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  • Strage character encoding problem with Eclipse / Spring / Tomcat 6

    - by Czar
    Hi, I have been trying things all da but can't get a proper solution. My problem is: I am developing a Spring MVC based app in my local Tomcat. My MYSQl database has UTF-8 encoding set, all content in there displays properly when using phpMyAdmin. Also the output in LOG files using log4j in catalina.out works fine. My JSP pages are configured by <!-- encoding --> <%@ page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" %> <%@ page pageEncoding="UTF-8" %> Also showing data on my JSP works fine. I can also send data from my Controller without any DB intereference using special chars, e.g. String str = "UTF-8 Test: Ä Ö Ü ß è é â"; logger.debug(str); mav.addObject("utftest", str); That displays correctly in log and on jsp page in browser. BUT: When having special chars directly in my JSP file, e.g. for text in headers, this does not work. FF and Google Chrome display strange chars but report the page to be UTF-8. When switching to Latin, the chars just get more and more strange. Same problem when showing text tokens from my messages.properties file, although Eclipse says when right-clicking that UTF-8 will be used. I am a little it lost and don't know where to check now. Summary: DB storage is fine DB output on JSP is fine Output on JSP directly form controller is fine even reading in form forms is fine .properties files and JSP text is not fine !!! Any ideas? I really appreciate and tips.

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  • Why I cannot add a JPanel to JFrame?

    - by Roman
    Here is the code: import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.JLabel; import java.awt.event.*; import java.awt.*; public class GameWindow { private String[] players; private JFrame frame; // Constructor. public GameWindow(String[] players) { this.players = players; } // Start the window in the EDT. public void start() { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { showWindow(); controller.start(); } }); } // Defines the general properties of and starts the window. public void showWindow() { frame = new JFrame("Game"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setSize(600,400); frame.setVisible(true); } // The thread controlling changes of panels in the main window. private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { frame.add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }; // Generate the panel for the selection of a partner. private JPanel generatePartnerSelectionPanel() { JPanel panel = new JPanel(); panel.add(new JLabel("Pleas select a partner:")); return panel; } } I should see "Pleas select the partner" and I don't. Why? I suppose that it's because I do not see frame from the run method of the Thread.

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  • Entity framework entity class mapping with plain .net class

    - by Elan
    I have following in entity framework Table - Country Fields List item Country_ID Dialing_Code ISO_Alpha2 ISO_Alpha3 ISO_Full I would like to map only selected fields from this entity model to my domain class. My domain model class is public class DomainCountry { public int Country_ID { get; set; } public string Dialing_Code { get; set; } public string ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 { get; set; } } The following will work however insert or update is not possible. In order to get insert or update we need to use ObjectSet< but it will not support in my case. IQueryable<DomainCountry> countries = context.Countries.Select( c => new DomainCountry { Country_ID = c.Country_Id, Dialing_Code = c.Dialing_Code, ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 = c.ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 }); It will be really fantastic could someone provide a nice solution for this. Ideally it will be kind of proxy class which will support all the futures however highly customizable i.e. only the columns we want to expose to the outer world

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  • Printing Pdf using AirPrint causes cut-off content

    - by Jatin Patel
    Here i am printing pdf with size 'pageSize = CGSizeMake(640, 832);'. this size is larget then A4 size page aspected. so i will cut-off some text(means it will not print whole page). while printing same pdf using MAC, it will print whole page with help of option (scale to fit). so can any one help me to come out from this problem.. is there any option in IOS sdk for scale to fit. here is my code.. -(void)printItem { NSArray *aArrPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) ; NSString *aStr = [[aArrPaths objectAtIndex:0] stringByAppendingPathComponent:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"PropertyReport_%d.pdf",self.propertyId]]; // NSString *aStr = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"TRADUZIONE HELP SECTIONS REV2" ofType:@"pdf"]; NSURL *url=[[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath:aStr]; NSData *data=[[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; printController = [UIPrintInteractionController sharedPrintController]; if(printController && [UIPrintInteractionController canPrintData:data]) { printController.delegate = self; UIPrintInfo *printInfo = [UIPrintInfo printInfo]; printInfo.outputType = UIPrintInfoOutputGeneral; //printInfo.jobName = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"New Image"]; printInfo.duplex = UIPrintInfoDuplexLongEdge; printController.printInfo = printInfo; printController.showsPageRange = YES; printController.printingItem = data; void (^completionHandler)(UIPrintInteractionController *, BOOL, NSError *) = ^(UIPrintInteractionController *printController, BOOL completed, NSError *error) { if (!completed && error) { //NSLog(@"FAILED! due to error in domain %@ with error code %u", error.domain, error.code); } }; // aWebViewPDF.hidden=FALSE; [printController presentAnimated:YES completionHandler:completionHandler]; } } Thanks Jatin Patel

