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• Where to put data management rules for complex data validation in ASP.NET MVC?

  - by TheRHCP

  Hello, I am currently working on an ASP.NET MVC2 project. This is the first time I am working on a real MVC web application. The ASP.NET MVC website really helped me to get started really fast, but I still have some obscure knowledge concerning datamodel validation. My problem is that I do not really know where to manage my filled datamodel when it comes to complex validation rules. For example, validating a string field with a Regex is quite easy and I know that I just have to decorate my field with a specific attribute, so data management rules are implemented in the model. But if I have multiple fields that I need to validate which each other, for example multiple datetime that need to be correctly set following a specific time rule, where do I need to validate them? I know that I could create my own validation attributes, but sometimes validation ask a specific validation path which is to complex to be validated using attributes. This first question also leads me to a related question which is, is it right to validate a model in the controller? Because for the moment that is the only way I found for complex validation. But I find this a bit dirty and I feel it does not really fit a the controller role and much harder to test (multiple code path). Thanks.

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• Google's Oauth for Installed apps vs. Oauth for Web Apps

  - by burgerguy

  So I'm having trouble understanding something... If you do Oauth for Web Apps, you register your site with a callback URL and get a unique consumer secret key. But once you've obtained an Oauth for Web Apps token, you don't have to generate Oauth calls to the google server from your registered domain. I regularly use my key and token from scripts running via an apache server at localhost on my laptop and Google never says "you're not sending this request from the registered domain." It just sends me the data. Now, as I understand it, if you do Oauth for Installed Apps, you use "anonymous" instead of a secret key you got from Google. I've been thinking of just using the OAuth for Web Apps auth method, then passing that token to an installed app that has my secret code embedded in its innards. The worry is that the code could be discovered by bad people. But what's more secure... making them work for the secret code or letting them default to anonymous? What really goes bad if the "secret" is discovered when the alternative is using "anonymous" as the secret?

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• Questions about the MVC architecture

  - by ah123

  I started coding a considerably complicated web application, and it became quite a mess. So I figured I'd try to organize it in a better way. MVC seemed appropriate. I've never used MVC before, and researching about it I'm trying to consolidate a better perception of it (and my questions obviously reflect what I think I've learned so far). My questions are slightly JavaScript oriented: What object should make "AJAX" requests? The Controller or the Model? (seperation -- should the Model just store/manipulate the data, should it not care/know where the data came from, or should it be the one fetching it?) Should the Model call View functions providing them with data as arguments or should the View query (reference) the Model within itself? (seperation principles in mind, "the View shouldn't care/know where it gets the data from" -- is that correct?) In general, should the View "know" of the Model's existance, and vice-versa? Is the Controller the only thing gluing them together or is that simply incorrect? (I really doubt that statement is generally correct) There's a good chance I'd want to port this into a desktop/mobile application, so I would like to seperate components in a way that will allow me to achieve that task, replacing the current source of the data, HTTP requests, with DB access, and replacing the View. Maybe every approach that I've asked about is still "valid" MVC and it's just up to me to choose. I understand that nothing is set in stone, I'm just trying to have a (better) general idea in my head.

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• Should this even be a has_many :through association?

  - by GoodGets

  A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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• Seam:token tag not being respected

  - by JBristow

  When I click a command button, and then hit the browser back button to the form and click it again, it submits a second time without throwing the proper exception... Even stranger, the form id itself is DIFFERENT when I come back, which implies it has regenerated a "valid" form id at some point. Here's the relevant code: Any ideas? <h:form id="accountActivationForm"> <s:token/> <a4j:commandButton id="cancelActivateAccountButton" action="#{controller[cancelAction]}" image="/images/button-Cancel-gray.gif" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onCancelComplete}" /> &#160; <a4j:commandButton id="activateAccountButton" action="#{controller[agreeAction]}" image="/images/button-i-agree-continue.gif" styleClass="activate-account-button" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onActivationComplete}"/> </h:form> Clarifications: I inherited this, so I'm trying to change it as little as possible. (It's used in a couple places.) Each action returns a view, not null. I have confirmed this by stepping through line-by-line. The reRenderList is empty in my current test-case. onActivationComplete is also empty. I'm going to be going template-by-template to see if someone made it with nested forms, because my coworkers have had unrelated problems due to that, so it couldn't hurt to eliminate that as a possible problem.

