can be achieved by using some of matlabs functions. I have tried to write my own function but this was riddled with bugs and I have also tried using bwtraceboundary and indexing however this has problematic results as the points within the matrix are not in the order that create the contour. Thank you in advance for any help. Btw, I have included a link to a plot of the set of points. It is half the outline of a hand. The function would ideally trace the contour from ether the red star to the green triangle. Returning the points in order of traversal.

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  • MVC3 custom validation attribute for an "at least one is required" situation

    - by Pricey
    Hi I have found this answer already: MVC3 Validation - Require One From Group Which is fairly specific to the checking of group names and uses reflection. My example is probably a bit simpler and I was just wondering if there was a simpler way to do it. I have the below: public class TimeInMinutesViewModel { private const short MINUTES_OR_SECONDS_MULTIPLIER = 60; //public string Label { get; set; } [Range(0,24, ErrorMessage = "Hours should be from 0 to 24")] public short Hours { get; set; } [Range(0,59, ErrorMessage = "Minutes should be from 0 to 59")] public short Minutes { get; set; } /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <returns></returns> public short TimeInMinutes() { // total minutes should not be negative if (Hours <= 0 && Minutes <= 0) { return 0; } // multiplier operater treats the right hand side as an int not a short int // so I am casting the result to a short even though both properties are already short int return (short)((Hours * MINUTES_OR_SECONDS_MULTIPLIER) + (Minutes * MINUTES_OR_SECONDS_MULTIPLIER)); } } I want to add a validation attribute either to the Hours & Minutes properties or the class itself.. and the idea is to just make sure at least 1 of these properties (Hours OR minutes) has a value, server and client side validation using a custom validation attribute. Does anyone have an example of this please? Thanks

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  • Creating an appropriate index for a frequently used query in SQL Server

    - by Slauma
    In my application I have two queries which will be quite frequently used. The Where clauses of these queries are the following: WHERE FieldA = @P1 AND (FieldB = @P2 OR FieldC = @P2) and WHERE FieldA = @P1 AND FieldB = @P2 P1 and P2 are parameters entered in the UI or coming from external datasources. FieldA is an int and highly on-unique, means: only two, three, four different values in a table with say 20000 rows FieldB is a varchar(20) and is "almost" unique, there will be only very few rows where FieldB might have the same value FieldC is a varchar(15) and also highly distinct, but not as much as FieldB FieldA and FieldB together are unique (but do not form my primary key, which is a simple auto-incrementing identity column with a clustered index) I'm wondering now what's the best way to define an index to speed up specifically these two queries. Shall I define one index with... FieldB (or better FieldC here?) FieldC (or better FieldB here?) FieldA ... or better two indices: FieldB FieldA and FieldC FieldA Or are there even other and better options? What's the best way and why? Thank you for suggestions in advance!

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  • Why am I getting "Message sent to deallocated instance" in Objective-C?

    - by Dave C
    I have several buttons on my app that are being created dynamically. They are all pointed at the button click event when pressed. When the button pressed method is called, the sender's tag (int value) is parsed into the controller's house ID. It works with one of the buttons — the first one created, to be specific — but the others throw the following error: -[CFNumber intValue]: message sent to deallocated instance 0xc4bb0ff0 I am not releasing these buttons anywhere in my code. I haven't set them to autorelease or anything like that. I'm just wondering why they are doing this on the click. The button click event: - (IBAction) ButtonClick: (id) sender { HouseholdViewController *controller = [[HouseholdViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HouseholdViewController" bundle:nil]; controller.delegate = self; controller.HouseID = [(NSInteger)[(UIButton *)sender tag] intValue]; //this line throws an error controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } Where I am creating the buttons: UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(MyLongInScreenCoords, MyLatInScreenCoords, 50, 50); UIImage *buttonImageNormal = [UIImage imageNamed:@"blue_pin.png"]; UIImage *strechableButtonImageNormal = [buttonImageNormal stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:50 topCapHeight:50]; [button setBackgroundImage:strechableButtonImageNormal forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.view addSubview:button]; button.tag = [NSNumber numberWithInt:[[words objectAtIndex: i] intValue]]; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][0] = button; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][1] = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(MyActualLat, MyActualLong)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(ButtonClick:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; CurrentHouseCount++;

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  • Does The Clear Method On A Collection Release The Event Subscriptions?

    - by DaveB
    I have a collection private ObservableCollection<Contact> _contacts; In the constructor of my class I create it _contacts = new ObservableCollection<Contact>(); I have methods to add and remove items from my collection. I want to track changes to the entities in my collection which implement the IPropertyChanged interface so I subscribe to their PropertyChanged event. public void AddContact(Contact contact) { ((INotifyPropertyChanged)contact).PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler(Contact_PropertyChanged); _contacts.Add(contact); } public void AddContact(int index, Contact contact) { ((INotifyPropertyChanged)contact).PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler(Contact_PropertyChanged); _contacts.Insert(index, contact); } When I remove an entity from the collection, I unsubscribe from the PropertyChanged event. I am told this is to allow the entity to be garbage collected and not create memory issues. public void RemoveContact(Contact contact) { ((INotifyPropertyChanged)contact).PropertyChanged -= Contact_PropertyChanged; _contacts.Remove(contact); } So, I hope this is all good. Now, I need to clear the collection in one of my methods. My first thought would be to call _contacts.Clear(). Then I got to wondering if this releases those event subscriptions? Would I need to create my own clear method? Something like this: public void ClearContacts() { foreach(Contact contact in _contacts) { this.RemoveContact(contact); } } I am hoping one of the .NET C# experts here could clear this up for me or tell me what I am doing wrong.

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  • Which is more secure GET or POST sending parameters with cURL at PHP

    - by Steve
    I want to connect in a secure way with an API and I am using cURL to do it using HTTPS and SSL. Now, i was wondering what is better in terms of security, sending the data through GET or POST: $ch = curl_init("http://api.website.com/connect.php?user=xxx&pass=xxxx); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, FALSE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 2); $result = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); Or $param['user'] = 'xxxx'; $param['pass'] = 'xxxx'; $ch = curl_init("http://api.website.com/connect.php); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $Parameters); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, FALSE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 2); $result = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); I also realized that POST is much more slower retrieving the data.

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  • how do i implement / build / create an 'in memory database' for my unit test

    - by Michel
    Hi all, i've started unit testing a while ago and as turned out i did more regression testing than unit testing because i also included my database layer thus going to the database verytime. So, implemented Unity to inject a fake database layer, but i of course want to store some data, and the main opinion was: "create an in-memory database" But what is that / how do i implement that? Main question is: i think i have to fake the database layer, but doesn't that make me create a 'simple database' myself or: how can i keep it simple and not rebuilding Sql Server just for my unit tests :) At the end of this question i'll give an explanation of the situation i got in on the project i just started on, and i was wondering if this was the way to go. Michel Current situation i've seen at this client is that testdata is contained in XML files, and there is a 'fake' database layer that connects all the xml files together. For the real database we're using the entity framework, and this works very simple. And now, in the 'fake' layer, i have top create all kind of classes to load, save, persist etc. the data. It sounds weird that there is so much work in the fake layer, and so little in the real layer. I hope this all makes sense :)

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