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  • iPad start in Landscape receive only touch within 768x768

    - by user1307179
    It works perfect fine when starting in portrait and also works when you rotate from portrait to landscape and back. It does not work when starting in landscape. But then it works when you rotate from landscape to portrait and back. In landscape starting mode, the screen does not respond with any touch where screen coordinateX greater than 768. What happens in code is, I use status bar orientation to determine original orientation and rotate each view manually. The views display correctly but does not receive touch properly. Then my root view controller will get called when ipad start rotating with: - (void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation duration:(NSTimeInterval)duration which will rotate every subviews. Root controller: - (void)loadView { self.view = [[UIView alloc]init ]; //initialize child views [self willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:0 duration:0]; } - (void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation duration:(NSTimeInterval)duration { if ([model isLandscape]) { self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 1024, 768-80); } else { self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 768, 1024-80); } //rotate child views } My code [model isLandscape] works so I don't need to provide details as to how it works but here are the code anyway: - (bool)isLandscape { if (orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft || orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight) return true; else return false; } -(id) init { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(orientationChanged:) name:UIDeviceOrientationDidChangeNotification object:nil]; } - (void)orientationChanged:(NSNotification *)notification { UIInterfaceOrientation curOrientation = [[UIDevice currentDevice] orientation]; if (curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortrait || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight) { orientation = curOrientation; ((AppDelegate*)([UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate)).savedOrientationForRestart = orientation; NSLog(@"changed"); } } -(void)validateOrientation { //first time when initializing orientation UIInterfaceOrientation curOrientation = [[UIDevice currentDevice] orientation]; if (curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationPortrait && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight) { orientation = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] statusBarOrientation]; } }

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  • Internet Explorer Warning when embedding Youtube on HTTPS site?

    - by pellepim
    Our application is run over HTTPS which rarely presents any problems for us. When it comes to youtube however, the fact that they do not present any content over SSL connections is giving us some head ache when trying to embed clips. Mostly because of Internet Explorers famous little warning message: "Do you want to view only the webpage content that was delivered securely? This page contains content that will not be delivered using a secure HTTPS ... etc" I've tried to solve this in several ways. The most promising one was to use the ProxyPass functionality in Apache to map to YouTube. Like this: ProxyPass: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com ProxyPassReverse: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com This gets rid of the annoying warning. However, the youtube SWF fails to start streaming The SWF i manage to load into the browser simply states : "An error occurred, please try again later". Potential solutions are perhaps: Download youtube FLV:s and serve them out of own domain (gah) Use custom FLV-player and stream only FLV:s from youtube over a https proxy? Update 10 March: I've tried to use Googles Youtube API for ActionScript to load a player. It looked promising at first and I was able to load a player through my https:// proxy. However, the SWF that is loaded contains loads of explicit calls to different non-ssl urls to create authentication links for the FLV-stream and for loading different crossdomain policies. It really seems like we're not supposed to access flv-streams directly. This makes it very hard to bypass the Internet Explorer warning, short of ripping out the FLV:s from youtube and serving them out of your own domain. There are solutions out there for downloading youtubes FLV:s. But that is not compliant with the Youtube terms of use and is really not an option for us.