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• Internet Explorer Warning when embedding Youtube on HTTPS site?

  - by pellepim

  Our application is run over HTTPS which rarely presents any problems for us. When it comes to youtube however, the fact that they do not present any content over SSL connections is giving us some head ache when trying to embed clips. Mostly because of Internet Explorers famous little warning message: "Do you want to view only the webpage content that was delivered securely? This page contains content that will not be delivered using a secure HTTPS ... etc" I've tried to solve this in several ways. The most promising one was to use the ProxyPass functionality in Apache to map to YouTube. Like this: ProxyPass: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com ProxyPassReverse: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com This gets rid of the annoying warning. However, the youtube SWF fails to start streaming The SWF i manage to load into the browser simply states : "An error occurred, please try again later". Potential solutions are perhaps: Download youtube FLV:s and serve them out of own domain (gah) Use custom FLV-player and stream only FLV:s from youtube over a https proxy? Update 10 March: I've tried to use Googles Youtube API for ActionScript to load a player. It looked promising at first and I was able to load a player through my https:// proxy. However, the SWF that is loaded contains loads of explicit calls to different non-ssl urls to create authentication links for the FLV-stream and for loading different crossdomain policies. It really seems like we're not supposed to access flv-streams directly. This makes it very hard to bypass the Internet Explorer warning, short of ripping out the FLV:s from youtube and serving them out of your own domain. There are solutions out there for downloading youtubes FLV:s. But that is not compliant with the Youtube terms of use and is really not an option for us.

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• MVC: capture route url's and pass them to javascript function

  - by Tim Geerts

  Short:Is there a way to have a route-definition that will pass the "CONTROLLER/ACTION" string value to a javascript function in stead of actually going straight for the controller action? More:I have a masterpage which contains the navigation of the site. Now, all the pages need this navigation wrapped around it at all times, but because I didn't want the navigation to constantly load with each pagecall, I changed all my pages to partialviews. These partial views are loaded via the JQuery.Load() method whenever a menu item is clicked in the navigation. This all worked very good, up till now because I noticed it's also a requirement of the website to be able to link directly to page X, rather then default.aspx. So, as an example:The main page is my "default.aspx" page, this utilizes my master page with the nagivation around it. And each call to a new page uses a javascript function that loads that particular partial view inside a div that is known in my masterpage. So, the url never changes away from "default.aspx", but my content changes seemlesly. The problem is, those url's also need to be available when typed directly into the address bar. But, they're partial views, so loading them directly from the address bar makes them display without any masterpages around them. Therefore my question if it might be possible to capture the route typed into the address bar and pass that on to my javascript function that will load that route in the content div. (I hope I explained it ok enough, if not, feel free to ask more information)

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• @Autowire strange problem

  - by Javi

  Hello, I have a strange behaviour when autowiring I have a similar code like this one, and it works @Controller public class Class1 { @Autowired private Class2 object2; ... } @Service @Transactional public class Class2{ ... } The problem is that I need that the Class2 implements an interface so I've only changed the Class2 so it's now like: @Controller public class Class1 { @Autowired private Class2 object2; ... } @Service @Transactional public class Class2 implements IServiceReference<Class3, Long>{ ... } public interface IServiceReference<T, PK extends Serializable> { public T reference(PK id); } with this code I get a org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No matching bean of type for Class2. It seems that @ Transitional annotation is not compatible with the interface because if I remove the @Transitional annotation or the "implements IServiceReference" the problem disapears and the bean is injected (though I need to have both in this class). It also happens if I put the annotation @Transitional in the methods instead of in the Class. I use Spring 3.0.2 if this helps. Is not compatible the interface with the transactional method? May it be a Spring bug? Thanks

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• Use the repository pattern when using PLINQO generated data?

  - by Chad

  I'm "upgrading" an MVC app. Previously, the DAL was a part of the Model, as a series of repositories (based on the entity name) using standard LINQ to SQL queries. Now, it's a separate project and is generated using PLINQO. Since PLINQO generates query extensions based on the properties of the entity, I started using them directly in my controller... and eliminated the repositories all together. It's working fine, this is more a question to draw upon your experience, should I continue down this path or should I rebuild the repositories (using PLINQO as the DAL within the repository files)? One benefit of just using the PLINQO generated data context is that when I need DB access, I just make one reference to the the data context. Under the repository pattern, I had to reference each repository when I needed data access, sometimes needing to reference multiple repositories on a single controller. The big benefit I saw on the repositories, were aptly named query methods (i.e. FindAllProductsByCategoryId(int id), etc...). With the PLINQO code, it's _db.Product.ByCatId(int id) - which isn't too bad either. I like both, but where it gets "harrier" is when the query uses predicates. I can roll that up into the repository query method. But on the PLINQO code, it would be something like _db.Product.Where(x = x.CatId == 1 && x.OrderId == 1); I'm not so sure I like having code like that in my controllers. Whats your take on this?

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• Dismissing UIImagePickerController from UITabBarController

  - by Dave

  I have a tab bar application whereby one tab uses a navigation controller to move through a series of views. On the final view, there is a button to add a photo, which presents a UIImagePickerController. So far, so good - however when I finish picking the image, or cancel the operation, the previous view is loaded, but without the tab bar. I'm sure I'm missing something elementary, but any suggestions on how to properly release the UIImagePickerController would be much appreciated. The code is as follows: ImagePickerViewController *aController = [[ImagePickerViewController alloc]; initWithNibName:@"ImagePickerViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release]; //viewDidLoad self.window = [[[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]] autorelease]; imagePickerController = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; imagePickerController.delegate = self; if([UIImagePickerController isSourceTypeAvailable: UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera]){ imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; } else { imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } [window addSubview:imagePickerController.view]; //ImagePickerViewController imagePickerControllerDidCancel - FinalViewController is the last view in the stack controlled by a navigation controller which contains the button to present the UIImagePickerController [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; FinalViewController *aController = [[FinalViewController alloc initWithNibName:@"FinalViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [picker presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release];

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• MVC UI with Mock Controllers?

  - by Jaimal Chohan

  I'm working with Aspnet MVC 2 (R2) and at the same time playing about with the whole alt.net stack. One of this things I would like to be able todo is basically write my Views, and be able to interact with them without having to write the controller logic. E.g. I have a view that displays a list of orders and I can click on an order which redirects to another view where I can edit it, but I don't want to get into the nitty gritty of writing the code to actually get a list of orders, or update an existing ordes. I want to do so I can write UI tests in WaitN/AOT/Selenium without having to worry about whats happening underneath, and also It would help drive my controller logic on a need basis as opposed to guess work based of of the supplied screenshots How do you guys accomplish this atm? Can you provide links ot useful blog posts/tools/framework/articles with information on how to accomplish this p.s. I primarly use Rhino Mocks & NUnit but can happliy change to other tools if they support the above better.

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• Autorotation and multiple view controllers

  - by alku83

  I'm creating an iPad application which should only work in portrait and portait upsidedown modes. For performance reasons in my applicationDidFinishLaunching method I'm creating several viewControllers, and adding them to my main window as subviews. I then hide the ones I don't want to see straight away. There is no tab bar or navigation controller. My problem is that only the first viewController seems to be receiving the rotate calls. I have verified this by swapping around the order in which I add the subviews to the main window and NSLog's. Is there some way I can force all the controllers to receive the calls? Some of my views are designed to lay over the top of another view, but this behind view will not always be the same one - so it seems to make sense to have the overlay view in a separate view controller. Am I doing something fundamentally wrong, and that's why it's not behaving as I would expect? EDIT: The accepted answer for this question seems to indicate the exact problem I'm facing: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/548142/uiviewcontroller-rotate-methods

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• How can I use PHP Mail() function within PHP-FPM? On Nginx?