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  • Warning: preg_match() [function.preg-match]: Unknown modifier '/' problem

    - by SonOfOmer
    I am building custom implementation of php MVC routing engine, and I have custom routes like one in $routes array below. Each time when I send asynchronous GET request like xmlhttp.open("GET","someurl"); I get following message Warning: preg_match() [function.preg-match]: Unknown modifier '/' problem but with synchronous (normal) request it all works fine <?php $routes = array( array('url' => '/^someurl$/', 'controller' => 'somecontroller', 'view' => 'someview') ); $url = $_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']; $url = substr( $url, 1 ); $params = array(); $route_match = false; foreach($routes as $urls => $route) { if(preg_match($route['url'], $url, $matches)) { $params = array_merge($params, $matches); $route_match = true; break; } } require_once(CONTROLLER_PATH.$route['controller'].'.php'); ?> string(11) "/^someurl$/" is the result of var_dump($route['url']); Thanks.

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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • MVC: capture route url's and pass them to javascript function

    - by Tim Geerts
    Short:Is there a way to have a route-definition that will pass the "CONTROLLER/ACTION" string value to a javascript function in stead of actually going straight for the controller action? More:I have a masterpage which contains the navigation of the site. Now, all the pages need this navigation wrapped around it at all times, but because I didn't want the navigation to constantly load with each pagecall, I changed all my pages to partialviews. These partial views are loaded via the JQuery.Load() method whenever a menu item is clicked in the navigation. This all worked very good, up till now because I noticed it's also a requirement of the website to be able to link directly to page X, rather then default.aspx. So, as an example:The main page is my "default.aspx" page, this utilizes my master page with the nagivation around it. And each call to a new page uses a javascript function that loads that particular partial view inside a div that is known in my masterpage. So, the url never changes away from "default.aspx", but my content changes seemlesly. The problem is, those url's also need to be available when typed directly into the address bar. But, they're partial views, so loading them directly from the address bar makes them display without any masterpages around them. Therefore my question if it might be possible to capture the route typed into the address bar and pass that on to my javascript function that will load that route in the content div. (I hope I explained it ok enough, if not, feel free to ask more information)

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  • Connecting to a self hosted WCF service from a Flex application - policy issues

    - by James S
    Hello, I am trying to accomplish the following: I wrote a Flex application that is trying to connect to a WCF service hosted on the clients computer. I also wrote a windows forms application for the client to run. This application exposes a self-hosted WCF service that the Flex application is supposed to connect to. This works fine if I'm loading the Flex application from my local IIS. The problem starts when the Flex application is hosted on a different domain. When this occurs, the flash player requires a crossdomain.xml policy file on the clients computer. I also managed to expose the crossdomain.xml on the clients computer using another WCF self-hosted service and WebHttpBinding on the clients computer. This also works fine. My problem is that the flash player requires that the crossdomain.xml or a meta policy file will be in the root directory of the domain. If I used my WCF service to expose something on the root directory of the clients computer I will run over any existing web server capabilities the client has on the computer (such as IIS). I know it's a bit complicated scenario, but any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • Rails: Create method available in all views and all models

    - by smotchkkiss
    I'd like to define a method that is available in both my views and my models Say I have a view helper: def foo(s) "hello #{s}" end A view might use the helper like this: <div class="data"><%= foo(@user.name) %></div> However, this <div> will be updated with a repeating ajax call. I'm using a to_json call in a controller returns data like so: render :text => @item.to_json(:only => [...], :methods => [:foo]) This means, that I have to have foo defined in my Item model as well: class Item def foo "hello #{name}" end end It'd be nice if I could have a DRY method that could be shared in both my views and my models. Usage might look like this: Helper def say_hello(s) "hello #{s}" end User.rb model def foo say_hello(name) end Item.rb model def foo say_hello(label) end View <div class="data"><%= item.foo %></div> Controller def observe @items = item.find(...) render :text => @items.to_json(:only=>[...], :methods=>[:foo]) end IF I'M DUMB, please let me know. I don't know the best way to handle this, but I don't want to completely go against best-practices here. If you can think of a better way, I'm eager to learn!