  - by TheBlackBenzKid

  I have searched everywhere for this and I really want to resolve this. In the past I just end up using an SMTP service like SendGrid for PHP and a mailing plugin like SwiftMailer. However I want to use PHP. Basically my setup (I am new to server setup, and this is my personal setup following a tutorial) Nginx Rackspace Cloud PHP 5.3 PHP-FPM Ubuntu 11.04 My phpinfo() returns this about the Mail entries: mail.log no value mail.add_x_header On mail.force_extra_parameters no value sendmail_from no value sendmail_path /usr/sbin/sendmail -t -i SMTP localhost smtp_port 25 Can someone help me to as why Mail() will not work - my script is working on all other sites, it is a normal mail command. Do I need to setup logs or enable some PHP port on the server? My Sample script <? # FORMS VARS // $to = $customers_email; // $to = $customers_email; $to = $_GET["customerEmailFromForm"]; $subject = "Thank you for contacting Real-Domain.com"; $message = " <html> <head> </head> <body> Thanks, your message was sent and our team will be in touch shortly. <img src='http://cdn.com/emails/thank_you.jpg' /> </body> </html> "; $headers = "MIME-Version: 1.0" . "\r\n"; $headers .= "Content-type:text/html;charset=iso-8859-1" . "\r\n"; $headers .= 'From: <[email protected]>' . "\r\n"; // SEND MAIL mail($to,$subject,$message,$headers); ?> Thanks

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• IIS SMTP server (Installed on local server) in parallel to Google Apps

  - by sharru

  I am currently using free version of Google Apps for hosting my email.It works great for my official mails my email on Google is [email protected]. In addition I'm sending out high volume mails (registrations, forgotten passwords, newsletters etc) from the website (www.mydomain.com) using IIS SMTP installed on my windows machine. These emails are sent from [email protected] My problem is that when I send email from the website using IIS SMTP to a mail address [email protected] I don’t receive the email to Google apps. (I only receive these emails if I install a pop service on the server with the [email protected] email box). It seems that the IIS SMTP is ignoring the domain MX records and just delivers these emails to my local server. Here are my DNS records for domain.com: mydomain.com A 82.80.200.20 3600s mydomain.com TXT v=spf1 ip4: 82.80.200.20 a mx ptr include:aspmx.googlemail.com ~all mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx2.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx3.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx4.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx5.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 1 exchange: aspmx.l.google.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 5 exchange: alt1.aspmx.l.google.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 5 exchange: alt2.aspmx.l.google.com 3600s Please help! Thanks.

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• ViewModel updates after Model server roundtrip

  - by Pavel Savara

  I have stateless services and anemic domain objects on server side. Model between server and client is POCO DTO. The client should become MVVM. The model could be graph of about 100 instances of 20 different classes. The client editor contains diverse tab-pages all of them live-connected to model/viewmodel. My problem is how to propagate changes after server round-trip nice way. It's quite easy to propagate changes from ViewModel to DTO. For way back it would be possible to throw away old DTO and replace it whole with new one, but it will cause lot of redrawing for lists/DataTemplates. I could gather the server side changes and transmit them to client side. But the names of fields changed would be domain/DTO specific, not ViewModel specific. And the mapping seems nontrivial to me. If I should do it imperative way after round-trip, it would break SOC/modularity of viewModels. I'm thinking about some kind of mapping rule engine, something like automappper or emit mapper. But it solves just very plain use-cases. I don't see how it would map/propagate/convert adding items to list or removal. How to identify instances in collections so it could merge values to existing instances. As well it should propagate validation/error info. Maybe I should implement INotifyPropertyChanged on DTO and try to replay server side events on it ? And then bind ViewModel to it ? Would binding solve the problems with collection merges nice way ? Is EventAgregator from PRISM useful for that ? Is there any event record-replay component ? Is there better client side pattern for architecture with server side logic ?

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• Omniauth/Devise/Facebook: Auth route is not recognized

  - by M. Cypher

  I've been working on this problem for 7 hours now, and I still have no idea. Maybe one of you can help me. I'm simply trying to integrate the OAuth feature of Devise 1.2rc, which uses Omniauth, into my Rails application. I've been using this tutorial by Devise: https://github.com/plataformatec/devise/wiki/OmniAuth%3A-Overview I have done everything they tell you to... Yes, I have added the following line to my devise.rb: config.omniauth :facebook, "APP ID", "APP SECRET" I have added :omniauthable to my user model, as well as the class function as described in the tutorial I have implemented the omniauth_callbacks controller, as well as the callback function, and I have specified the omniauth_callbacks controller in my routes.rb When I run "rake middleware" it does list the Omniauth middleware: use OmniAuth::Strategies::Facebook I have installed Devise directly from the Git repo, master branch, so it's up-to-date I have installed Omniauth 1.2.0.beta5, which is the latest version. In my Gemfile it says: gem 'oa-oauth', '0.2.0.beta5', :require = 'omniauth/oauth' I have restarted the server, obviously However, when I try to request this URL: http://localhost:3000/auth/facebook it simply says ActionController::RoutingError (No route matches "/auth/facebook"): /user/auth/facebook doesn't work either. Since I unfortunately don't have the time to take apart the entire Omniauth and Devise gems and understand every line of code in them, maybe one of you could tell me what the problem might be.

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• WMI Query Script as a Job

  - by Kenneth

  I have two scripts. One calls the other with a list of servers as parameters. The second query is designed to execute a WMI query. When I run it manually, it does this perfectly. When I try to run it as a job it hangs forever and I have to remove it. For the sake of space here is the relevant part of the calling script: ProcessServers.ps1 Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList $sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 param($sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance) $password = get-content C:\SQLPS\auth.txt | convertto-securestring $credentials = new-object -typename System.Management.Automation.PSCredential -argumentlist "DOMAIN\MYUSER",$password [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName('Microsoft.SqlServer.SMO') $box_id = 0; if ($sqlsrv.length -eq 0) { write-output "No data passed" break } function getinfo { param( [string]$svr, [string]$inst ) "Entered GetInfo with: $svr,$inst" $cs = get-wmiobject win32_operatingsystem -computername $svr -credential $credentials -authentication 6 -Verbose -Debug | select Name, Model, Manufacturer, Description, DNSHostName, Domain, DomainRole, PartOfDomain, NumberOfProcessors, SystemType, TotalPhysicalMemory, UserName, Workgroup write-output "WMI Results: $cs" } getinfo $server $instance write-output "Complete" Executed as a job it will show as 'running' forever: PS C:\sqlps> Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList DBSERVER,LOGDB,SERVER01,SERVER01 Id Name State HasMoreData Location Command -- ---- ----- ----------- -------- ------- 21 Job21 Running True localhost param($sqlsrv,$destdb,... GAC Version Location --- ------- -------- True v2.0.50727 C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo\10.0.0.0__89845dcd8080cc91\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo.dll getinfo MSDCHR01 MSDCHR01 Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01 The last output I ever get is the 'Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01'. If I run it manually like so: PS C:\sqlps> .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 DBSERVER LOGDB SERVER01 SERVER01 The WMI query executes just as expected. I am trying to determine why this is, or at least a useful way to trap errors from within jobs. Thanks!

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• click event launched only once problem

  - by user281180

  I have a form in which I have many checkboxes. I need to post the data to the controller upon any checkbox checked or unchecked, i.e a click on a checbox must post to the controller, and there is no submit button. What will be the bet method in this case? I have though of Ajax.BeginForm and have the codes below. The problem im having is that the checkbox click event is being detected only once and after that the click event isnt being launched. Why is that so? How can I correct that? <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Edit", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "tests"})) {%> <div id="tests"> <%Html.RenderPartial("Details", Model); %> </div> <input type="submit" value="Save" style="Viibility:hidden" id="myForm"/> <%} %> $(function() { $('input:checkbox').click(function() { $('#myForm').click(); }); });

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• jQuery ajax success not work in codeigniter

  - by softboxkid

  I had a problem with ajax. The trick is, when user click on the top hyperlink, it will send the link id through onclick=getChildMenuLink(str). Then from getChildMenuLink(str) function, it will send the str to the controller (to set the session) thru ajax. here is the code. html code <a href="http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/sysconfig" onclick="getChildMenuLink(1)">Administrator</a> <a href="http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/welcome" onclick="getChildMenuLink(22)">Home</a> jquery ajax function getChildMenuLink(str) { 'use strict'; $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/sysconfig/getLink/" + str, success: function () {} // End of success function of ajax form }); // End of ajax call //alert(document.URL); } codeigniter controller function getLink($id='') { $this->session->unset_userdata('parentLink'); $this->session->set_userdata('parentLink',$id); } if i uncomment the alert() function on that script, it work. the PHP session is properly set. please help me

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• How to implement "business rules" in Rails?