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  • Client unable to authenticate when connecting to WCF service

    - by davecoulter
    I have a WCF service hosted in a Windows service. The application is an intranet app, and I have programmatically set the bindings on both the service and the client as: NetTcpBinding aBinding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.Transport); aBinding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = TcpClientCredentialType.Windows; aBinding.Security.Transport.ProtectionLevel = System.Net.Security.ProtectionLevel.EncryptAndSign; Both the service and client have endpoints configured with SPNs: EndpointAddress = new EndpointAddress(uri, EndpointIdentity.CreateSpnIdentity("Service1")); As far as I know, I have setup the bindings correctly-- and I am usually able to connect to the service just fine. I did however run into a case where on a server running Windows Server 2003 R2, x64, SP2 I get the following exception immediately when the client tries to connect: INNEREXCEPTION -- Exception Message: InvalidCredentialException: Either the target name is incorrect or the server has rejected the client credentials. Stack Trace: at System.Net.Security.NegoState.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult lazyResult) at System.Net.Security.NegotiateStream.AuthenticateAsClient(NetworkCredential credential, String targetName, ProtectionLevel requiredProtectionLevel, TokenImpersonationLevel allowedImpersonationLevel) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.WindowsStreamSecurityUpgradeProvider.WindowsStreamSecurityUpgradeInitiator.OnInitiateUpgrade(Stream stream, SecurityMessageProperty& remoteSecurity) I get the exception when I try to connect to the service from another machine in the domain, but if I connect to the service on the same machine running the service it works fine. The hosting service itself is running as a domain user account-- but I have tried running the service as a Local System and Network Service to no avail. I have checked the Local Security Policies for the server and didn't see anything amiss (i.e. 'Access this computer from the network' includes 'Everyone'). Anyone have an idea of what could resolve this? I am wondering if I need to do something in Active Directory with respect to the service's SPN? I have read some about using setspn.exe to register or refresh SPNs, but I haven't needed to do this before. Why would this be working with other configurations but not the one above?

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  • Using multiple aggregate functions in an (ANSI) SQL statement

    - by morpheous
    I have aggregate functions foo(), foobar(), fredstats(), barneystats() I want to create a domain specific query language (DSQL) above my DB, to facilitate using a domain language to query the DB. The 'language' comprises of algebraic expressions (or more specifically SQL like criteria) which I use to generate (ANSI) SQL statements which are sent to the db engine. The following lines are examples of what the language statements will look like, and hopefully, it will help further clarify the concept: **Example 1** DQL statement: foobar('yellow') between 1 and 3 and fredstats('weight') > 42 Translation: fetch all rows in an underlying table where computed values for aggregate function foobar() is between 1 and 3 AND computed value for AGG FUNC fredstats() is greater than 42 **Example 2** DQL statement: fredstats('weight') < barneystats('weight') AND foo('fighter') in (9,10,11) AND foobar('green') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 3** DQL statement: foobar('green') / foobar('red') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 4** DQL statement: foobar('green') - foobar('red') >= 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches Given the following information: The table upon which the queries above are being executed is called 'tbl' table 'tbl' has the following structure (id int, name varchar(32), weight float) The result set returns only the tbl.id, tbl.name and the names of the aggregate functions as columns in the result set - so for example the foobar() AGG FUNC column will be called foobar in the result set. So for example, the first DQL query will return a result set with the following columns: id, name, foobar, fredstats Given the above, my questions then are: What would be the underlying SQL required for Example1 ? What would be the underlying SQL required for Example3 ? Given an algebraic equation comprising of AGGREGATE functions, Is there a way of generalizing the algorithm needed to generate the required ANSI SQL statement(s)? I am using PostgreSQL as the db, but I would prefer to use ANSI SQL wherever possible.

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  • Attempted to read or write protected memory

    - by Interfector
    I have a sample ASP.NET MVC 3 web application that is following Jonathan McCracken's Test-Drive Asp.NET MVC (great book , by the way) and I have stumbled upon a problem. Note that I'm using MVCContrib, Rhino and NUnit. [Test] public void ShouldSetLoggedInUserToViewBag() { var todoController = new TodoController(); var builder = new TestControllerBuilder(); builder.InitializeController(todoController); builder.HttpContext.User = new GenericPrincipal(new GenericIdentity("John Doe"), null); Assert.That(todoController.Index().AssertViewRendered().ViewData["UserName"], Is.EqualTo("John Doe")); } The code above always throws this error: System.AccessViolationException : Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. The controller action code is the following: [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { ViewData.Model = Todo.ThingsToBeDone; ViewBag.UserName = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; return View(); } From what I have figured out, the app seems to crash because of the two assignements in the controller action. However, I cannot see how there are wrong!? Can anyone help me pinpoint the solution to this problem. Thank you.

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  • Active Directory login - DirectoryEntry inconsistent exception

    - by Pavan Reddy
    I need to validate the LDAP user by checking if there exists such a user name in the specified domain. For this I am using this code - DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + strDomainController); DirectorySearcher searcher = new DirectorySearcher(entry); searcher.Filter = "SAMAccountName=" + strUserName; SearchResult result = searcher.FindOne(); return (result != null) ? true : false; This is a method in a class library which I intened to reference and use whereever I need this functionality in my project. To test this, I created a simple test application. The test occurs like this - Console.WriteLine(MyClassLib.MyValidateUserMethod("UserName", "Domain",ref strError).ToString()); The problem I am facing is that this works fine when I test it with my testapp but in my project, when I try to use the same method with the same credentials - The DirectoryEntry object throws an "System.DirectoryServices.DirectoryServicesCOMException" exception and the search.Filter fails and throws ex = {"Logon failure: unknown user name or bad password.\r\n"} exception. I have tried impersonation but that doesn't help. Somehow the same method works fine in mytestapp and doesn't work in my project. Both these applications are in my local dev machine. What am I missing? Any ideas?

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  • ASP.NET MVC View Engine Resolution Sequence

    - by intangible02
    I created a simple ASP.NET MVC version 1.0 application. I have a ProductController which has one action Index. In the view, I created a corresponding Index.aspx under Product subfolder. Then I referenced the Spark dll and created Index.spark under the same Product view folder. The Application_Start looks like protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new Spark.Web.Mvc.SparkViewFactory()); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new WebFormViewEngine()); } My expectation is that since the Spark engine registers before default WebFormViewEngine, when browse the Index action in Product controller, the Spark engine should be used, and WebFormViewEngine should be used for all other urls. However, the test shows that the Index action for Product controller also uses the WebFormViewEngine. If I comment out the registration of WebFormViewEnginer (the last line in the code), I can see that the Index action is rendered by Spark engine and the rest urls generates an error (since the defualt engine is gone), it proves that all my Spark code is correct. Now my question is how the view engine is resolved? Why the registration sequence does not take effect?

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  • How do I implement repository pattern and unit of work when dealing with multiple data stores?

    - by Jason
    I have a unique situation where I am building a DDD based system that needs to access both Active Directory and a SQL database as persistence. Initially this wasnt a problem because our design was setup where we had a unit of work that looked like this: public interface IUnitOfWork { void BeginTransaction() void Commit() } and our repositories looked like this: public interface IRepository<T> { T GetByID() void Save(T entity) void Delete(T entity) } In this setup our load and save would handle the mapping between both data stores because we wrote it ourselves. The unit of work would handle transactions and would contain the Linq To SQL data context that the repositories would use for persistence. The active directory part was handled by a domain service implemented in infrastructure and consumed by the repositories in each Save() method. Save() was responsible with interacting with the data context to do all the database operations. Now we are trying to adapt it to entity framework and take advantage of POCO. Ideally we would not need the Save() method because the domain objects are being tracked by the object context and we would just need to add a Save() method on the unit of work to have the object context save the changes, and a way to register new objects with the context. The new proposed design looks more like this: public interface IUnitOfWork { void BeginTransaction() void Save() void Commit() } public interface IRepository<T> { T GetByID() void Add(T entity) void Delete(T entity) } This solves the data access problem with entity framework, but does not solve the problem with our active directory integration. Before, it was in the Save() method on the repository, but now it has no home. The unit of work knows nothing other than the entity framework data context. Where should this logic go? I argue this design only works if you only have one data store using entity framework. Any ideas how to best approach this issue? Where should I put this logic?