  - by Zabba

  What is the way to implement "business rules" in Rails? Let us say I have a car and want to sell it: car = Cars.find(24) car.sell car.sell method will check a few things: does current_user own the car? check: car.user_id == current_user.id is the car listed for sale in the sales catalog? check: car.catalogs.ids.include? car.id if all o.k. then car is marked as sold. I was thinking of creating a class called Rules: class Rules def initialize(user,car) @user = user @car = car end def can_sell_car? @car.user_id == @user.id && @car.catalogs.ids.include? @car.id end end And using it like this: def Car def sell if Rules.new(current_user,self).can_sell_car ..sell the car... else @error_message = "Cannot sell this car" nil end end end As for getting the current_user, I was thinking of storing it in a global variable? I think that whenever a controller action is called, it's always a "fresh" call right? If so then storing the current user as a global variable should not introduce any risks..(like some other user being able to access another user's details) Any insights are appreciated! UPDATE So, the global variable route is out! Thanks to PeterWong for pointing out that global variables persist! I've now thinking of using this way: class Rules def self.can_sell_car?(current_user, car) ......checks.... end end And then calling Rules.can_sell_car?(current_user,@car) from the controller action. Any thoughts on this new way?

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• MVC.NET custom validator is not working

  - by IvanMushketyk

  I want to write a custom validator for MVC.NET framework that checks if entered date is in the future. To do it, I wrote the following class: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public sealed class InTheFutureAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private const string DefaultErrorMessage = "{0} should be date in the future"; public InTheFutureAttribute() : base(DefaultErrorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return string.Format(ErrorMessageString, name); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime time = (DateTime)value; if (time < DateTime.Now) { return false; } return true; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var clientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule() { ErrorMessage = FormatErrorMessage(metadata.GetDisplayName()), ValidationType = "wrongvalue" }; return new[] { clientValidationRule }; } } and added attribute to field that I want to check. On the View page I create input field in the following way: <div class="editor-label-search"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> <div class="editor-field-search-date"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.checkIn) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#checkIn').datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/Content/images/calendar.gif', duration: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy' }); }); </script> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> When I submit the form for the controller that requires model with checked attribute code in my validator is called and it returns false, but instead of displaying an error it just call my controller's action and send invalid model to it. Am I doing something wrong? How can I fix it? Thank you in advance.

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• iPhone - ModalViewController not raising to top of the screen

  - by Oliver

  Hello, I have a UIImagePickerController that is shown [self presentModalViewController:self.picker animated:NO]; Then later on the code, I allow the user to display a preference panel : PreferencesController *nextWindow = [[[PreferencesController alloc] initWithNibName:@"Preferences" bundle:nil] autorelease]; UINavigationController* navController = [[[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:nextWindow] autorelease]; [self presentModalViewController:navController animated:YES]; At this point, the new controller raises on the screen, but don't go to the top. Some space is left "transparent" at the top (I can see the camera view behind), and the bottom of the view is hidden out of the screen. The space I am talking about is about a status bar height. The status bar is not present on the screen. The navigation controller is hidden : self.navigationController.navigationBarHidden = YES; There is a toolbar at the top of the view. Nothing special into the view. The height of the view is defined at 480. All simulated element are set off in IB. The autoresize properties are all set on. I had a previous xib (I rebuilt it from scratch) that worked very well. I don't see what I missed on this one (I have only changed the xib, that replaces the previous one). I've cleaned the cache to be sure there was nothing left. No change... I've deleted everything in the new view to prevent some conflicts. No change... What did I miss ? How could I remove this empty space ?