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  • Google's Oauth for Installed apps vs. Oauth for Web Apps

    - by burgerguy
    So I'm having trouble understanding something... If you do Oauth for Web Apps, you register your site with a callback URL and get a unique consumer secret key. But once you've obtained an Oauth for Web Apps token, you don't have to generate Oauth calls to the google server from your registered domain. I regularly use my key and token from scripts running via an apache server at localhost on my laptop and Google never says "you're not sending this request from the registered domain." It just sends me the data. Now, as I understand it, if you do Oauth for Installed Apps, you use "anonymous" instead of a secret key you got from Google. I've been thinking of just using the OAuth for Web Apps auth method, then passing that token to an installed app that has my secret code embedded in its innards. The worry is that the code could be discovered by bad people. But what's more secure... making them work for the secret code or letting them default to anonymous? What really goes bad if the "secret" is discovered when the alternative is using "anonymous" as the secret?

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  • Seam:token tag not being respected

    - by JBristow
    When I click a command button, and then hit the browser back button to the form and click it again, it submits a second time without throwing the proper exception... Even stranger, the form id itself is DIFFERENT when I come back, which implies it has regenerated a "valid" form id at some point. Here's the relevant code: Any ideas? <h:form id="accountActivationForm"> <s:token/> <a4j:commandButton id="cancelActivateAccountButton" action="#{controller[cancelAction]}" image="/images/button-Cancel-gray.gif" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onCancelComplete}" /> &#160; <a4j:commandButton id="activateAccountButton" action="#{controller[agreeAction]}" image="/images/button-i-agree-continue.gif" styleClass="activate-account-button" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onActivationComplete}"/> </h:form> Clarifications: I inherited this, so I'm trying to change it as little as possible. (It's used in a couple places.) Each action returns a view, not null. I have confirmed this by stepping through line-by-line. The reRenderList is empty in my current test-case. onActivationComplete is also empty. I'm going to be going template-by-template to see if someone made it with nested forms, because my coworkers have had unrelated problems due to that, so it couldn't hurt to eliminate that as a possible problem.

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  • Dismissing UIImagePickerController from UITabBarController

    - by Dave
    I have a tab bar application whereby one tab uses a navigation controller to move through a series of views. On the final view, there is a button to add a photo, which presents a UIImagePickerController. So far, so good - however when I finish picking the image, or cancel the operation, the previous view is loaded, but without the tab bar. I'm sure I'm missing something elementary, but any suggestions on how to properly release the UIImagePickerController would be much appreciated. The code is as follows: ImagePickerViewController *aController = [[ImagePickerViewController alloc]; initWithNibName:@"ImagePickerViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release]; //viewDidLoad self.window = [[[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]] autorelease]; imagePickerController = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; imagePickerController.delegate = self; if([UIImagePickerController isSourceTypeAvailable: UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera]){ imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; } else { imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } [window addSubview:imagePickerController.view]; //ImagePickerViewController imagePickerControllerDidCancel - FinalViewController is the last view in the stack controlled by a navigation controller which contains the button to present the UIImagePickerController [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; FinalViewController *aController = [[FinalViewController alloc initWithNibName:@"FinalViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [picker presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release];

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  • Requested Service not found - .NET Remoting

    - by bharat
    I am Getting this exception System.Runtime.Remoting.RemotingException occurred Message="Object '/55337266_9751_4f58_8446_c54ff254222e/rkutlpt5hvsxipmzhb+jkqyl_98.rem' has been disconnected or does not exist at the server." Source="mscorlib" StackTrace: Server stack trace: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.ChannelServices.CheckDisconnectedOrCreateWellKnownObject(IMessage msg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.ChannelServices.DispatchMessage(IServerChannelSinkStack sinkStack, IMessage msg, IMessage& replyMsg) Exception rethrown at [0]: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at Common.Interface.Repository.NA.INRR.GetNRun(Int32 NetworkRunId) at Module.NA.ViewModel.NRDViewModel.get_AS() InnerException: Most of the times i am getting this exception this is my remotingDomain method string tcpURL; TcpChannel channel; channel = new TcpChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); //-- // Remote domain objects //-- tcpURL = string.Format("tcp://{0}:{1}/DomainComposition", ServerName, TcpPort); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterWellKnownClientType(typeof(DomainComposition), tcpURL); //-- // Remote repository objects //-- tcpURL = string.Format("tcp://{0}:{1}/RepositoryComposition", ServerName, TcpPort); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterWellKnownClientType(typeof(RepositoryComposition), tcpURL); //-- // Remote utility objects //-- tcpURL = string.Format("tcp://{0}:{1}/UtilityComposition", ServerName, TcpPort); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterWellKnownClientType(typeof(UtilityComposition), tcpURL); this.Domain = new DomainComposition(); this.Repository = new RepositoryComposition(); this.Utility = new UtilityComposition(); How to Check if the object is disconnect then re initiate the service

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  • SAP related testing

    - by mgj
    Dear all, One notion that has been prevalent mostly as rumours for many aspiring programmers is that the testing phase of the SDLC(Software Development Life Cycle) is not that challenging and interesting as one's job as a tester after a period of time becomes monotonous because a person does the same thing repeatedly over and over again. Thats why many have this complexion of looking for a developers job rather than that of testers. Don't testers have a space for themselves in software companies to grow..? Please feel free to express your views for or against this. How true is that, could you please give e.g.'s of instances( need not be practical, even theoretical would suffice) which actually contradict this statement wrt a tester's career specifically wrt the SAP domain. E.g.'s from other domains are also welcome. This question is not meant to hurt someone's feelings who is in the testing domain. Its just that for e.g. in my case I want to know what actually would be the challenge's a tester could also face in real life situations.Something that would make their job also interesting and fun-filled. I myself am pro-testing and also interested in pursuing testing as a profession in a sw co, just curious to know more about it so...:) Thanks..:)

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  • Use the repository pattern when using PLINQO generated data?

    - by Chad
    I'm "upgrading" an MVC app. Previously, the DAL was a part of the Model, as a series of repositories (based on the entity name) using standard LINQ to SQL queries. Now, it's a separate project and is generated using PLINQO. Since PLINQO generates query extensions based on the properties of the entity, I started using them directly in my controller... and eliminated the repositories all together. It's working fine, this is more a question to draw upon your experience, should I continue down this path or should I rebuild the repositories (using PLINQO as the DAL within the repository files)? One benefit of just using the PLINQO generated data context is that when I need DB access, I just make one reference to the the data context. Under the repository pattern, I had to reference each repository when I needed data access, sometimes needing to reference multiple repositories on a single controller. The big benefit I saw on the repositories, were aptly named query methods (i.e. FindAllProductsByCategoryId(int id), etc...). With the PLINQO code, it's _db.Product.ByCatId(int id) - which isn't too bad either. I like both, but where it gets "harrier" is when the query uses predicates. I can roll that up into the repository query method. But on the PLINQO code, it would be something like _db.Product.Where(x = x.CatId == 1 && x.OrderId == 1); I'm not so sure I like having code like that in my controllers. Whats your take on this?

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  • Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

    - by Bob
    I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue? EDIT: I used Fiddler to see if AjaxPage was being cached, but it appears not to be. I assume if it were cached, I'd get an HTTP Status Code 200 back. I may simply misunderstand this though.

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