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• Using multiple named outlets and a wrapper view with no content in Emberjs

  - by user1889776

  I'm trying to use multiple named outlets with Ember.js. Is my approach below correct? Markup: <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="application"> <div id="mainArea"> {{outlet main_area}} </div> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="home"> <ul id="sections"> {{outlet sections}} </ul> <ul id="categories"> {{outlet categories}} </ul> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="sections"> {{#each section in controller}} <li><img {{bindAttr src="section.image"}}></li> {{/each}} </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="categories"> {{#each category in controller}} <img {{bindAttr src="category.image"}}> {{/each}} </script>? JS Code: Here I set the content of the various controllers to data grabbed from a server and connect outlets with their corresponding views. Since the HomeController has no content, set its content to an empty object - a hack to get the rid of this error message: Uncaught Error: assertion failed: Cannot delegate set('categories' ) to the 'content' property of object proxy : its 'content' is undefined. App.Router = Ember.Router.extend({ enableLogging: false, root: Ember.Route.extend({ index: Ember.Route.extend({ route: '/', connectOutlets: function(router){ router.get('sectionsController').set('content',App.Section.find()); router.get('categoriesController').set('content', App.Category.find()); router.get('applicationController').connectOutlet('main_area', 'home'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('home', {}); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('categories', 'categories'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('sections', 'sections'); } }) }) });

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• production vs dev server content-disposition filename encoding

  - by rgripper

  I am using asp.net mvc3, download file in the same browser (Chrome 22). Here is the controller code: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Uploadfile(HttpPostedFileBase file)//HttpPostedFileBase file, string excelSumInfoId) { ... return File( result.Output, "application/vnd.ms-excel", String.Format("{0}_{1:yyyy.MM.dd-HH.mm.ss}.xls", "????????????", DateTime.Now)); } On my dev machine I download a programmatically created file with the correct name "????????????_2012.10.18-13.36.06.xls". Response: Content-Disposition:attachment; filename*=UTF-8''%D0%A1%D1%83%D0%BC%D0%BC%D0%B8%D1%80%D0%BE%D0%B2%D0%B0%D0%BD%D0%B8%D0%B5_2012.10.18-13.36.06.xls Content-Length:203776 Content-Type:application/vnd.ms-excel Date:Thu, 18 Oct 2012 09:36:06 GMT Server:ASP.NET Development Server/10.0.0.0 X-AspNet-Version:4.0.30319 X-AspNetMvc-Version:3.0 And from production server I download a file with the name of the controller's action + correct extension "Uploadfile.xls", which is wrong. Response: Content-Disposition:attachment; filename="=?utf-8?B?0KHRg9C80LzQuNGA0L7QstCw0L3QuNC1XzIwMTIuMTAuMTgtMTMuMzYu?=%0d%0a =?utf-8?B?NTUueGxz?=" Content-Length:203776 Content-Type:application/vnd.ms-excel Date:Thu, 18 Oct 2012 09:36:55 GMT Server:Microsoft-IIS/7.5 X-AspNet-Version:4.0.30319 X-AspNetMvc-Version:3.0 X-Powered-By:ASP.NET Web.config files are the same on both machines. Why does filename gets encoded differently for the same browser? Are there any kinds of default settings in web.config that are different on machines that I am missing?

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• NHibernate update using composite key

  - by Mahesh

  Hi, I have a table defnition as given below: License ClientId Type Total Used ClientId and Type together uniquely identifies a row. I have a mapping file as given below: <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" auto-import="true"> <class name="Acumen.AAM.Domain.Model.License, Acumen.AAM.Domain" lazy="false" table="License"> <id name="ClientId" access="field" column="ClientID" /> <property name="Total" access="field" column="Total"/> <property name="Used" access="field" column="Used"/> <property name="Type" access="field" column="Type"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> If a client used a license to create a user, I need to update the Used column in the table. As I set ClientId as the id column for this table, I am getting TooManyRowsAffectedException. could you please let me know how to set a composite key at mapping level so that NHibernate can udpate based on ClientId and Type. Something like: Update License SET Used=Used-1 WHERE ClientId='xxx' AND Type=1 Please help. Thanks, Mahesh

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